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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

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Questions 5

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Questions 6

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Questions 7

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Attribute analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 8

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Questions 9

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

Options:

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Questions 10

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

Options:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Questions 11

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

Options:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Questions 12

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Questions 13

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

Options:

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

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Questions 14

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the misclassification of data?

Options:

A.

inadequate resource allocation

B.

Data disruption

C.

Unauthorized access

D.

Inadequate retention schedules

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Questions 15

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 16

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Questions 17

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

Options:

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

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Questions 18

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

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Questions 19

Which of the following would require updates to an organization's IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Discovery of an ineffectively designed key IT control

B.

Management review of key risk indicators (KRls)

C.

Changes to the team responsible for maintaining the register

D.

Completion of the latest internal audit

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Questions 20

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Questions 21

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

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Questions 22

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

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Questions 23

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

Options:

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Questions 24

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 25

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

Options:

A.

business purpose documentation and software license counts

B.

an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager

C.

documentation indicating the intended users of the application

D.

security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts

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Questions 26

A vulnerability assessment of a vendor-supplied solution has revealed that the software is susceptible to cross-site scripting and SQL injection attacks. Which of the following will BEST mitigate this issue?

Options:

A.

Monitor the databases for abnormal activity

B.

Approve exception to allow the software to continue operating

C.

Require the software vendor to remediate the vulnerabilities

D.

Accept the risk and let the vendor run the software as is

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Questions 27

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

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Questions 28

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

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Questions 29

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting continuous monitoring of access controls is the ability to identify:

Options:

A.

inconsistencies between security policies and procedures

B.

possible noncompliant activities that lead to data disclosure

C.

leading or lagging key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

unknown threats to undermine existing access controls

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Questions 30

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Performing periodic data reviews according to policy

B.

Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management

C.

Being accountable for control design

D.

Ensuring data is protected according to the classification

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Questions 31

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

Options:

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Questions 32

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Questions 33

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

Options:

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

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Questions 34

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

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Questions 35

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Questions 36

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Questions 37

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

Options:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

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Questions 38

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Questions 39

The BEST indication that risk management is effective is when risk has been reduced to meet:

Options:

A.

risk levels.

B.

risk budgets.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk capacity.

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Questions 40

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Questions 41

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

Options:

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Questions 42

Which of the following criteria associated with key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST enables effective risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

Approval by senior management

B.

Low cost of development and maintenance

C.

Sensitivity to changes in risk levels

D.

Use of industry risk data sources

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Questions 43

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

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Questions 44

Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Questions 45

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

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Questions 46

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

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Questions 47

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Questions 48

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

Options:

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Questions 49

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

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Questions 50

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when ensuring that mitigated risk remains within acceptable limits?

Options:

A.

Building an organizational risk profile after updating the risk register

B.

Ensuring risk owners participate in a periodic control testing process

C.

Designing a process for risk owners to periodically review identified risk

D.

Implementing a process for ongoing monitoring of control effectiveness

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Questions 51

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Perform root cause analysis.

C.

Initiate disciplinary action.

D.

Update the incident response plan.

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Questions 52

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Questions 53

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 54

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Questions 55

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Questions 56

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Questions 57

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 58

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

Options:

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

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Questions 59

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

Options:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

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Questions 60

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

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Questions 61

Who should be PRIMARILY responsible for establishing an organization's IT risk culture?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Executive management

C.

Risk management

D.

IT management

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Questions 62

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Questions 63

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Questions 64

After the review of a risk record, internal audit questioned why the risk was lowered from medium to low. Which of the following is the BEST course of action in responding to this inquiry?

Options:

A.

Obtain industry benchmarks related to the specific risk.

B.

Provide justification for the lower risk rating.

C.

Notify the business at the next risk briefing.

D.

Reopen the risk issue and complete a full assessment.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Questions 66

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Questions 67

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Questions 68

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Questions 69

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

Options:

A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

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Questions 70

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

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Questions 71

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

Options:

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Questions 72

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

Options:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Questions 73

To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.

B.

The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.

C.

Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.

D.

The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.

