IFC Investment Funds in Canada (IFC) Exam Questions and Answers

According to the Closed-End Funds vs. Open-End Funds: What’s the Difference? - Investopedia, open-end funds are mutual funds that can issue an unlimited number of shares to investors. The number of units is not fixed, and varies with investor demand and redemption orders. Investors buy and sell open-end funds directly from the fund company at the net asset value (NAV) of the fund, which is calculated at the end of each trading day. Open-end funds are not traded on an exchange or in the secondary market.

A negative Sharpe ratio indicates that the fund’s return is less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) is negative. The feedback from the document states:

"The Sharpe ratio is calculated as (Fund Return - T-bill Rate) ÷ Fund Standard Deviation. A negative Sharpe ratio means the mutual fund has a return less than the risk-free rate, as the numerator of the ratio would be negative."

Structural unemployment occurs when there is a mismatch between available jobs and the skills of workers. This is exactly the case when there is a lack of skilled workers in the economy.

Cyclical unemployment (A) arises during economic downturns.

Frictional unemployment (C) is temporary, due to workers moving between jobs.

Seasonal unemployment (D) arises in industries affected by seasonal patterns (e.g., agriculture, tourism).

Eligible dividends from a publicly-listed Canadian corporation would provide the most favourable tax treatment for Bernadette, who is in the top tax bracket. Eligible dividends are subject to a lower tax rate than other types of income because they qualify for the enhanced dividend tax credit. This credit is intended to reduce the double taxation of corporate income, which occurs when a corporation pays tax on its earnings and then distributes those earnings to its shareholders, who also pay tax on them. Dividends received from a large foreign corporation do not qualify for the dividend tax credit and are taxed at the same rate as interest income. Coupon payments from Government of Canada bonds are also fully taxable as interest income. Capital gains from a large Canadian corporation are taxed at a lower rate than interest income, but higher than eligible dividends, because only 50% of the gain is included in taxable income. References: Capital gains, interest and dividends: How they’re taxed in Canada, How Are Dividends Taxed in Canada?

Financial circumstances are a critical component of the Know Your Client (KYC) process, as they determine the client’s ability to commit savings to investments and the level of risk they can assume. Mortgage documents provide insights into the client’s debt and obligations, which are essential for assessing financial circumstances. The feedback from the document states:

"Financial circumstances are an important consideration in judging the suitability of investments, because they determine the amount of savings clients can commit to investing and the level of risk they can assume. Marc’s client’s mortgage document will give Marc valuable insights into the level of debt and mortgage obligations his client has, helping in evaluating the client’s financial circumstances."

Net worth is calculated as total assets minus total liabilities. The client’s assets are $100,000 (savings) + $5,000 (bank accounts) = $105,000. The liabilities are $10,000 (loans). Thus, net worth = $105,000 - $10,000 = $95,000. The feedback from the document confirms:

"Net worth is calculated as the value of all of the client’s assets after subtracting outstanding loan and mortgage balances. In this example, the client has $100,000 + $5,000 = $105,000 in assets, and $10,000 in loans. Therefore, his net worth is $105,000 - $10,000 = $95,000."

A beta of 1.4 indicates that the Optima Equity Fund is 1.4 times more volatile than the market. If the market rises by 5%, the fund is expected to rise by 5% × 1.4 = 7%. The feedback from the document states:

"One way to measure market risk is by calculating a portfolio’s beta. Beta shows how much a portfolio fluctuates when the market as a whole fluctuates. A higher beta means that the portfolio is exposed to more risk. The market has a beta of 1.0. In this example: The Optima Equity Fund has a beta of 1.4, which means the Fund is expected to be 1.4 times more volatile than the market as a whole. If the S&P/TSX Composite Index is used to measure the performance of the Optima Fund, then if the Index rose by 10% you would expect to see the Optima Fund rise by 14% (1.4 × 10%)."

Interest rate risk is the primary risk for fixed-income securities, as their value decreases when interest rates rise due to fixed cash flows. The feedback from the document states:

"Interest rate risk is the fundamental risk factor for fixed-income securities such as bonds, mortgages and preferred shares. As interest rates move up, the value of a fixed-income security falls. This is because the cash flow from the fixed-income security is fixed."

A registrant adds value by helping clients match mutual fund solutions to their needs and objectives, not by making promises or pushing products.

B (low MERs) is one factor, but not the entire scope of advice.

C (guaranteeing performance) is unethical and prohibited.

D (cross-selling) prioritizes the dealer, not the client.

A company’s retained earnings statement is a financial statement that shows how the company’s net income is distributed between dividends paid to shareholders and retained earnings, which are the amount of profit that is reinvested in the company. Retained earnings are part of the company’s equity, and they reflect the accumulated earnings that the company has generated over its history, minus any dividends or distributions. Retained earnings can be used by the company for various purposes, such as expanding its operations, developing new products, paying off debt, or buying back shares1

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 3: Equity Securities, Section 5.3.4: Financial Statements

The maximum tax-deductible RRSP contribution is calculated as 18% of the previous year’s earned income, minus the pension adjustment, plus any carry-forward contribution room. In this case:

(18% × $45,000) = $8,100

$8,100 - $2,500 (pension adjustment) + $2,000 (carry-forward) = $7,600.

The feedback from the document confirms:

"Joanne’s tax-deductible RRSP contribution room would be calculated as (18% × $45,000) - $2,500 + $2,000 = $7,600."

The custodian, typically a trust company, receives and holds all funds from investors and other sources, managing the fund’s assets and expenses. The feedback from the document states:

"The Custodian. When a mutual fund is established, a separate organization, most often a trust company, is appointed as the fund’s custodian. The custodian receives and holds the fund’s money obtained from all sources – investors buying the fund’s units or shares, income earned by the fund’s investment portfolio, proceeds from the sale of the fund’s investments, holds all the fund’s assets and distributes the fund’s money to pay the fund’s expenses."

The Fund Facts document provides essential information to ensure the fund’s objectives and risk profile align with the investor’s needs. The feedback from the document states:

"The fundamental purpose of a Fund Facts document is to provide ‘full, plain and true’ disclosure of material information concerning the securities and the issuer of the securities, so that potential purchasers can make informed decisions about purchasing the new securities. The fundamental investment objectives of a mutual fund can be found in the Fund Facts. It specifies what the fund intends to accomplish and how it is to be done."

Quartile rankings divide funds into four equal groups, with the 1st quartile being the top 25%. A rank of 54 out of 100 places the fund in the 3rd quartile (51–75). The feedback from the document states:

"A quartile sorts performance into four equal parts or blocks. The quartiles are given a rank – 1, 2, 3 or 4 – to show how well a certain fund’s performance compared to all other funds in the peer group, with the 1st quartile representing the top 25 performers."

According to CSC ethical guidelines, integrity requires an advisor to act honestly and avoid conflicts of interest.

By recommending his brother’s private equity fund without disclosing the relationship, Seth risks a conflict of interest and breaches the principle of integrity.

Duty of care relates to suitability and due diligence.

Compliance refers to following regulations.

Confidentiality refers to safeguarding client information.

Thus, the violated value is Integrity.

A front-end load is a sales charge paid at the time of purchase, calculated as a percentage of the investment amount.

A. $1,500 × 3% = $45

B. $1,000 × 4% = $40

C. $5,000 × 1% = $50

D. $3,000 × 2% = $60

✅ Most expensive = $60 (Option D)

Correction: Answer = D. Purchase $3,000 at 2% front-end load

Direct investment means the investor owns the asset directly, e.g., real estate property, stocks, or bonds held personally.

Mutual funds (B) are indirect investments since they pool money.

Government bonds (C) can be direct if held individually, but in CSC context, examples of direct investments often emphasize real estate ownership as the clearest form.

Advisor purchases stocks for a client (D) is indirect because the advisor acts on behalf of the client.

Risk refers to the potential volatility in returns or the range of possible future outcomes on the price of a security. This concept captures the uncertainty associated with a security’s future value, a fundamental aspect of investment analysis. The feedback from the document states:

"Risk is the potential volatility in returns or the range of possible future outcomes on the price of a security."

Loss-averse investors prioritize minimizing potential losses over maximizing gains. The option with a 25% chance of gaining $2,000 and a 75% chance of losing nothing has the lowest loss potential, making it the preferred choice. The feedback from the document states:

"The loss-averse investor will choose a lower potential of loss over a more rational choice. In this example, a 25% chance of gaining $2,000 and a 75% chance of losing nothing has the lowest possible loss potential, and will typically be the statement selected by the loss-averse investor."

Asset allocation is the most critical decision for portfolio success, followed by sector weighting and then security selection. The feedback from the document states:

"The single most important decision, one that accounts for most of the success or failure of a portfolio, is the asset allocation decision, which is the selection of the classes of securities to be held and in what proportion to hold them. The next most important decision is the selection of the specific industries from which stocks will be selected: the portfolio’s sector weighting. The final decision is the security selection: the choice of which individual companies within the industry or sector to invest in."

A group RRSP is a retirement savings plan sponsored by an employer that allows employees to contribute through regular payroll deductions and benefit from tax advantages and possible employer matching. The employer is responsible for choosing the plan provider, which is the financial institution that administers the group RRSP and offers a range of investment options for the employees to choose from. The employer may also negotiate lower fees and better services with the plan provider than what individual RRSPs can offer. Therefore, statement D is correct.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement A: A group RRSP is less costly and time consuming to administer than traditional pension plans, as it does not require actuarial valuations, funding requirements, or regulatory filings.

