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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

Options:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

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Questions 5

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

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Questions 6

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

Options:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Questions 7

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

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Questions 8

Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

A heat map

C.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

A vulnerability report

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Questions 10

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Questions 11

A risk practitioner has been asked to propose a risk acceptance framework for an organization. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the risk practitioner to address in the framework?

Options:

A.

Consistent forms to document risk acceptance rationales

B.

Acceptable scenarios to override risk appetite or tolerance thresholds

C.

Individuals or roles authorized to approve risk acceptance

D.

Communication protocols when a risk is accepted

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Questions 12

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Questions 13

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

Options:

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

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Questions 14

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for communicating an organization’s risk level to senior management?

Options:

A.

A list of organizational threats

B.

A high-level risk map

C.

Specialized risk publications

D.

A list of organizational vulnerabilities

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Questions 15

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Questions 16

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

Options:

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

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Questions 17

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 18

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

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Questions 19

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Questions 20

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization's threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

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Questions 21

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Questions 22

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Questions 23

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Questions 24

An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Process owner

C.

Risk manager

D.

Internal auditor

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Questions 25

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

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Questions 26

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization's risk awareness program is ineffective.

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Questions 27

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Questions 28

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Questions 29

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Questions 30

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 31

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Questions 32

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Questions 33

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

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Questions 34

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

Options:

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

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Questions 35

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

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Questions 36

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Questions 37

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

Options:

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Questions 39

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

Options:

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

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Questions 40

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Questions 41

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

Options:

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

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Questions 42

Which of the following BEST promotes commitment to controls?

Options:

A.

Assigning control ownership

B.

Assigning appropriate resources

C.

Assigning a quality control review

D.

Performing regular independent control reviews

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Questions 43

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization's customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management's decision?

Options:

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

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Questions 44

A large organization is replacing its enterprise resource planning (ERP) system and has decided not to deploy the payroll module of the new system. Instead, the current payroll system will continue to be

used. Of the following, who should own the risk if the ERP and payroll system fail to operate as expected?

Options:

A.

The business owner

B.

The ERP administrator

C.

The project steering committee

D.

The IT project manager

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Questions 45

Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?

Options:

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Risk policy requirements

C.

A risk register

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 46

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 47

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

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Questions 48

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

Options:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Questions 49

An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 50

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

Options:

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

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Questions 51

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

Options:

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Questions 52

Which of the following is the BEST way to address IT regulatory compliance risk?

Options:

A.

Assign highest priority to remediation of related risk scenarios.

B.

Prevent acceptance of related risk scenarios.

C.

Conduct specialized business impact analyses (BIAs).

D.

Manage risk like other types of operational risk.

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Questions 53

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

Options:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

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Questions 54

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Questions 55

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Questions 57

An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 58

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

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Questions 59

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

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Questions 60

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Questions 61

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

Options:

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

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Questions 62

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

Options:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 63

An organization has initiated a project to implement an IT risk management program for the first time. The BEST time for the risk practitioner to start populating the risk register is when:

Options:

A.

identifying risk scenarios.

B.

determining the risk strategy.

C.

calculating impact and likelihood.

D.

completing the controls catalog.

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Questions 64

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Questions 65

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

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Questions 66

A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Unauthorized access

B.

Data corruption

C.

Inadequate retention schedules

D.

Data disruption

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Questions 67

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Data storage and collection methods

B.

Data owner preferences

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Choice of encryption algorithms

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Identifying additional risk scenarios

B.

Updating the heat map

C.

Assessing loss expectancy

D.

Establishing a risk appetite

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Questions 69

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 70

An organization uses an automated vulnerability scanner to identify potential vulnerabilities on various enterprise systems. Who is accountable for ensuring the vulnerabilities are mitigated?

Options:

A.

Data owners

B.

Information security manager

C.

System administrators

D.

System owners

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Questions 71

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

Options:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Questions 72

Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?

Options:

A.

Customers who would be affected by a breach

B.

Auditors, regulators and standards organizations

C.

The business process owner of the exposed assets

D.

The information security manager

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Questions 73

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

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Questions 74

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?

Options:

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Questions 75

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

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Questions 76

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 77

Several vulnerabilities have been identified in an organization’s core financial systems. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the associated risk.

B.

Determine the cost of remediation.

C.

Initiate the incident response plan.

D.

Remediate the vulnerabilities.

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Questions 78

A risk assessment has identified increased losses associated with an IT risk scenario. It is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

update the risk rating.

B.

reevaluate inherent risk.

C.

develop new risk scenarios.

D.

implement additional controls.

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Questions 79

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

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Questions 80

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

B.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

C.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

D.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

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Questions 81

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Questions 82

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?

Options:

A.

Regular reviews of privileged access

B.