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Questions 74

What information is MOST helpful to asset owners when classifying organizational assets for risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Potential loss to tie business due to non-performance of the asset

B.

Known emerging environmental threats

C.

Known vulnerabilities published by the asset developer

D.

Cost of replacing the asset with a new asset providing similar services

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Questions 75

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

Options:

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

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Questions 76

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Questions 77

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Questions 78

Employees are repeatedly seen holding the door open for others, so that trailing employees do not have to stop and swipe their own ID badges. This behavior BEST represents:

Options:

A.

a threat.

B.

a vulnerability.

C.

an impact

D.

a control.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?

Options:

A.

Senior management has approved the control design.

B.

Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.

C.

Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.

D.

Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.

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Questions 81

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

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Questions 82

When is the BEST to identify risk associated with major project to determine a mitigation plan?

Options:

A.

Project execution phase

B.

Project initiation phase

C.

Project closing phase

D.

Project planning phase

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Questions 83

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Questions 84

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Questions 85

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Questions 86

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Questions 87

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate risk and compliance management?

Options:

A.

Embedding risk management into compliance decision-making

B.

Designing corrective actions to improve risk response capabilities

C.

Embedding risk management into processes that are aligned with business drivers

D.

Conducting regular self-assessments to verify compliance

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Questions 88

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Questions 89

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

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Questions 90

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

Options:

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

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Questions 91

In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Establishing an intellectual property agreement

B.

Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities

C.

Periodically reviewing big data strategies

D.

Benchmarking to industry best practice

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Questions 92

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

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Questions 93

Prudent business practice requires that risk appetite not exceed:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk capacity.

D.

residual risk.

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Questions 94

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

Options:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Questions 95

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Questions 96

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Questions 97

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 98

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

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Questions 99

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Questions 100

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

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Questions 101

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Questions 103

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Questions 104

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

Options:

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Questions 106

An organization has experienced several incidents of extended network outages that have exceeded tolerance. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST step to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional controls to address the risk.

B.

Update the risk tolerance level to acceptable thresholds.

C.

Update the incident-related risk trend in the risk register.

D.

Recommend a root cause analysis of the incidents.

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Questions 107

The following is the snapshot of a recently approved IT risk register maintained by an organization's information security department.

After implementing countermeasures listed in ‘’Risk Response Descriptions’’ for each of the Risk IDs, which of the following component of the register MUST change?

Options:

A.

Risk Impact Rating

B.

Risk Owner

C.

Risk Likelihood Rating

D.

Risk Exposure

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Questions 108

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 109

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

Options:

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 111

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Questions 112

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

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Questions 113

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 114

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

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Questions 115

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

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Questions 116

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

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Questions 117

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

Options:

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

Options:

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Questions 119

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Questions 120

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Questions 121

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Questions 122

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Questions 123

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Questions 124

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

Options:

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Questions 125

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Questions 126

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when process documentation is incomplete?

Options:

A.

Inability to allocate resources efficiently

B.

Inability to identify the risk owner

C.

Inability to complete the risk register

D.

Inability to identify process experts

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Questions 127

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

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Questions 128

Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.

B.

Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.

C.

Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.

D.

Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.

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Questions 129

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Questions 130

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

Options:

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Questions 131

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

Options:

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Questions 132

Which of the following is MOST important to promoting a risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Regular testing of risk controls

B.

Communication of audit findings

C.

Procedures for security monitoring

D.

Open communication of risk reporting

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Questions 133

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

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Questions 134

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Questions 135

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Questions 136

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

Options:

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Questions 137

When a risk practitioner is determining a system's criticality. it is MOST helpful to review the associated:

Options:

A.

process flow.

B.

business impact analysis (BIA).

C.

service level agreement (SLA).

D.

system architecture.

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Questions 138

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

Options:

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Questions 139

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Questions 140

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Questions 141

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

Options:

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

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Questions 142

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Questions 143

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

Options:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Questions 144

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Questions 145

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Questions 146

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 147

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

Options:

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Questions 148

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether system settings are in alignment with control baselines?

Options:

A.

Configuration validation

B.