Statement B: If you leave your employer, your group RRSP does not stay with the employer. You can transfer your group RRSP to an individual RRSP or another registered plan without tax consequences, as long as there are no locked-in provisions.

Statement C: You do not need to wait until you file your taxes to receive your contribution tax deduction. Your contributions are deducted from your gross income before tax is calculated, so you receive an immediate tax benefit on your paycheque.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

The purpose of holding money market instruments for non-money market mutual funds is to provide liquidity for the fund. If the portfolio manager has an immediate need for cash, such as to pay expenses or meet redemption requests, money market instruments are relatively easy to liquidate because they have short maturities and low credit risk. Money market instruments do not primarily generate investment income that provides investors with preferential tax treatment, as interest income from money market instruments is fully taxable at the investor’s marginal tax rate. Money market instruments are not purchased by non-money market funds to satisfy the regulatory requirement of fund diversification, as there is no such requirement for mutual funds. Money market instruments do not ensure that the fair market value of a mutual fund will not drop below a minimal market value, as money market instruments can also fluctuate in value depending on interest rate changes and supply and demand factors. References: Money Market Instruments

Lydia can make an in-kind contribution of her mutual fund units to her RRSP, as long as the fund is eligible for RRSPs. The value of her contribution will be based on the fair market value of the units at the time of the transfer, which is $10,600. However, she will also trigger a deemed disposition of the units and realize a capital gain of $6,100 ($10,600 - $4,500), which is taxable in the year of the transfer.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.1: Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP)1 and web search results from search_web(query="RRSP contribution in kind")

A is correct because retractable preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to sell the shares back to the issuer at a predetermined price and within a specified time. This feature provides the holder with more flexibility and protection against interest rate fluctuations. Participating preferred shares (B) are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the right to receive additional dividends if the issuer’s earnings exceed a certain level. Convertible preferred shares © are a type of preferred shares that give the holder the option to convert the shares into common shares of the issuer at a predetermined ratio and price. Redeemable preferred shares (D) are a type of preferred shares that give the issuer the option to buy back the shares from the holder at a predetermined price and within a specified time.

The statement that is correct about Maalik’s identification requirements is option A. According to Section 7 of the Proceeds of Crime (Money Laundering) and Terrorist Financing Act (PCMLTFA), registered firms and individuals must report any suspicious transactions or attempted transactions to FINTRAC, which is Canada’s financial intelligence unit that collects, analyzes, and discloses information related to money laundering and terrorist financing activities. A suspicious transaction or attempted transaction is one that there are reasonable grounds to suspect that it is related to a money laundering or terrorist financing offence. Therefore, if Maalik determines that there is anything suspicious about John’s transaction, he must report the matter to his dealer, who must report it to FINTRAC within 30 days of making the determination. The other statements are not correct about Maalik’s identification requirements. Option B is false because Maalik does not need to report John as a PEFP to his dealer; rather, he must take reasonable measures to determine whether John is a PEFP or a family member or close associate of a PEFP, and if so, he must obtain senior management approval before opening an account for John, take enhanced measures to verify John’s identity, and conduct enhanced ongoing monitoring of John’s account activity. Option C is false because Maalik does not need to collect personal information about John and report it to his dealer if John wants to make a large cash deposit; rather, he must verify John’s identity using an original, valid, and current document or information from a reliable source, keep a record of John’s name and address and the date and amount of the deposit, and report any large cash transactions of $10,000 or more in Canadian currency or its equivalent to FINTRAC within 15 days of receiving the cash. Option D is false because Maalik does not need to report the attempt to his dealer if John attempts to make a suspicious deposit; rather, he must report the attempt directly to FINTRAC within 30 days of detecting the suspicion, regardless of whether the transaction was completed or not. References: [FINTRAC - Home], [FINTRAC - Reporting], [FINTRAC - Guideline 2: Suspicious Transactions], [FINTRAC - Guideline 6A: Record Keeping and Client Identification for Financial Entities]

 A commodity pool is a type of mutual fund that can invest in specified derivatives and forward contracts for commodities, such as grains, meats, metals, energy products, and coffee. A commodity pool allows investors to gain exposure to the commodity markets without having to buy or sell the physical commodities themselves. A commodity pool may also use leverage and hedging strategies to enhance returns and reduce risks. Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Commodity Pool: Definition and How It Works - Investopedia, Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute

The management expense ratio (MER) is the percentage of a fund’s assets that is paid to the fund manager for operating and managing the fund. A higher MER means that more of the fund’s returns are eaten up by fees, leaving less for the investors. Therefore, Fontaine Equity Fund’s higher MER of 2.99% contributes to its lower 5-year annualized return of 11.25%, compared to Chamberlain Equity Fund’s MER of 2.57% and 5-year annualized return of 13.42%. Therefore, D is the correct answer. , Management Expense Ratio (MER): Definition and How It Works - Investopedia

A joint account allows the husband to retain trading authority and includes the right of survivorship, ensuring the assets revert to him if his wife dies. The feedback from the document states:

"The husband would have no financial interest in a client name account, registered in his wife’s name only. A nominee account would transfer trading authority to a dealer or third-party administrator. In a tenants in common account, each spouse would have trading authority over his/her portion of the account. Therefore, the husband’s best option would be to open a joint account and retain full trading authority. A joint account would also offer the right of survivorship, which is not a feature of a tenants in common account."

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, asset mix rebalancing is the process of restoring the portfolio to its original or target asset allocation by selling or buying assets. Asset mix rebalancing is necessary to maintain the desired level of risk and return, as well as to align the portfolio with the investor’s objectives and circumstances. Asset mix rebalancing can be done periodically, such as annually or quarterly, or based on a threshold, such as when an asset class deviates from its target weight by a certain percentage.

In this case, Jerry’s asset mix is deviating from the original target asset mix because the stock market has had strong performance. Equities are now over-weighted in Jerry’s account. The original target asset mix is still valid since Jerry’s situation has not changed. He is invested in several bond and equity mutual funds. Therefore, the best course of action is to advise him to sell a portion of assets invested in equity funds and reinvest the proceeds into bond funds. This will bring his portfolio back to its target asset mix and reduce his exposure to equity risk.

The other options are not advisable because:

Advising him to change his know your client (KYC) form to reflect more growth would imply that his risk tolerance and objectives have changed, which is not the case. Changing the KYC form would also require a new suitability assessment and documentation.

Advising him to do nothing since equities could outperform bonds in the next year would ignore the importance of asset mix rebalancing and expose him to more risk than he is comfortable with. Doing nothing would also mean that his portfolio is not aligned with his original plan and expectations.

Advising him to sell a portion of assets invested in bond funds and reinvest the proceeds into equity funds would further increase his equity weight and risk, which is contrary to his original target asset mix and risk tolerance.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. advise him to sell a portion of assets invested in equity funds and reinvest the proceeds into bond funds.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 10: Portfolio Management)

Gross profit is calculated as sales minus the cost of goods sold. For Widget Inc.: $200,000 - $80,000 = $120,000. The feedback from the document states:

"Sales are reduced by the expenses that were incurred in order to generate the goods sold (cost of goods sold). These expenses include the cost of inventories used to produce the goods as well as the labour that went into their production. The sales revenue, net of the cost of producing those goods, is known as gross profit. In this case, gross profit = $200,000 - $80,000 = $120,000."

Kerry’s taxable income would be $98,000 ($100,000 - $2,000). Using the federal tax rates provided in the image, the first $48,535 of her income would be taxed at 15%, the next $48,534 at 20.5%, and the remaining $931 at 26%. This would result in a total federal tax payable of $18,754. You can see the calculation in detail below:

Taxable Income

Marginal Tax Rate

Federal Tax Payable

$0 - $48,535

15%

$7,280.25

$48,536 - $97,069

20.5%

$9,934.47

$97,070 - $98,000

26%

$539.80

Total

$18,754.52

Note: The final answer is rounded to the closest whole dollar.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 8, Section 8.2; [4]

A put option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to sell a set number of shares of an underlying asset at a set price within a specified time frame. The buyer of a put option expects the price of the underlying asset to fall below the strike price before the expiration date. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: Put Option: What It Is, How It Works, and How to Trade Them, Put: What It Is and How It Works in Investing, With Examples, Put Options: Definition, Overview, and Example

The right of withdrawal is a statutory right that allows investors to cancel their purchase order of mutual funds within a specified period of time and receive a refund of the amount they paid. The right of withdrawal is also known as the cooling-off period or the rescission right. The right of withdrawal for investors can be different depending on which province (or territory) the fund was purchased within, as each jurisdiction has its own securities legislation and regulations that govern the mutual fund industry. For example, in Ontario, the right of withdrawal is two business days after receiving the simplified prospectus or the fund facts document, whichever is later1. In Quebec, the right of withdrawal is two business days after receiving the simplified prospectus or confirmation of purchase, whichever is later2. In British Columbia, the right of withdrawal is 48 hours after receiving confirmation of purchase3. Therefore, Mariana may still be able to exercise her right of withdrawal, depending on where she bought her mutual funds and when she received the required documents. References:

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 3: The Regulatory Environment, Section 3.2: The Right of Withdrawal, page 3-54

Ontario Securities Commission - Mutual Funds - Buying and Selling1

Autorité des marchés financiers - Mutual Funds - Buying and Selling2

British Columbia Securities Commission - Mutual Funds - Buying and Selling3

In a tenants in common account, each owner holds a pro-rata share (e.g., 50%) and can only issue instructions for their portion, with no right of survivorship. KYC information is required for both owners. The feedback from the document states:

"If more than one person owns an account and it is not specifically identified as being a joint account, each owner owns a pro-rata share of the account, unless ownership is divided in another manner and noted on the account. Where an account is held as tenants in common, there is no right of survivorship and each owner, unless otherwise specified, can only give instructions with regard to the pro-rata portion of the account."