Confirmation from users with privileged access

C.

Management approval of access requests

D.

Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)

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Questions 83

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

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Questions 84

Which of the following provides the BEST protection for Internet of Things (loT) devices that are accessed within an organization?

Options:

A.

Identity and access management (IAM)

B.

Comprehensive patching program

C.

Source code reviews

D.

Adoption of a defense-in-depth strategy

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Questions 85

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

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Questions 86

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Questions 87

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

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Questions 88

A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?

Options:

A.

Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours

B.

Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches

C.

Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold

D.

Percentage of servers not patched per policy

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Questions 89

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend be done prior to disposal of server hardware containing confidential data?

Options:

A.

Destroy the hard drives.

B.

Encrypt the backup.

C.

Update the asset inventory.

D.

Remove all user access.

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Questions 90

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Questions 91

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

Options:

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Questions 92

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

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Questions 93

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

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Questions 94

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Questions 95

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Questions 96

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Nonrepudiation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

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Questions 97

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

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Questions 98

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

Options:

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

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Questions 99

Which of the following is the MOST important component in a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Technical details

B.

Target completion date

C.

Treatment plan ownership

D.

Treatment plan justification

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Questions 100

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

Options:

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Questions 101

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

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Questions 102

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Questions 103

Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result of the decrease in risk appetite due to a new privacy regulation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Risk trends

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk objectives

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Questions 104

Which of the following is the MOST important success factor when introducing risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing a risk register

B.

Defining a risk mitigation strategy and plan

C.

Assigning risk ownership

D.

Establishing executive management support

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Questions 105

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

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Questions 106

An organization's chief information officer (CIO) has proposed investing in a new. untested technology to take advantage of being first to market Senior management has concerns about the success of the project and has set a limit for expenditures before final approval. This conditional approval indicates the organization's risk:

Options:

A.

capacity.

B.

appetite.

C.

management capability.

D.

treatment strategy.

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Questions 107

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Questions 108

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

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Questions 109

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the MOST valuable data source to support the optimization of an existing key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Frameworks and standards

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Organizational policies

D.

Historical losses and incidents

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Questions 111

In response to the threat of ransomware, an organization has implemented cybersecurity awareness activities. The risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks would be to implement:

Options:

A.

two-factor authentication.

B.

continuous data backup controls.

C.

encryption for data at rest.

D.

encryption for data in motion.

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Questions 112

Which of the following analyses is MOST useful for prioritizing risk scenarios associated with loss of IT assets?

Options:

A.

SWOT analysis

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

Options:

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Questions 114

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 115

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

Options:

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Questions 116

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern when changes to firewall rules do not follow change management requirements?

Options:

A.

Potential audit findings

B.

Insufficient risk governance

C.

Potential business impact

D.

Inaccurate documentation

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Questions 117

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Questions 118

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 119

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Questions 120

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

Options:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

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Questions 121

Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up identification of emerging risks

B.

Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy

C.

Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity

D.

Review of external loss data

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Questions 122

The BEST metric to monitor the risk associated with changes deployed to production is the percentage of:

Options:

A.

changes due to emergencies.

B.

changes that cause incidents.

C.

changes not requiring user acceptance testing.

D.

personnel that have rights to make changes in production.

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Questions 123

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Questions 124

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 125

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

Options:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

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Questions 126

The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

exposures are reduced to the fullest extent

B.

exposures are reduced only for critical business systems

C.

insurance costs are minimized

D.

the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.

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Questions 127

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

Options:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Questions 128

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of analyzing control effectiveness during risk analysis?

Options:

A.

To enable a control cost-benefit analysis

B.

To evaluate the risk impact

C.

To determine the likelihood of occurrence

D.

To determine the current risk level

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Questions 129

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Questions 130

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Questions 131

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Questions 132

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?

Options:

A.

Survey device owners.

B.

Rescan the user environment.

C.

Require annual end user policy acceptance.

D.

Review awareness training assessment results

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Questions 133

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Questions 134

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

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Questions 135

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Questions 136

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

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Questions 137

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

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Questions 138

Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Risk practitioner

C.

Compliance manager

D.

Control owner

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Questions 139

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

Options:

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Questions 140

when developing IT risk scenarios associated with a new line of business, which of the following would be MOST helpful to review?

Options:

A.

Organizational threats

B.

Resource allocation plan

C.

Competitor analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization's critical assets?

Options:

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

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Questions 142

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

Options:

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 143

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Questions 144

The GREATEST benefit of introducing continuous monitoring to an IT control environment is that it:

Options:

A.

Enables timely detection of emerging risk

B.

Enables the collection of benchmarking data

C.

Identifies stakeholders involved in the process

D.