Control attestation

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Internal audit review

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Questions 149

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

Options:

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Questions 150

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Questions 151

Which of the following is the MOST important step to ensure regulatory requirements are adequately addressed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain necessary resources to address regulatory requirements

B.

Develop a policy framework that addresses regulatory requirements

C.

Perform a gap analysis against regulatory requirements.

D.

Employ IT solutions that meet regulatory requirements.

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Questions 152

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Questions 153

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?

Options:

A.

Promotion of a risk-aware culture

B.

Compilation of a comprehensive risk register

C.

Alignment of business activities

D.

Facilitation of risk-aware decision making

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Questions 154

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

Options:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

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Questions 155

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Questions 156

Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing risk-related process documentation

B.

Conducting periodic risk assessments

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Performing frequent audits

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Questions 157

Which of the following would be the BEST way for a risk practitioner to validate the effectiveness of a patching program?

Options:

A.

Conduct penetration testing.

B.

Interview IT operations personnel.

C.

Conduct vulnerability scans.

D.

Review change control board documentation.

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Questions 158

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 159

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

Options:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Questions 160

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Questions 161

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Questions 162

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Questions 163

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

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Questions 164

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

Options:

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

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Questions 165

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a core business process, which of the following should be done FIRST to ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

Define metrics for restoring availability.

B.

Identify conditions that may cause disruptions.

C.

Review incident response procedures.

D.

Evaluate the probability of risk events.

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Questions 166

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

Options:

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

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Questions 167

An organization's recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Questions 168

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

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Questions 169

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

Options:

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Questions 170

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate senior management support

B.

To enhance organizational risk culture

C.

To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls

D.

To clearly define ownership of risk

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Questions 172

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

Options:

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

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Questions 173

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

Options:

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Questions 175

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Questions 176

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Questions 177

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Questions 178

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

Options:

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Questions 179

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 180

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

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Questions 181

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Questions 182

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Questions 183

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

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Questions 184

Which of the following has the GREATEST positive impact on ethical compliance within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Senior management demonstrates ethics in their day-to-day decision making.

B.

An independent ethics investigation team has been established.

C.

Employees are required to complete ethics training courses annually.

D.

The risk practitioner is required to consult with the ethics committee.

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Questions 185

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 186

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

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Questions 187

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

Options:

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 188

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

Options:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

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Questions 189

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

Options:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Questions 190

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

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Questions 191

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company's risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

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Questions 192

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Questions 193

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

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Questions 194

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Questions 195

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?

Options:

A.

Refer to industry standard scenarios.

B.

Use a top-down approach.

C.

Consider relevant business activities.

D.

Use a bottom-up approach.

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Questions 196

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

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Questions 197

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

Options:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Questions 198

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Questions 199

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization's threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

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Questions 200

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

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Questions 201

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of integrating risk and security requirements in an organization's enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Adherence to legal and compliance requirements

B.

Reduction in the number of test cases in the acceptance phase

C.

Establishment of digital forensic architectures

D.

Consistent management of information assets

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Questions 202

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

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Questions 203

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.

B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.

C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.

D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.

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Questions 204

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

Options:

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Questions 205

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?

Options:

A.

Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.

B.

Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.

C.

Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.

D.

Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the BEST method to track asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Periodic asset review by management

B.

Asset registration form

C.

Automated asset management software

D.

IT resource budgeting process

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Questions 207

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

Options:

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Questions 209

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Questions 210

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Questions 211

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

Options:

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

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Questions 212

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

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Questions 213

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?

Options:

A.

Communicating risk awareness materials regularly

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes

C.

Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk

D.

Embedding risk management in business activities

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices

B.

To assure management that control ownership is assigned

C.

To ensure management understands the current risk status

D.

To align risk management with strategic objectives

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Questions 215

Which of the following process controls BEST mitigates the risk of an employee issuing fraudulent payments to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Performing credit verification of third-party vendors prior to payment

B.

Conducting system access reviews to ensure least privilege and appropriate access

C.

Performing regular reconciliation of payments to the check registers

D.

Enforcing segregation of duties between the vendor master file and invoicing

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

Options:

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

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Questions 217

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Questions 218

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 219

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

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Questions 220

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

Options:

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

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Questions 222

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

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Questions 223

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses are effective?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

B.