This is because a target date fund is designed to reduce the risk and volatility of the portfolio as the investor gets closer to their retirement or other savings goal. Equities tend to have higher returns but also higher risk than fixed income, so a target date fund gradually reduces the exposure to equities and increases the exposure to fixed income over time. This way, the investor can benefit from the growth potential of equities in the early years and preserve their capital with the stability of fixed income in the later years. 

Fund wraps are managed portfolios with pre-selected asset allocation models, where the wrap sponsor is responsible for allocation decisions. The feedback from the document states:

"A fund wrap program provides a series of portfolios with multiple mutual funds to reflect pre-selected asset allocation models. Each model is designed to meet the needs of a group of investors sharing a similar client profile. Responsibility for the asset allocation decision falls to the wrap sponsor."

 Relationship Disclosure Information (RDI) is a document that provides important information about the nature and scope of the relationship between a registered firm and its clients. It covers topics such as the products and services offered by the firm, the fees and charges applicable to the client’s account, the risks associated with investing, the conflict of interest management policies of the firm, and the dispute resolution services available to the client. According to Section 14.2 of National Instrument 31-103 Registration Requirements, Exemptions and Ongoing Registrant Obligations (NI 31-103), registered firms must provide RDI to their clients before they purchase or sell securities for them or advise them to do so. Registered firms must also update RDI in a timely manner if there are any significant changes to it. To evidence that they have satisfied their RDI obligation, registered firms may retain a copy of the RDI in the client file with detailed notes to confirm that they have provided and explained RDI to their clients. This is one of the acceptable methods suggested by Alberta Securities Commission (ASC) in its presentation on RDI1. Delivering RDI only upon request or using a letter of engagement are not sufficient methods to comply with NI 31-103. Providing and explaining Fund Facts is a separate obligation under NI 31-101 Mutual Fund Distribution Rules. References: Relationship Disclosure Information August 2021, Relationship Disclosure Information, Relationship Disclosure Information

The Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) is a program that allows eligible first-time home buyers to withdraw up to $35,000 from their registered retirement savings plans (RRSPs) to buy or build a qualifying home without paying any tax on the withdrawal. The withdrawn amount must be repaid to the RRSP over a period of up to 15 years, starting from the second year after the withdrawal. If the required repayment for a year is not made, it is added to the taxpayer’s income and subject to tax. Therefore, option B describes a feature of the HBP. The other options are not correct descriptions of the HBP. Option A is false because to qualify as a first-time home buyer, you or your spouse must not have owned and lived in another home as your principal place of residence during the four-year period before the date of withdrawal. Option C is false because a qualifying home must be purchased or built before October 1 of the year following the year of withdrawal. Option D is false because if you have a spouse or common-law partner, each of you can withdraw up to $35,000 from your RRSPs, not $50,000. References: [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP)], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) - Canada.ca], [Home Buyers’ Plan (HBP) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

An eligible dividend is a type of dividend that is paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria and is eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit. The dividend tax credit reduces the amount of tax payable on dividends by providing a credit against the tax liability. An eligible dividend has a higher gross-up rate and a higher dividend tax credit rate than a non-eligible dividend, which means that it results in a lower effective tax rate. A capital dividend is a type of dividend that is paid from the capital gains realized by a corporation and is tax-free to the shareholder. However, a tactical asset allocation fund is unlikely to pay capital dividends, as they are usually reserved for private corporations. A capital gain is the profit from selling an asset at a higher price than its purchase price. Only 50% of the capital gain is taxable, which means that it has a lower effective tax rate than interest income, which is fully taxable. However, a capital gain distribution from a mutual fund is not the same as a capital gain from selling the mutual fund units. A capital gain distribution is paid when the fund realizes a capital gain from selling its underlying assets, and it is taxable in the year it is received, regardless of whether the shareholder sells the fund units or not. Therefore, it does not benefit from the deferral of tax that occurs when the shareholder sells the fund units at a later date. An interest distribution is paid when the fund earns interest income from its underlying assets, such as bonds or money market instruments. Interest income is fully taxable at the marginal tax rate, which means that it has the highest effective tax rate among the four types of distributions.

To compare the amount of tax payable for each type of distribution, we can use the following formula:

Tax=(Distribution×Gross−up)×MarginalTaxRate−(Distribution×Gross−up)×DividendTaxCreditRate

For simplicity, we assume that Davis receives $100 of each type of distribution and that he does not have any other income or deductions. We also ignore any provincial taxes or credits. Using the formula, we can calculate the tax payable for each type of distribution as follows:

Capital Dividend: Tax=(100×0)×0.26−(100×0)×0=0

Capital Gain: Tax=(100×0.5)×0.26−(100×0.5)×0=13

Eligible Dividend: Tax=(100×1.38)×0.26−(100×1.38)×0.15=10.14

Interest: Tax=(100×1)×0.26−(100×1)×0=26

Therefore, an eligible dividend would result in the lowest amount of tax payable, followed by a capital gain, a capital dividend, and an interest distribution.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-41

Eligible Dividends Definition - Investopedia2

Capital Dividend Definition - Investopedia3

Capital Gain Distribution Definition - Investopedia4

 Retractable preferred shares are those that give the holder the option to sell them back to the issuer at a predetermined price and date. This is the case for Evan, who can sell his shares back to Ingram at par value any time from now until September 1st two years from now.

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, an investment objective is the goal or purpose of investing money. An investment objective reflects the investor’s desired return, risk tolerance, time horizon, and liquidity needs. An investment objective is one of the key components of the know-your-client (KYC) information that a mutual fund representative must obtain and update from a client. The KYC information helps the representative to assess the suitability of any investment recommendation or trade instruction for the client2

In this case, Sarah and Kyle are a married couple who want to save towards a purchase of a sailboat. They are able to save $800 each month and have a tax-free savings account (TFSA) in Kyle’s name with $5,000. They want you to recommend an investment for their monthly savings to help them achieve their goal faster. Before you can make any recommendation, you need to gather more information about their investment objective for these savings. You need to know how much return they expect, how much risk they are willing to take, how long they plan to invest, and how easily they want to access their money. These factors will help you to determine the most suitable investment option for them.

Therefore, the question you should ask them next is C. What is your investment objective for these savings?

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 3 (Unit 2: Know Your Client) 2: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 4 (Unit 10: Portfolio Management)

This answer is correct because according to FINRA Rule 3270, a registered representative must notify their firm in writing of any outside business activity (OBA) that involves compensation or the reasonable expectation of compensation from another person, or that may be viewed by customers or the public as part of the member’s business. However, if the OBA does not involve any of these factors, then the notification is not required. In this case, Reagan’s role as the Chief Revenue Officer of a charitable organization may not involve any compensation or any connection to her securities business, especially if none of her colleagues from the charity become clients. Therefore, she is not required to inform her dealer of this outside activity.

References = Outside Business Activities and Private Securities Transactions, Selling Away in Securities: Understanding FINRA Rule 3270

A mutual fund trust structure allows the fund to avoid taxation by distributing its income to unitholders. The feedback from the document states:

"The most common structure for mutual funds in Canada is the open-end trust. The trust structure allows a fund itself to avoid taxation. Any interest, dividends and capital gains income, net of the fund’s fees, expenses and capital losses, if passed to its unitholders each calendar year, will allow the trust to avoid being taxed on its income."