Helps to obtain buy-in for future IT investments

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Questions 145

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Questions 146

Which of the following is the MOST effective way lo ensure professional ethics are maintained as a core organizational value and adhered to by employees?

Options:

A.

Include professional ethics in the corporate value statement.

B.

Establish a channel for employees to report unethical behavior.

C.

Include professional ethics criteria as part of performance appraisals.

D.

Establish a code of conduct document for employees to sign.

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Questions 147

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

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Questions 148

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

Options:

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Questions 149

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

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Questions 150

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

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Questions 151

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

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Questions 152

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

Options:

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

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Questions 153

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Questions 154

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 155

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

Options:

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

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Questions 156

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

Options:

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 157

A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.

B.

Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.

C.

Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.

D.

Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.

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Questions 158

While reviewing an organization's monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Questions 159

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

Options:

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

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Questions 160

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

Options:

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

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Questions 161

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Questions 162

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization's:

Options:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

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Questions 163

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Questions 164

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

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Questions 165

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

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Questions 166

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Questions 167

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

Options:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

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Questions 168

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Questions 169

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

Options:

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

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Questions 170

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Questions 171

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

Options:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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Questions 172

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

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Questions 173

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

Options:

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Questions 175

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

Options:

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

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Questions 176

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Questions 177

Which of the following factors will have the GREATEST impact on the implementation of a risk mitigation strategy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Known vulnerabilities

D.

Cyber insurance

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Questions 178

Which of the following is the FIRST step when identifying risk items related to a new IT project?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Review the IT control environment.

C.

Review the business case.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis.

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Questions 179

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Questions 180

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Questions 181

A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

IT infrastructure manager

D.

Business application owner

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Questions 182

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

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Questions 183

An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Questions 184

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

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Questions 185

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

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Questions 186

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval to retire the control.

B.

Update the status of the control as obsolete.

C.

Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.

D.

Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.

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Questions 187

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

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Questions 188

What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?

Options:

A.

To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents

B.

To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures

C.

To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices

D.

To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels

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Questions 189

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

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Questions 190

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 191

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Questions 192

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

Options:

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

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Questions 193

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Questions 194

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

Options:

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

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Questions 195

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

Options:

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Questions 196

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 197

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Creating a data classification scheme

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations

C.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

D.

Identifying critical information assets

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Questions 198

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (Pll)?

Options:

A.

Costs and benefits

B.

Local laws and regulations

C.

Security features and support

D.

Business strategies and needs

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Questions 199

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

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Questions 200

Which of the following groups represents the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Compliance committee

C.

External audit

D.

Operational managers

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Questions 201

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

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Questions 202

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Questions 203

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

Options:

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Questions 204

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?

Options:

A.

User provisioning

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Security log monitoring

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Questions 205

An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Questions 206

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 207

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 208

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 209

When reviewing a business continuity plan (BCP). which of the following would be the MOST significant deficiency?

Options:

A.

BCP testing is net in conjunction with the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) do not meet business requirements.

C.

BCP is often tested using the walk-through method.

D.

Each business location has separate, inconsistent BCPs.

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Questions 210

A business unit has implemented robotic process automation (RPA) for its

repetitive back-office tasks. Which of the following should be the risk

practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The security team is unaware of the implementation.

B.

The organization may lose institutional knowledge.

C.

The robots may fail to work effectively.

D.

Virtual clients are used for implementation.

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Questions 211

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

Options:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

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Questions 212

It is MOST important that entries in an organization’s risk register be updated:

Options:

A.

when the key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has been reached.

B.

when required by internal audit.

C.

prior to a risk review.

D.

when aspects of the risk scenario change.

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Questions 213

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

Options:

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Questions 214

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 215

Which of the following would BEST help secure online financial transactions from improper users?

Options:

A.

Review of log-in attempts

B.

multi-level authorization

C.

Periodic review of audit trails

D.

multi-factor authentication

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Questions 216

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to plan a vulnerability assessment that aligns to detailed organizational requirements?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Standards

C.

Policies

D.

Procedures

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Questions 217

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

Options:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Questions 218

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

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Questions 219

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 220

Which of the following is MOST commonly compared against the risk appetite?

Options:

A.

IT risk

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Financial risk

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for managing emerging risk?

Options:

A.

The organization is likely to become prone to continuous disruptive events.

B.

Risk assessment methodologies cannot be applied to emerging risk.

C.

Assumptions about the future state are likely to become invalid.

D.

The number of risk scenarios may become uncontrollably high.

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Questions 222

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?

Options:

A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

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Questions 223

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Questions 224

A penetration testing team discovered an ineffectively designed access control. Who is responsible for ensuring the control design gap is remediated?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

IT security manager

D.

Control operator

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Questions 225

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Questions 226

Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of user passwords being compromised by a man in the middle technique?