Risk with low impact is accepted.

C.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

D.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

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Questions 224

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

Options:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

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Questions 225

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

Options:

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Questions 226

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Questions 227

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

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Questions 228

Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes

B.

Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations

C.

Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder

D.

Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior

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Questions 229

The risk to an organization's reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

Options:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

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Questions 230

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

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Questions 231

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

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Questions 232

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

Options:

A.

The organization's business process owner

B.

The organization's information security manager

C.

The organization's vendor management officer

D.

The vendor's risk manager

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Questions 233

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes'?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

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Questions 234

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Questions 235

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

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Questions 237

Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?

Options:

A.

Industry trends in Al

B.

Expected algorithm outputs

C.

Data feeds

D.

Alert functionality

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Questions 238

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Questions 239

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

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Questions 240

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Questions 241

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

Options:

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

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Questions 242

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Request a policy exception from senior management.

B.

Comply with the organizational policy.

C.

Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

D.

Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

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Questions 243

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Incident reports

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Control objectives

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Questions 244

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

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Questions 245

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Questions 246

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of an individual performing a potentially harmful action as the result of unnecessary entitlement?

Options:

A.

Application monitoring

B.

Separation of duty

C.

Least privilege

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 247

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Questions 248

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Questions 249

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

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Questions 250

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

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Questions 251

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Questions 252

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the organization's risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management's intent

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Questions 253

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 254

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

Options:

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

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Questions 255

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Questions 256

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

Options:

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

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Questions 257

A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

reflect the results of risk assessments.

B.

be available to all stakeholders.

C.

effectively support a business maturity model.

D.

be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

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Questions 258

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Questions 259

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's

BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

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Questions 260

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

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Questions 261

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Questions 262

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

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Questions 263

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

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Questions 264

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

Options:

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Questions 265

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Questions 266

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

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Questions 267

Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?

Options:

A.

Satisfactory audit results

B.

Risk tolerance being set too low

C.

Inaccurate risk ratings

D.

Lack of preventive controls

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Questions 268

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

Options:

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

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Questions 269

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

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Questions 270

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Questions 271

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 272

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

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Questions 273

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

Aligned with risk management capabilities.

B.

Based on industry trends.

C.

Related to probable events.

D.

Mapped to incident response plans.

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Questions 274

A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Questions 275

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Questions 276

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Questions 277

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 278

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

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Questions 279

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Questions 280

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Questions 281

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 282

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

Options:

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Questions 283

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

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Questions 284

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure an organization's current risk scenarios are relevant?

Options:

A.

Adoption of industry best practices

B.

Involvement of stakeholders in risk assessment

C.

Review of risk scenarios by independent parties

D.

Documentation of potential risk in business cases

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Questions 285

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Questions 286

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

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Questions 287

Which of the following is the BEST measure of the effectiveness of an employee deprovisioning process?

Options:

A.

Number of days taken to remove access after staff separation dates

B.

Number of days taken for IT to remove access after receipt of HR instructions

C.

Number of termination requests processed per reporting period

D.

Number of days taken for HR to provide instructions to IT after staff separation dates

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Questions 288

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk awareness

D.

Risk policy

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Questions 289

Which of the following is the BEST approach for performing a business impact analysis (BIA) of a supply-chain management application?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the organization's policies and procedures

B.

Interviewing groups of key stakeholders

C.

Circulating questionnaires to key internal stakeholders

D.

Accepting IT personnel s view of business issues

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Questions 290

Which of the following would provide executive management with the BEST information to make risk decisions as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

A companion of risk assessment results to the desired state

B.

A quantitative presentation of risk assessment results

C.

An assessment of organizational maturity levels and readiness

D.

A qualitative presentation of risk assessment results

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Questions 291

An organization's risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 292

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Questions 293

Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

Options:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Questions 294

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Questions 295

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Questions 296

Which of the following statements in an organization's current risk profile report is cause for further action by senior management?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicator (KPI) trend data is incomplete.

B.

New key risk indicators (KRIs) have been established.

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are outside of targets.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are lagging.