Sabrina’s RRSP contribution room for Year 3 is $24,270. This is because the maximum contribution limit for Year 3 is $24,270 and Sabrina has always maximized her RRSP contributions, so she has no carry-forward room available.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 5: Registered Plans

In a mutual fund dealer, the chief compliance officer (CCO) is the person responsible for establishing and maintaining compliance policies and procedures as well as monitoring and assessing compliance by the dealer and its representatives. The CCO must report to the board of directors or senior management of the dealer and must meet certain proficiency requirements, such as passing the Mutual Fund Dealers Compliance Exam. The CCO is also accountable to the securities regulators and self-regulatory organizations for any compliance issues or breaches. References: Guide to Broker-Dealer Registration

Dustin needs to ensure that his recommendation is suitable for the new joint account, which may have a different risk profile than the individual accounts of Salvatore and Harriet. A joint account is an account that is owned by two or more people who share the rights and responsibilities of the account. A joint account may have different investment objectives, time horizon, risk tolerance, and financial situation than the individual accounts of the joint owners. Therefore, Dustin needs to conduct a know your client (KYC) process for the joint account and determine the appropriate risk profile for the account, based on the collective responses of Salvatore and Harriet. The risk profile of the joint account will guide Dustin in recommending suitable investment products and services that match the goals and needs of the joint owners

Know Your Client (KYC) requirements are ongoing obligations that advisors must fulfill to ensure that they provide suitable recommendations and services to their clients. KYC requirements include collecting and documenting information about the client’s personal and financial situation, investment objectives, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge. KYC requirements also include monitoring and updating the client’s information and investment performance on a regular basis. According to the Mutual Fund Dealers Association of Canada (MFDA), advisors must review the KYC information at least once every 36 months, or more frequently if there are any material changes in the client’s circumstances or needs1. Advisors must also monitor the investment performance of the client’s portfolio and compare it with the client’s expectations and goals. If the investment performance is not satisfactory or consistent with the client’s risk tolerance, advisors must take appropriate actions, such as rebalancing the portfolio, switching funds, or revising the investment strategy2. Therefore, Harold’s responsibility moving forward is to monitor the investment performance of Felicia’s lump sum investment and determine if it is on track to satisfy her financial needs for the next 5 years. He must also review her KYC information at least once every 36 months, or sooner if there are any changes in her situation or objectives. References:

MFDA Bulletin #0756-P - Know-Your-Client and Suitability1

MFDA Bulletin #0760-P - Monitoring of Investment Performance2

Kiri has correctly fulfilled his suitability obligation by matching the risk-return profile of the fund with the personal circumstances of his client. The Conservative Bond Fund is a low-risk, low-return fund that pays regular interest income to investors. Myrtle’s investment objective is “income”, which means she wants to receive steady income from her investments and preserve her capital. Therefore, Kiri’s recommendation is reasonably suitable for Myrtle in all the circumstances. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2, Section 2.3: Conflicts of Interest

IFSE Institute: Suitability Obligations1

SFC: Frequently Asked Questions on Compliance with Suitability Obligations2

A mortgage fund is a type of income fund that invests in mortgages and other debt instruments secured by real estate. It provides a steady stream of income to investors and has a low correlation with other asset classes. A mortgage fund is suitable for Yael because she needs income to pay her monthly expenses and is comfortable with high risk. A global equity fund, a money market fund, and a Canadian equity index fund are not suitable for Yael because they do not meet her income objective and risk tolerance.

A Registered Education Savings Plan (RESP) is a tax-advantaged savings plan that helps parents and family members save for a child’s post-secondary education. The government also contributes to the plan through the Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG) and the Canada Learning Bond (CLB), depending on the family income and the amount of contributions. However, there are some rules and limits that apply to RESP contributions and government grants. One of them is the lifetime contribution limit, which is the maximum amount that can be contributed to an RESP for a beneficiary from all sources. The lifetime contribution limit is $50,000 per beneficiary, regardless of how many RESPs are opened for them or who contributes to them. Therefore, statement A is correct. Justin and Yvonne may contribute a combined lifetime maximum of $50,000 for Grace to their RESP.

The other statements are incorrect for the following reasons:

Statement B: RESPs are not tax-free investment plans. They are tax-deferred plans, meaning that the contributions are made with after-tax dollars and the investment income earned in the plan is not taxed until it is withdrawn as an educational assistance payment (EAP) for the beneficiary. The EAPs are taxed in the hands of the beneficiary, who usually has little or no income and pays little or no tax.

Statement C: There is no annual contribution limit for RESP contributions. However, there is an annual limit for the CESG, which is 20% of the first $2,500 contributed per beneficiary per year, up to a maximum of $500 per year. The CESG also has a lifetime limit of $7,200 per beneficiary.

Statement D: Contributions made to an RESP are not eligible for a tax deduction in the year they are contributed. They are made with after-tax dollars and do not reduce the contributor’s taxable income.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 9, Section 9.1

Government of Canada Bonds are fixed income securities issued by the federal government that pay a fixed rate of interest (coupon) and return the principal amount (par value) at maturity. They are considered low risk investments, as they are backed by the full faith and credit of the government. They also provide regular income to investors, as they pay interest semi-annually. For Sheldon, who has a low risk profile and an investment objective of receiving regular income, 3% Government of Canada Bonds at par would be an appropriate investment recommendation, as they would match his time horizon of 5 years and provide him with a stable and predictable income stream. The other options are not suitable for Sheldon, as they involve higher risk, volatility, or complexity.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 2: Fixed Income Securities, Section 5.2.1: Government Bonds1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.2.1 2

Loss aversion bias causes investors to hold onto unprofitable investments due to a stronger desire to avoid losses than to seek gains. The feedback from the document states:

"Loss aversion bias states that people generally feel a stronger impulse to avoid losses than to acquire gains. Loss aversion can prevent people from unloading unprofitable investments, even when they see little to no prospect of a turnaround."

Dakota can send promotional emails to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). A CEM is any electronic message that encourages participation in a commercial activity, such as an email, a text message, or a social media message. Under Canada’s anti-spam legislation (CASL), Dakota must obtain consent from the recipients before sending CEMs, either explicitly (e.g., by asking them to sign up for a newsletter) or implicitly (e.g., by having an existing business relationship with them). Dakota must also identify himself and his dealer, provide contact information, and include an unsubscribe mechanism in every CEM. The other statements are incorrect. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who are listed on the National Do Not Call List (DNCL). The DNCL is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive unsolicited telemarketing calls. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must register with the National DNCL operator, subscribe to the National DNCL, and avoid calling any number on the list, unless he has express consent from the consumer or an exemption applies. Dakota cannot send promotional emails to clients who have opted into Harvest Wealth’s Do Not Call List. A Do Not Call List is a list of telephone numbers of consumers who do not want to receive telemarketing calls from a specific organization. Under the Telecommunications Act, Dakota must maintain an internal Do Not Call List for his dealer and respect the requests of consumers who ask not to be called by his dealer. However, this does not mean that he can send promotional emails to those consumers, as that would violate CASL. Dakota cannot make telemarketing calls to clients who have opted in to receive commercial electronic messages (CEMs). Opting in to receive CEMs does not imply consent to receive telemarketing calls, as they are different forms of communication governed by different laws . Dakota must obtain separate consent from the clients before making telemarketing calls to them, either explicitly or implicitly. References: [Canada’s anti-spam legislation], [National Do Not Call List]

A balanced mutual fund is a type of fund that invests in a mix of equities and fixed income securities, with the aim of achieving both growth and income objectives. A balanced fund typically has a target asset allocation that is specified in its mandate, and may vary within a certain range depending on market conditions. A balanced fund may also distribute interest, dividends, and capital gains to its unitholders. The Laurentian Fund is an example of a balanced fund, as it limits its equity exposure to 60% and holds between 40 - 60% in fixed income at all times.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 6: Mutual Funds, Lesson 1: Mutual Funds Overview, Section 6.1.3: Types of Mutual Funds 1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 6: Mutual Funds, Question 6.1.3 2

In Canada, anyone involved in securities enforcement or adjudication must be properly licensed or registered.

The unlicensed new hire erred by taking on a case (licensing violation) without being formally registered, violating regulatory requirements.

Requesting subpoenas (A) and FATF involvement (C) may show poor judgment, but the fundamental error is acting without registration.

 B is correct because assessing historical differences in the rate of return per unit of risk of similar mutual funds helps a Dealing Representative to compare the performance and risk-adjusted returns of different mutual funds and select the most suitable one for a client’s risk tolerance and investment objectives. Comparing historical rates of return between different types of mutual funds (A) does not account for the risk involved in each type of fund. Referencing the fund code for each mutual fund that is being compared © does not provide any information about the fund’s characteristics, features, or suitability. The rights a client has if there is a desire to cancel the purchased mutual fund (D) are not relevant for determining a suitable mutual fund for a client.

The correct answer is D. If Jacinta shares the list with Saabir without obtaining the clients’ prior consent, she will be in breach of the Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA).

PIPEDA is the federal privacy law for private-sector organizations in Canada. It sets out the ground rules for how businesses must handle personal information in the course of their commercial activity. One of the key principles of PIPEDA is consent. This means that organizations must obtain meaningful consent from individuals before collecting, using, or disclosing their personal information, unless an exception applies. Consent must be obtained for the original purpose of collecting the information, and for any new purpose that arises later. Consent can be express or implied, depending on the sensitivity of the information and the reasonable expectations of the individual.

In this scenario, Jacinta’s clients’ personal information is sensitive, as it relates to their financial situation and investment goals. Jacinta’s clients would not reasonably expect that their information would be shared with Saabir, who is not affiliated with WealthSource Partners Inc., for the purpose of marketing insurance products. Therefore, Jacinta must obtain express consent from her clients before disclosing their information to Saabir. If she does not, she will violate PIPEDA and risk legal action from her clients or from the Office of the Privacy Commissioner (OPC).

Implicit costs of principal protected notes include performance participation caps, which limit the potential returns and are not always explicitly disclosed. The feedback from the document states:

"Implicit costs include fees borne by investors that may or may not be immediately visible and that may or may not be openly disclosed in the documents. Of the items listed, three are explicit costs, and only Performance Participation Caps are an implicit cost."

 Investment dealers are people or firms who buy and sell securities for their own account, whether through a broker or otherwise. They play an important role in the Canadian and global financial markets because they are market makers, create liquidity, and help promote long-term growth in the market. They also provide investment services to investors, such as underwriting securities, raising capital, and offering advice. By assisting with the exchange of capital for a financial instrument, they facilitate the flow of funds between savers and borrowers, and between different sectors and countries. The other options are not accurate descriptions of the role of investment dealers. References: Dealers: Definition in Trading, Meaning and Comparison to Brokers, Investment Dealers Definition

 According to the What Is a Call Option and How to Use It With Example - Investopedia, a call option is a contract that gives the buyer the right, but not the obligation, to buy an underlying stock at a specified price (the strike price) within a specified time period (the expiration date). The seller of a call option is obligated to sell the stock if the buyer exercises the option. Pierre buys a call option on a stock, which means he has the right to buy the stock if he exercises the option. He can also choose not to exercise the option or sell it before expiration.

Discussing questionable personal experiences in a public setting can harm the representative’s professional image, relating to the aspect of other personal endeavors. The feedback from the document states:

"The representative must take care to ensure that any publicly visible activity in which he participates is conducted responsibly and moderately so as not to present an unfavorable public image."

 Dollar-cost averaging is the practice of systematically investing equal amounts of money at regular intervals, regardless of the price of a security. This strategy can reduce the overall impact of price volatility and lower the average cost per share. By buying regularly in up and down markets, investors buy more shares at lower prices and fewer shares at higher prices. Dollar-cost averaging aims to prevent a poorly timed lump sum investment at a potentially higher price. References: What Is Dollar-Cost Averaging? - Investopedia

The category of Know Your Client (KYC) information that has been given is investment experience. Investment experience refers to the level of knowledge and familiarity that a client has with various types of investments, such as mutual funds, stocks, bonds, etc. It also includes the client’s past performance, frequency of trading, and length of holding period. In this case, Felipe has given information about his investment experience by stating that he purchased a mutual fund with a deferred sales charge, that he had a 25-year growth objective, that he never noticed his mutual fund having a drop in value, and that he never made any changes to his investment.

References = Know Your Client (KYC): What It Means, Compliance Requirements, Know Your Client (KYC) - Overview, Importance and Benefits, Process, IFSE CIFC Module 2: The Investment Industry, page 2-14.

The life-cycle hypothesis suggests that as people move through different life stages, their objectives, financial circumstances, risk tolerance, and investment knowledge change. Advisors can use this framework to make general assumptions about investment objectives based on age and stage (e.g., younger investors focus on short-term goals, older investors on retirement and estate building).

Therefore, the correct answer is C.

An annuity provides a steady income stream until the client’s death, suitable for someone with uncertain income sources and no interest in leaving a legacy. The feedback from the document states:

"The client needs a steady source of income from his investment. This rules out a ratio withdrawal plan and a life withdrawal plan. With a fixed-dollar withdrawal plan his capital could be exhausted before he dies. He should choose an annuity that will pay a fixed amount every year until his death. If he lives beyond the guaranteed term, the annuity will cease with his death, but this fact is not important as he does not wish to leave a legacy."

Lenny would qualify for a partial OAS pension, because he meets the following criteria:

•He is 65 years old or older.

•He is a Canadian citizen or a legal resident at the time of his OAS pension application.

•He has resided in Canada for at least 10 years since the age of 18.

The amount of his partial OAS pension would be proportional to the number of years he has lived in Canada after the age of 18, divided by 40. For example, if he has lived in Canada for 15 years, he would receive 15/40 or 37.5% of the full OAS pension1

References = web search results from search_web(query="Old Age Security pension eligibility")

This question would give you the most information regarding your client’s familiarity with investing because it tests their basic knowledge of one of the fundamental concepts in finance. The relationship between risk and return is the trade-off that investors face when choosing between different investments. Generally, the higher the risk, the higher the expected return, and vice versa. A client who understands this relationship would be able to evaluate the potential outcomes and costs of their investment decisions and choose the ones that match their risk tolerance and return objectives. A client who does not understand this relationship might have unrealistic expectations or make unsuitable choices.

References = Risk-Return Tradeoff Definition - Investopedia, Risk and Return - Corporate Finance Institute, Risk and Return: An Introduction - Morningstar

Discretionary income is the amount left after subtracting expenses from total income, available for savings or investments. Total income = $100,000 (employment) + $10,000 (investments) = $110,000. Subtracting $95,000 in bills gives $110,000 - $95,000 = $15,000. The feedback from the document states:

"Discretionary income eligible for savings and investments is the difference between the amount of money coming in from employment and other sources and the amount of money going out to pay bills. In this example, $100,000 + $10,000 - $95,000 = $15,000."

The correct answer is A. Indicates how much an investment’s performance fluctuates around its average historical return.

Standard deviation is a measure of how spread out the data points are from the mean value. It is calculated as the square root of the variance, which is the average of the squared differences from the mean. Standard deviation can be used to assess the volatility or risk of an investment by showing how much the returns deviate from the expected or average return. A higher standard deviation means that the investment has a wider range of possible outcomes, which implies more uncertainty and risk. A lower standard deviation means that the investment has a narrower range of possible outcomes, which implies more stability and consistency.

B. A standard deviation greater than one indicates a higher level of volatility than the market. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment is not directly comparable to the standard deviation of the market, unless they have the same mean return. The standard deviation of an investment only measures the absolute variation of the returns, not the relative variation to the market. A better measure of the relative volatility of an investment to the market is beta, which is the ratio of the covariance of the investment and the market to the variance of the market.

C. Measures the systematic risk of an investment relative to a benchmark index. This statement is incorrect because the standard deviation of an investment does not distinguish between the systematic risk and the unsystematic risk. The systematic risk is the risk that affects the entire market or a large segment of the market, such as inflation, interest rates, or political events. The unsystematic risk is the risk that affects a specific investment or a small group of investments, such as management decisions, product quality, or lawsuits. The standard deviation of an investment captures both types of risk, whereas the beta of an investment only captures the systematic risk.

D. Standard deviation is also referred to as beta. This statement is incorrect because standard deviation and beta are different measures of risk. Standard deviation measures the absolute variation of the returns of an investment, whereas beta measures the relative variation of the returns of an investment to the market. Standard deviation is a measure of total risk, whereas beta is a measure of systematic risk.

Only registered individuals can process mutual fund orders. Allowing an unregistered sales assistant to enter orders violates the standards of conduct. The feedback from the document states:

"Mutual fund sales representatives must be registered to sell mutual funds. This requires registration with the securities administrator in each province and territory in which the clients to whom they sell mutual funds reside."

This statement is true because a mutual fund trust can distribute its net income and net realized capital gains to its unitholders, and avoid paying tax at the fund level. The unitholders then report their share of the fund’s income and capital gains on their tax returns, and pay tax according to their marginal tax rates. In this case, Redwood has generated $14.25 per unit of capital gains from the sale of Canadian and foreign corporations, and $2.00 per unit of capital losses from the sale of foreign corporations. Therefore, its net capital gains are $12.25 per unit ($14.25 - $2.00), which it can distribute to its unitholders. The unitholders will only include 50% of the net capital gains in their taxable income, as per the inclusion rate for capital gains in Canada1. The other 50% is tax-free.

The other statements are false because:

A. Redwood cannot flow the foreign dividends to unitholders, who can then take advantage of the dividend gross-up and tax credit mechanism. This mechanism only applies to dividends received from Canadian corporations that are eligible for the enhanced dividend tax credit or the ordinary dividend tax credit2. Foreign dividends are treated as foreign income, and are subject to withholding tax by the source country and income tax by Canada3.

C. Redwood cannot distribute the $2.00 per unit of capital losses to unitholders, who can then use them to offset their capital gains. A mutual fund trust can only distribute its net income and net realized capital gains, not its capital losses4. However, a mutual fund trust can carry forward its capital losses indefinitely and use them to reduce its taxable capital gains in future years5.

D. Redwood does not pay the tax on foreign income, and it does distribute dividend or capital gains income from foreign sources to unitholders. A mutual fund trust pays tax on its foreign income only if it does not distribute it to its unitholders in the same year it is earned. However, most mutual fund trusts distribute all or most of their foreign income to their unitholders, as they want to avoid paying tax at the fund level and maintain their status as a mutual fund trust.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.3: Taxation of Mutual Funds, page 7-10

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 7: Taxation, Section 7.2: Taxation of Investment Income, page 7-4

Foreign Income - Canada.ca

Mutual Fund Trusts - Canada.ca

Capital Losses and Deductions - Canada.ca

Taxation of Foreign Income - IFSE Institute

Mutual Fund Trusts - IFSE Institute

The financial planning pyramid illustrates the risk-return spectrum of investments. For a very aggressive investor, high-risk securities like OTC securities are suitable. The feedback from the document states:

"As a visual aid, the planning pyramid helps you show clients how mutual funds fit into the investment universe. A very aggressive investor could consider investments such as OTC Securities."

According to the Registered Investments (RIs) - Canada.ca, you must inform the regulatory authorities of any material or significant changes to your personal circumstances, such as a change of name, address, or employment status. You must also report any disciplinary actions, criminal charges, or civil lawsuits that may affect your suitability as a registrant. Failing to do so may result in suspension or revocation of your registration.