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Questions 297

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control action plan's implementation?

Options:

A.

Increased number of controls

B.

Reduced risk level

C.

Increased risk appetite

D.

Stakeholder commitment

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Questions 298

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 299

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Questions 300

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

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Questions 301

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Questions 302

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Questions 303

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

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Questions 304

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

Options:

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Questions 305

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Questions 306

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

Options:

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Questions 307

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

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Questions 308

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Questions 309

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Questions 310

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Questions 311

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Unclear organizational risk appetite

B.

Lack of senior management participation

C.

Use of highly customized control frameworks

D.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

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Questions 312

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

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Questions 313

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 314

Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results

B.

Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments

C.

A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed

D.

The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results

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Questions 315

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

Options:

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Questions 316

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

Options:

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

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Questions 317

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

Options:

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Questions 318

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Responding promptly to control exceptions

B.

Implementing compensating controls

C.

Testing controls periodically

D.

Automating manual controls

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Questions 319

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Questions 320

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 321

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

Options:

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

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Questions 322

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Questions 323

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

Options:

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Questions 324

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

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Questions 325

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Questions 326

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

Options:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

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Questions 327

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

Options:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Questions 328

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

Options:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

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Questions 329

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

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Questions 330

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

Options:

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Questions 331

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Questions 332

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

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Questions 333

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization's risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 334

A bank wants to send a critical payment order via email to one of its offshore branches. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the message reaches the intended recipient without alteration?

Options:

A.

Add a digital certificate

B.

Apply multi-factor authentication

C.

Add a hash to the message

D.

Add a secret key

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Questions 335

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Questions 336

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

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Questions 337

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

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Questions 338

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

Options:

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

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Questions 339

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

Options:

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Questions 340

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Questions 341

An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

A recommendation for internal audit validation

B.

Plans for mitigating the associated risk

C.

Suggestions for improving risk awareness training

D.

The impact to the organization’s risk profile

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Questions 342

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

Options:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

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Questions 343

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Questions 344

An organization has implemented a system capable of comprehensive employee monitoring. Which of the following should direct how the system is used?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Employee code of conduct

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Organizational policy

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Questions 345

An organization's HR department has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insideractivities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Number of malicious activities occurring during staff members leave

B.

Percentage of staff members seeking exception to the policy

C.

Percentage of staff members taking leave according to the policy

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities during staff members' leave

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Questions 346

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

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Questions 347

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Questions 348

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

Options:

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

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Questions 349

The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:

Options:

A.

the risk strategy is appropriate

B.

KRIs and KPIs are aligned

C.

performance of controls is adequate

D.

the risk monitoring process has been established

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Questions 350

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Questions 351

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the transition of a sensitive data backup solution from on-premise to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

More complex test restores

B.

Inadequate service level agreement (SLA) with the provider

C.

More complex incident response procedures

D.

Inadequate data encryption

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Questions 352

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

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Questions 353

Deviation from a mitigation action plan's completion date should be determined by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Change management as determined by a change control board

B.

Benchmarking analysis with similar completed projects

C.

Project governance criteria as determined by the project office

D.

The risk owner as determined by risk management processes

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Questions 354

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

Options:

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Questions 355

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Questions 356

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Questions 357

Which of the following will be MOST effective to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices?

Options:

A.

An acceptable use policy for personal devices

B.

Required user log-on before synchronizing data

C.

Enforced authentication and data encryption

D.

Security awareness training and testing

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Questions 358

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 359

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Questions 360

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

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Questions 361

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Questions 362

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

To enable risk-based decision making

B.

To promote awareness of the risk governance function

C.

To clarify fundamental risk management principles

D.

To ensure sufficient resources are available

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Questions 363

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

End user

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Data owner

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 364

An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?

Options:

A.

Managing third-party risk

B.

Developing risk scenarios

C.

Managing the threat landscape

D.

Updating risk appetite

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Questions 365

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

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Questions 366

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Questions 367

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

Options:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

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Questions 368

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

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Questions 369

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?

Options:

A.

A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite

B.

A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization

C.

A control function within the risk management team

D.