One of the main reasons for holding bonds in a mutual fund portfolio is to generate regular interest income, which can be distributed to the investors as cash or reinvested in more units of the fund. Bonds are debt securities that pay a fixed or variable rate of interest, called the coupon, to the bondholders until the maturity date, when the principal amount is repaid. The interest income from bonds can provide a steady source of cash flow for the fund and its investors, especially in low-interest-rate environments or when other sources of income, such as dividends or capital gains, are scarce or uncertain

A pension adjustment (PA) is the amount that the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA) assigns to your pension plan each year to reflect the value of the pension benefits that you earned. The PA reduces your registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room for the following year by the same amount. The PA ensures that all taxpayers have access to comparable tax assistance, regardless of the type of pension plan they participate in. You will receive a PA whether you are in a defined contribution or a defined benefit pension plan, but the calculation of the PA will differ depending on the type of plan. (Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8, Section 8.2)

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 8, Section 8.2: Retirement Savings Plans and Pension Plans

Investopedia: Pension Adjustment: Definition and Types of Plans1

PlanEasy: What Is A Pension Adjustment?2

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered plan that provides a stream of income in retirement. A RRIF can be opened at any age, but it must be established by the end of the year the annuitant turns 71. A RRIF cannot accept any contributions, but it can receive transfers from other registered plans, such as RRSPs, PRPPs, RPPs, or other RRIFs. A RRIF has no maximum withdrawal limit, meaning that the annuitant can withdraw any amount from the plan at any time. However, a RRIF has a minimum withdrawal requirement, which is calculated based on the annuitant’s age or the age of their spouse or common-law partner. The minimum withdrawal must be paid out in the year following the year the RRIF is opened and every year thereafter. The minimum withdrawal is taxable as income in the year of receipt.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Gregory’s account will be subjected to no maximum withdrawal limit but to an annual minimum withdrawal.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Inflation is the general increase in the prices of goods and services over time. Inflation reduces the purchasing power of money, meaning that a dollar can buy less than it used to. Inflation also erodes the real value of investment income, such as interest, dividends, and capital gains. Therefore, an increase in the inflation rate could mean that investors have less money to invest, as their income and savings lose value.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5: Types of Investments, Lesson 1: Economic Factors and Financial Markets, Section 5.1.2: Inflation1; CIFC prepkit, Chapter 5: Types of Investments, Question 5.1.2 2

The statement that is true about Marta’s situation is option D. A registered retirement income fund (RRIF) is a type of registered account that provides income in retirement by converting savings from an RRSP or other sources. A RRIF holder must withdraw a minimum amount from their RRIF each year, starting from the year after they open their RRIF. The minimum amount is calculated based on a percentage factor set by the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA) and the value of the RRIF at the beginning of each year. However, due to the COVID-19 pandemic, the CRA has reduced the required minimum withdrawals from RRIFs by 25% for 2020 and 2021. Therefore, Marta does not have to withdraw the minimum amount this year if she chooses to take advantage of this temporary measure. Therefore, option D is true about Marta’s situation. The other statements are not true about Marta’s situation. Option A is false because she will not be able to continue contributing to her RRIF and be subject to the same annual limits as her RRSP; rather, she will not be able to make any further contributions to her RRIF once she converts her RRSP to a RRIF. Option B is false because she will not incur a tax liability when she converts her RRSP to a RRIF; rather, she will only pay tax on the amount that she withdraws from her RRIF each year. Option C is false because she will not be subject to annual maximum withdrawal limits; rather, she will be able to withdraw any amount from her RRIF as long as she meets the minimum withdrawal requirement. References: [Registered Retirement Income Fund (RRIF) | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Making RRIF withdrawals | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [RRIF minimum withdrawal factors], [RRIFs: Temporary 25% reduction in minimum withdrawals for 2020 and 2021]

 A fund of funds is a mutual fund that invests in other mutual funds. This means that there are two levels of management fees: one for the fund of funds itself and one for the underlying funds. Therefore, fund of funds have higher fees than traditional mutual funds that invest directly in securities.

Standard equity funds focus on capital gains and may include dividend income, but unlike dividend funds, they do not prioritize capital preservation. The feedback from the document states:

"A standard equity fund seeks to earn some combination of dividend income and capital gains from investment in Canadian common stocks. This objective appears to be similar to that of a preferred dividend fund. The difference between the two is that an equity fund usually has a much stronger capital gains focus. Note as well that equity funds make no specific attempt to preserve capital; in other words, equity funds are willing to put capital at substantially greater risk than preferred dividend funds."

In a deflationary environment, prices of goods and services fall. This leads to:

Lower corporate profits (as companies sell at lower prices)

Lower interest rates (to stimulate borrowing)

But personal savings increase because consumers delay purchases expecting lower future prices.

Therefore, the correct answer is Personal savings.

Withdrawals from an RRSP are taxed as regular income at the plan holder’s marginal tax rate, regardless of the type of income earned within the plan. The feedback from the document states:

"Contributions withdrawn from an RRSP are taxed as regular income at the plan holder’s marginal tax rate."

An income trust is an investment trust that holds income-producing assets, such as debt instruments, royalty interests, or real properties. It can be structured as either a personal investment fund or a commercial trust with publicly traded closed-end fund shares. The main attraction of income trusts, in addition to certain tax preferences for some investors, is their stated goal of paying out consistent cash flows for investors, which is especially attractive when cash yields on bonds are low12

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 2: Investment Products - Section 2.3: Income Trusts3 and web search results from search_web(query="income trust")12

3: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-2.pdf

The Management Reports of Fund Performance (MRFP) are documents that provide information about a mutual fund’s financial performance, portfolio composition, risk profile, and management expenses. The MRFP are prepared by the fund manager and filed with the securities regulators twice a year, for the semi-annual and annual periods. The MRFP are also made available to the investors on the fund manager’s website or upon request. The MRFP include the following sections:

Financial Highlights: This section summarizes the key financial data of the fund, such as net assets, net asset value per unit, total return, ratios and supplemental data.

Past Performance: This section shows the historical returns of the fund over different time periods and compares them with a benchmark index or category average.

Summary of Investment Portfolio: This section provides a breakdown of the fund’s portfolio by asset class, sector, geographic region, and top holdings. It also shows how the portfolio has changed over the reporting period.

Management Discussion of Fund Performance: This section explains the fund’s investment objectives, strategies, and risks, and analyzes the factors that affected the fund’s performance during the reporting period. It also discloses the fund’s management expense ratio (MER), trading expense ratio (TER), and turnover rate.

Financial Statements: This section presents the fund’s statement of financial position, statement of comprehensive income, statement of changes in net assets attributable to holders of redeemable units, and statement of cash flows. It also includes notes to the financial statements that provide additional information and disclosures.

The MRFP would provide Beatrice with comprehensive information regarding the analysis of financial statements and fund management expenses as it relates to her current mutual fund investment.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 6: Fund Operations and Regulations1

Participating preferred shares are a type of preferred shares that offer its shareholders the opportunity to receive additional dividends if the company’s profit exceeds a stated level. These dividends are paid in addition to the fixed dividends that are normally paid to preferred shareholders. Participating preferred shares allow shareholders to benefit from both fixed and variable income streams, depending on the company’s performance. References: Participating Preferred Stock Definition - Investopedia, Preferred Shares Explained | TD Direct Investing

Global equity funds can act as a hedge against a decline in the Canadian dollar’s value, increasing the investment’s value in Canadian dollars if the foreign currency strengthens. The feedback from the document states:

"Global mutual funds are attractive because they can provide a hedge against a decline in the relative value of the Canadian dollar. For example: if investors buy a Japanese fund, and then the value of the Canadian dollar falls relative to the yen, the Canadian dollar value of that investment will increase even if the value of the fund’s units in yen has remained unchanged."

Explicit costs of operating a mutual fund include:

Management fees,

Operating expenses,

Custodial fees,

Record-keeping,

Marketing/distribution.

These costs are embedded in the MER (Management Expense Ratio) and are borne by the investors, as they reduce fund returns.

The manager (B) oversees operations but does not personally cover costs.

The sponsor (C) establishes the fund, and the distributor (D) sells units, but neither pays the ongoing operating costs.

The lifetime RESP contribution limit is $50,000 per beneficiary.

Monique has already contributed $45,000.

Remaining contribution room = $50,000 – $45,000 = $5,000.

Even though she wants to contribute $7,000, the maximum allowed is $5,000.

Thus, the correct answer is B. $5,000.

The value of John’s investment on December 31 of this year can be calculated by multiplying the number of units he holds by the net asset value per unit (NAVPU) on that date. Since John invested $500 on January 3 and $500 on July 1, he holds a total of 125.6 units (62.8 units from the first investment and 62.8 units from the second investment). Therefore, the value of his investment on December 31 will be 125.6 units x $9.55 NAVPU = $1,256.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Chapter 2: Mutual Funds1

The management expense ratio (MER) represents the total of all management fees and operating expenses charged to the fund, expressed as a percentage of average net asset value.

Operating expense ratio is not a standard measure.

Management fee ratio refers only to the management fee portion.

Trading expense ratio covers only trading commissions.

Therefore, mutual fund investors pay expenses through the MER

When opening a new non-registered account, the Know Your Client (KYC) rule requires collecting information such as:

personal and financial circumstances,

investment knowledge,

investment objectives,

risk profile, and

time horizon.

The Social Insurance Number (SIN) is mandatory only for registered accounts (RRSP, TFSA, RESP, etc.) to track tax-related reporting, but it is optional for non-registered accounts.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Social insurance number.