An organization-wide risk awareness training program

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Questions 370

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Questions 371

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

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Questions 372

A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.

B.

negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.

C.

reassess the risk to confirm the impact.

D.

obtain approval from senior management.

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Questions 373

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

Options:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

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Questions 374

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Questions 375

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Questions 376

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Questions 377

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 378

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

Options:

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

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Questions 379

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

Options:

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Questions 380

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Questions 381

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

Options:

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

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Questions 382

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 383

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

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Questions 384

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

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Questions 385

Which of the following would be MOST important for a risk practitioner to provide to the internal audit department during the audit planning process?

Options:

A.

Closed management action plans from the previous audit

B.

Annual risk assessment results

C.

An updated vulnerability management report

D.

A list of identified generic risk scenarios

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Questions 386

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Questions 387

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 388

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

Options:

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

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Questions 389

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Questions 390

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Questions 391

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Questions 392

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

Options:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Questions 393

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

Options:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

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Questions 394

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Questions 395

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Questions 396

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

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Questions 397

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

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Questions 398

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Questions 399

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Questions 400

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Questions 401

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

Options:

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Questions 402

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Questions 403

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

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Questions 404

During the risk assessment of an organization that processes credit cards, a number of existing controls have been found to be ineffective and do not meet industry standards. The overall control environment may still be effective if:

Options:

A.

compensating controls are in place.

B.

a control mitigation plan is in place.

C.

risk management is effective.

D.

residual risk is accepted.

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Questions 405

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

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Questions 406

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Questions 407

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Questions 408

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Questions 409

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Questions 410

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Questions 411

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Questions 412

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Questions 413

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Questions 414

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Questions 415

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Questions 416

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

Options:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Questions 417

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 418

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

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Questions 419

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

Options:

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 420

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Questions 421

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

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Questions 422

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

Options:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Questions 423

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Questions 424

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Questions 425

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Questions 426

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Questions 427

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Questions 428

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

Options:

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Questions 429

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

Options:

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

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Questions 430

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

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Questions 431

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

Options:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Questions 432

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Questions 433

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Questions 434

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Questions 435

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

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Questions 436

An organization has procured a managed hosting service and just discovered the location is likely to be flooded every 20 years. Of the following, who should be notified of this new information FIRST.

Options:

A.

The risk owner who also owns the business service enabled by this infrastructure

B.

The data center manager who is also employed under the managed hosting services contract

C.

The site manager who is required to provide annual risk assessments under the contract

D.

The chief information officer (CIO) who is responsible for the hosted services

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Questions 437

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 438

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Questions 439

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

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Questions 440

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 441

Which of the following should be the HIGHEST priority when developing a risk response?

Options:

A.

The risk response addresses the risk with a holistic view.

B.

The risk response is based on a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

The risk response is accounted for in the budget.

D.

The risk response aligns with the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 442

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Questions 443

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

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Questions 444

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 445

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 446

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

Options:

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

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Questions 447

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 448

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Questions 449

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Questions 450

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

Options:

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Questions 451

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

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Questions 452

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Questions 453

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Questions 454

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The organization’s vision and mission

B.

Resources required for risk mitigation

C.

Impact to business objectives

D.

Risk-related trends within the industry

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Questions 455

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Questions 456

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

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Questions 457

Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the implementation of the risk response

B.

Creating a separate risk register for key business units

C.

Performing real-time monitoring of threats

D.

Performing regular risk control self-assessments

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Questions 458

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Questions 459

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

Options:

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

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Questions 460

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 461

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

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Questions 462

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Questions 463

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

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Questions 464

The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.

B.

measure efficiency of the control process.

C.

confirm control alignment with business objectives.

D.

comply with the organization's policy.

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Questions 465

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 466

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

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Questions 467

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the automation of control monitoring?

Options:

A.

impact due to failure of control

B.

Frequency of failure of control

C.

Contingency plan for residual risk

D.

Cost-benefit analysis of automation

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Questions 468

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Questions 469

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Questions 470

After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?

Options:

A.

The risk practitioner

B.

The business process owner

C.

The risk owner

D.

The control owner

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: May 1, 2025
Questions: 1568
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