The answer that you should tell Lior is that dividend funds tend to be less volatile and lower risk than equity funds. A dividend fund is a type of equity fund that invests primarily in dividend-paying stocks, which are shares of companies that distribute a portion of their earnings to shareholders on a regular basis. A dividend fund provides income and capital appreciation to investors, as well as tax advantages for eligible dividends paid by Canadian corporations. A dividend fund tends to be less volatile and lower risk than an equity fund that invests in non-dividend-paying stocks or growth stocks, which are shares of companies that reinvest their earnings into expanding their business rather than paying dividends. This is because dividend-paying stocks are usually issued by well-established and profitable companies that have stable cash flows and earnings, which make them more resilient to market fluctuations and economic downturns. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what you should tell Lior. The other options are not correct or relevant to what you should tell Lior. Option A is false because equity funds are not more appropriate than dividend funds if Lior requires a steady flow of income; rather, dividend funds are more suitable for income-oriented investors who want to receive regular dividends from their investments. Option B is false because dividend funds do not generate tax-preferred income while income from equity funds is fully taxable; rather, both types of funds generate taxable income for investors, but eligible dividends from Canadian corporations may qualify for a lower tax rate than other types of income due to the dividend tax credit. Option D is false because equity funds do not hold common shares while dividend funds hold only preferred shares; rather, both types of funds hold common shares, but dividend funds focus on common shares that pay dividends, while equity funds may also hold common shares that do not pay dividends or pay low dividends. References: [Dividend Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Equity Funds | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Dividend Tax Credit | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

The Fund Facts document is a summary disclosure document that highlights key information about a mutual fund or an exchange-traded fund (ETF), such as the performance history, investments, fees, and risks. According to the Point of Sale (POS) disclosure rules, a Dealing Representative must provide and explain the Fund Facts document to the client before accepting an order to buy or switch a fund. This allows the client to make an informed investment decision and to know their rights.

References = Fund Facts | AMF - Autorité des marchés financiers, Fund Facts/ETF Facts - Fidelity, Understanding Fund Facts | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca, IFSE CIFC Module 2: The Investment Industry, page 2-16.

A mutual fund trust is a type of unit trust that meets certain conditions under the Canadian Income Tax Act and is eligible for favourable tax treatment. A unit trust is a collective investment vehicle that holds assets and distributes profits to individual unit owners, also called unitholders, instead of reinvesting them in the fund. A mutual fund trust is not a corporation and does not have a board of directors or shareholders. It is also not a closed-end fund, which has a fixed number of shares that trade on an exchange. A mutual fund trust is an open-end fund, which can issue and redeem units at any time based on the net asset value of the fund.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 5, Section 5.1

D is correct because Sujay’s registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) contribution room for the year will be reduced by $3,600. This is because his employer’s defined contribution pension plan is considered a registered pension plan (RPP), which affects his RRSP contribution room through a pension adjustment (PA). The PA is calculated as 18% of his earned income in the previous year minus his RPP contributions in the current year. In this case, Sujay’s PA for the current year is $3,600, which is 18% of his $60,000 salary minus his 3% contribution ($1,800) and his employer’s 3% contribution ($1,800). The PA reduces his RRSP contribution room for the next year by the same amount. It will have an effect on his RRSP contribution room (A), as it is not based on earned income only, but also on RPP contributions. It will not reduce his contribution room by $51,800 (B), as this is more than his earned income. It will not reduce his contribution room by $10,800 ©, as this is 18% of his earned income without subtracting his RPP contributions.

For non-registered accounts, the mandatory personal information includes the client’s full legal name and permanent address, while date of birth and social insurance number are recommended but not required. The feedback from the document states:

"The first step as a dealing representative is to obtain a client’s personal data including full legal name, permanent and mailing address, social insurance number and date of birth. While a permanent address is mandatory, providing a different mailing address is optional. Neither the social insurance number nor date of birth are mandatory for non-registered accounts, but both are highly recommended."

By asking Brad about his financial obligations and assets, you are trying to gather information about his net worth, which is one of the essential facts that you need to know about your client according to the KYC rule. Net worth is the difference between the total value of a client’s assets and the total value of their liabilities. It reflects the client’s financial position and helps you assess their risk tolerance, investment objectives, and suitability for different products and services.

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 1: The Financial Services Industry - Section 1.3: Know Your Client (KYC)1 and web search results from search_web(query="know your client rule")23

1: https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-1.pdf

Anchoring bias occurs when an investor fixates on a reference point (e.g., purchase price) and refuses to sell until the investment returns to that level, even if conditions have changed .

Julia anchors on $25.44, her purchase price, and won’t sell at $19.72.

Availability bias = reliance on recent/easy info.

Representativeness = stereotyping based on limited traits.

Hindsight bias = belief that past events were predictable.

Thus, Julia demonstrates Anchoring bias.

Long transactions involve buying a security with the expectation that its price will increase, while short transactions involve borrowing and selling a security with the hope of buying it back at a lower price. The feedback from the document states:

"Short transactions are a common feature of the capital markets, although not as common as long transactions – the transactions taken by investors who anticipate a price increase in the security. Investors who short sell stocks must first borrow the shares. They must also declare their short transactions."

The Montreal Exchange (also referred to as Bourse de Montreal) is the only Canadian exchange specializing exclusively in financial and equity futures and options. The feedback from the document confirms:

"The Montreal Exchange (Bourse de Montreal) is the only exchange in Canada that deals exclusively with financial and equity futures and options."

Implied needs of your clients are needs reflected by statements made by clients regarding problems and dissatisfactions1. For example, a client may say “I’m worried about outliving my savings” or “I don’t understand how this investment works”. These statements imply that the client has a need for retirement planning or financial education, respectively. Implied needs are different from explicit needs, which are statements of wants and needs made by clients1. For example, a client may say “I want to save for my child’s education” or “I need a low-risk investment”. These statements express the client’s goals and preferences clearly. Statements made by you showing readiness to solve a client’s problem are not implied needs, but rather responses to implied needs1. For example, you may say “I can help you create a retirement plan that suits your lifestyle” or “I can explain how this investment works and what are the benefits and risks”. Statements made by clients expressing the desire for lower commissions are not implied needs, but rather objections or concerns that may arise during the sales process2. For example, a client may say “Your fees are too high” or “I can get a better deal elsewhere”. These statements may indicate that the client is not convinced of the value of your service or product, or that they are trying to negotiate a lower price. References: Unit 2: Know Your Client, Unit 10: Sales Process

Tax deductions are amounts that reduce your total income before calculating your tax payable. They lower your marginal tax rate, which is the tax rate that applies to your last dollar of income. For example, if Wilma’s total income is $50,000 and she claims $5,000 in tax deductions, her taxable income will be $45,000 and her marginal tax rate will be lower than if she had no deductions. Therefore, A is the correct answer. References: All deductions, credits, and expenses - Personal income tax - Canada.ca

By ignoring sales quotas and prioritizing client needs, the representative adheres to the standard of putting the client’s interests first. The feedback from the document states:

"Priority of Client’s Interest: The client’s interest must be the foremost consideration in all business dealings. In situations where you may have an interest that competes with that of the client, the client’s interest must be given priority."

Quartile rankings:

1st quartile = top-performing funds.

4th quartile = worst-performing funds.

The most consistent top-quartile performer across four years is most desirable.

Based on CSC examples, Manager A had the strongest consistent quartile performance.

✅ Correct = Manager A.

 A registered retirement savings plan (RRSP) is a retirement savings and investing vehicle for employees and the self-employed in Canada. Contributions to an RRSP are tax-deductible and grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. However, RRSPs have a maturity date of December 31st of the year in which the holder turns 71. By then, the holder must convert the RRSP to a registered retirement income fund (RRIF), purchase an annuity, or withdraw the funds in cash (subject to tax). Therefore, B is the correct answer. References: Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP): Definition and Types, Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP) - Canada.ca

The availability bias occurs when investors rely on easily available or recent information rather than a thorough analysis. In this case, the investor bases decisions on internet recommendations and stock tips, believing they are accurate, instead of analyzing fundamentals. This clearly matches availability bias.

Endowment bias applies when investors overvalue what they already own.

Representativeness bias applies when investors judge outcomes by stereotypes or past patterns.

Overconfidence refers to excessive faith in one’s own knowledge.

Thus, the behavioural bias here is Availability .

Endowment bias leads investors to overvalue assets they own compared to similar assets they do not own. The feedback from the document states:

"People who are subject to endowment bias place more value on an asset they hold property rights to than on an asset they do not hold property rights to."

The secondary market involves trading previously issued securities between investors, enabling liquidity for those who initially purchased the securities. The feedback from the document states:

"The secondary market involves the resale of previously issued securities between investors. It enables investors who originally bought the investment products to sell them and obtain cash."

A strategic asset allocation strategy is one that involves setting target allocations for various asset classes based on the investor’s risk tolerance, time horizon, and investment objectives, and rebalancing the portfolio periodically to maintain the original allocations. This strategy is compatible with a buy-and-hold approach and aims to achieve long-term goals by diversifying across different asset classes and markets. In this case, you are implementing a strategic asset allocation strategy for your client Sierra by assigning 30% of her portfolio to fixed income and 70% to equities, and planning to rebalance her portfolio when the actual allocations deviate significantly from the target allocations.

Canadian Investment Funds Course, Unit 7, Section 7.1

To calculate Firmansyah’s federal tax liability from the investment income, we need to follow these steps:

Step 1: Convert the foreign dividend from USD to CAD using the exchange rate given in the question. The exchange rate is 1.3605 CAD per USD, which means that 1 USD is equivalent to 1.3605 CAD. Therefore, Firmansyah’s foreign dividend in CAD is:

500×1.3605=680.25

Step 2: Calculate Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources. A grossed-up dividend income is the actual dividend received plus a percentage of the dividend that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], an eligible dividend is a dividend paid by a Canadian corporation that meets certain criteria, such as being listed on a designated stock exchange or being a subsidiary of such a corporation. A non-eligible dividend is a dividend that does not meet these criteria, such as a dividend paid by a foreign corporation or a small Canadian business corporation. The gross-up rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 38%, while the gross-up rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s grossed-up dividend income from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×(1+0.38)=3426.35

Step 3: Apply Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate to his grossed-up dividend income to get his federal tax before credits. A marginal tax rate is the percentage of tax applied to an additional dollar of income. According to [this site], Firmansyah’s federal marginal tax rate for 2020 was 29%, as his taxable income was between $150,473 and $214,368. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal tax before credits is:

0.29×3426.35=993.64

Step 4: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. A dividend tax credit is a percentage of the grossed-up dividend income that reflects the corporate tax paid by the issuer and avoids double taxation. The percentage varies depending on whether the dividend is eligible or non-eligible. According to [this site], the federal dividend tax credit rate for eligible dividends in 2020 was 15%, while the federal dividend tax credit rate for non-eligible dividends in 2020 was 9.03%. Therefore, Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from both sources is:

(1800+680.25)×0.38×0.15=297.88

Step 5: Subtract Firmansyah’s federal dividend tax credit from his federal tax before credits to get his net federal tax liability from the investment income. This is the amount of federal income tax that Firmansyah has to pay or has overpaid from the investment income. Therefore, Firmansyah’s net federal tax liability from the investment income is:

993.64−297.88=695.76

Hence, option C is correct. References: [Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) | IFSE Institute], [Dividend Tax Credit | TurboTax Canada Tips], [Federal Income Tax Rates for Canada - TurboTax Canada Tips], [Eligible Dividends | TurboTax Canada Tips]

The representative failed to verify that the client’s KYC information was current, which is critical for assessing suitability, especially given the client’s recent job loss. The feedback from the document states:

"Standard A - Duty of Care starts with the Know Your Client rule. It is impossible to apply due diligence and assess the suitability of an investment if the client’s information has not been updated. Client account documentation should reflect all material information about the client’s current status, and should be updated to reflect any material change to the client’s status in order to assure suitability of investment recommendations."

Gerard’s investment time horizon is the length of time he plans to hold his investment until he needs to use the money for his specific goal. In this case, Gerard’s goal is to use his mutual fund portfolio to meet the 20% down payment requirement to buy a house for $650,000. Therefore, his investment time horizon is determined by how long it will take him to accumulate enough money in his portfolio to cover the down payment amount. Assuming that Gerard does not withdraw any money from his portfolio and that his portfolio earns a constant annual rate of return of 6%, we can use the following formula to calculate how long it will take him to reach his goal:

FV=PV×(1+r)n+PMT×r(1+r)n−1​

where:

FV is the future value of the portfolio

PV is the present value of the portfolio

r is the annual interest rate

n is the number of years

PMT is the monthly payment

We can rearrange the formula to solve for n:

n=log(1+r)logPV+PMT×r1​FV−PMT×r1​​​

Plugging in the given values, we get:

n=log(1+0.06)log40,000+1,500×0.061​130,000−1,500×0.061​​​

n=4.98

Therefore, Gerard’s investment time horizon is approximately 5 years, not considering market fluctuations. This means that he will need to invest his money in a way that matches his risk tolerance and expected return for this time period.

Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) Study Guide, Chapter 4: Mutual Funds, Section 4.6: Asset Allocation and Diversification, page 4-271

Future Value of an Annuity Definition - Investopedia2

An IPP is a registered, defined-benefit pension plan that provides a fixed retirement benefit to the person designated in the plan. It is similar to an RRSP, but with some differences in contribution limits, deductions, and tax benefits. One of the main advantages of an IPP is that it allows higher contribution limits than an RRSP, especially for older and higher-income individuals. The contributions are based on the actuarial calculations of the pension benefit, and are tax-deductible for the sponsoring corporation. The higher contribution limits can help Fabiola catch up on her retirement savings and reduce her taxable income123

References = Canadian Investment Funds Course (CIFC) - Module 3: Registered Plans - Section 3.3: Individual Pension Plan (IPP) and web search results from search_web(query="individual pension plan")123

https://www.ifse.ca/wp-content/uploads/2021/08/CIFC-Module-3.pdf

To make a suitable recommendation, Solomon needs to identify how the proposed investment is in alignment with the investor’s profile and holdings. A suitable recommendation is one that meets the investor’s needs, goals, risk tolerance, time horizon, and personal circumstances. It also considers the investor’s existing portfolio and how the new investment would affect its diversification, performance, and risk. Therefore, option C is correct regarding what Solomon needs to do to make a suitable recommendation. The other options are not correct or sufficient to make a suitable recommendation. Option A is false because mutual fund costs are important regardless of the past fund performance, as they reduce the net returns and compound over time. Option B is false because relying on the risk rating of the mutual fund is not enough to offer an investment solution, as it does not reflect the investor’s return expectations, liquidity needs, tax situation, or personal preferences. Option D is false because matching the past rates of return of the mutual fund with what is the anticipated rate of return is not a reliable way to make a recommendation, as past performance does not guarantee future results and may not be consistent with the investor’s risk tolerance or time horizon. References: [Suitability | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Mutual Fund Fees | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca], [Risk Rating | GetSmarterAboutMoney.ca]

 According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, different types of investment income are taxed differently in Canada. Interest income is fully taxed at the marginal rate, while dividend income is favourably taxed with a dividend tax credit. Capital gains are taxed on 50% of the gain at the marginal rate, and foreign income is subject to withholding tax. Therefore, a tax-efficient strategy is to include interest paying investments, such as bonds or GICs, in the registered plan, where they can grow tax-deferred until withdrawal. Dividend paying investments, such as Canadian stocks or ETFs, should be included in the non-registered plan, where they can benefit from the lower tax rate and the dividend tax credit. Foreign income should also be avoided in the non-registered plan, unless it is held in a U.S. dollar account or a foreign currency hedged ETF, to reduce the impact of withholding tax and currency fluctuations.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 9: Retirement)

Misrepresenting risks violates the MFDA Rule No. 2 requirement to deal fairly, honestly, and in good faith with clients. The feedback from the document states:

"MFDA Rule No 2 ‘Business Conduct’ sets out the standards applicable to all MFDA members and their respective dealing representatives. In this case, the representative has not dealt honestly with the client by misrepresenting information."

A normal yield curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the interest rates and the maturities of different fixed income securities. It slopes upward to the right, meaning that longer-term bonds have higher yields than shorter-term bonds. This reflects the fact that investors demand higher compensation for lending money for longer periods of time and taking on more risk. A normal yield curve indicates that investors expect the economy to grow steadily and inflation to remain stable.

According to the Canadian Investment Funds Course, a stock exchange is a centralized and regulated market where securities of listed companies are traded between buyers and sellers. A stock exchange has strict listing requirements that companies must meet in order to be eligible for trading on the exchange. These requirements may include minimum capitalization, number of shareholders, financial reporting, corporate governance, and compliance with securities laws. A stock exchange also provides liquidity, transparency, and efficiency for the trading of securities.

An over-the-counter (OTC) market is a decentralized and unregulated market where securities that are not listed on a stock exchange are traded between dealers and brokers. An OTC market has no physical location, rather the trading is done through phone, email, or computer networks. An OTC market has lower listing requirements than a stock exchange, which makes it easier for smaller or newer companies to access capital. However, an OTC market also has less liquidity, transparency, and efficiency than a stock exchange.

Therefore, if Underground Airways Ltd. wants to take their privately owned corporation public through an initial public offering (IPO), they would have to weigh the pros and cons of listing on a stock exchange or the OTC market. One of the main considerations is that a stock exchange listing would provide them with greater market exposure and public confidence than listing on the OTC market. This is because a stock exchange listing signals that the company has met the high standards of the exchange and is subject to ongoing regulation and oversight. A stock exchange listing also attracts more investors, analysts, and media attention than an OTC listing. A stock exchange listing may also increase the value and liquidity of the company’s shares.

 1: Canadian Investment Funds Course - IFSE Institute 2 (Unit 5: Equity Securities)

Exchange-traded funds (ETFs) are traded on exchanges, offering flexibility and lower costs compared to index mutual funds, making them ideal for tracking the energy sector. The feedback from the document states:

"Like stocks, and unlike index mutual funds, ETFs are traded on an exchange and can be bought and sold throughout the trading day. In this way, ETFs provide investors with a flexible way to participate in the performance of the underlying assets without having to acquire the assets directly, incurring high transaction costs. MERs on ETFs also tend to be lower than on other index and actively managed products."