Options:

A.

Require users to select long passwords.

B.

Implement a passwordless access mechanism.

C.

Require users to change password as frequently as possible.

D.

Block user sessions after short periods of inactivity.

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Questions 227

Which of the following is the MOST significant benefit of using quantitative risk analysis instead of qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Minimized time to completion

B.

Decreased structure

C.

Minimized subjectivity

D.

Decreased cost

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Questions 228

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

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Questions 229

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Questions 230

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Questions 231

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 232

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

Options:

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

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Questions 233

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

Options:

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Questions 234

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

Options:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Questions 235

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

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Questions 237

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk to IT infrastructure availability?

Options:

A.

Establishing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Establishing recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Maintaining a current list of staff contact delays

D.

Maintaining a risk register

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Questions 238

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?

Options:

A.

Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.

B.

Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.

C.

Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.

D.

Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.

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Questions 239

Which key performance indicator (KPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of disaster recovery scenarios identified

B.

Percentage of employees involved in the disaster recovery exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within the recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within the recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 240

As part of its risk strategy, an organization decided to transition its financial system from a cloud-based provider to an internally managed system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Reassess whether the risk responses properly address known risks and vulnerabilities

B.

Analyze the risk register to identify potential updates and changes

C.

Evaluate existing control test plans of the system for potential changes

D.

Update the processes within impacted financial control assessments

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Questions 241

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

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Questions 242

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

Options:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Questions 243

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Questions 244

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

Options:

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 245

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 246

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

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Questions 247

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Questions 248

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

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Questions 249

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to ensure the risk register is updated regularly?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results are accessible to senior management and stakeholders.

B.

Risk mitigation activities are managed and coordinated.

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are evaluated to validate they are still within the risk threshold.

D.

Risk information is available to enable risk-based decisions.

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Questions 250

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

Options:

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Questions 251

Options:

A.

Conduct frequent internal audits of IT systems.

B.

Review information from threat intelligence sources.

C.

Define a comprehensive set of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Document thorough IT risk scenarios in the risk register.

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Questions 252

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

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Questions 253

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a selected risk treatment plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Identifying key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Evaluating the return on investment (ROI)

C.

Evaluating the residual risk level

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 254

Which of the following BEST indicates whether security awareness training is effective?

Options:

A.

User self-assessment

B.

User behavior after training

C.

Course evaluation

D.

Quality of training materials

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Questions 255

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

Options:

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

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Questions 256

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

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Questions 257

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

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Questions 258

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Questions 259

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

Options:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Questions 260

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Questions 261

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

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Questions 262

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

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Questions 263

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of creating and documenting control procedures?

Options:

A.

To facilitate ongoing audit and control testing

B.

To help manage risk to acceptable tolerance levels

C.

To establish and maintain a control inventory

D.

To increase the likelihood of effective control operation

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Questions 264

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Questions 265

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that robust risk management practices are in place within an organization?

Options:

A.

A management-approved risk dashboard

B.

A current control framework

C.

A regularly updated risk register

D.

Regularly updated risk management procedures

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Questions 266

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Questions 267

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

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Questions 268

A key risk indicator (KRI) for technology operations has been above risk thresholds for the last three reporting periods. What is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Adjust the original thresholds for the KRI for future reporting periods

B.

Initiate corrective actions with the accountable risk owner

C.

Implement forward-looking risk metrics to compare results

D.

Continue monitoring the KRI for changes in subsequent reporting periods

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Questions 269

During the creation of an organization's IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:

Options:

A.

Interviewing data owners

B.

Reviewing risk response plans with internal audit

C.

Developing a risk monitoring process

D.

Reviewing an external risk assessment

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Questions 270

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

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Questions 271

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

Options:

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Questions 272

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

C.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

D.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

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Questions 273

Which of the following would BEST help identify the owner for each risk scenario in a risk register?

Options:

A.

Determining which departments contribute most to risk

B.

Allocating responsibility for risk factors equally to asset owners

C.

Mapping identified risk factors to specific business processes

D.

Determining resource dependency of assets

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Questions 274

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Questions 275

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

Options:

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

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Questions 276

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 277

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

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Questions 278

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Review assignments of data ownership for key assets.

B.

Identify staff who have access to the organization’s sensitive data.

C.

Identify recent and historical incidents involving data loss.

D.

Review the organization's data inventory.

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Questions 279

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 280

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

Options:

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

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Questions 281

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Questions 282

After conducting a risk assessment for regulatory compliance, an organization has identified only one possible mitigating control. The cost of the control has been determined to be higher than the penalty of noncompliance. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk with management sign-off.

B.

Ignore the risk until the regulatory body conducts a compliance check.

C.

Mitigate the risk with the identified control.

D.

Transfer the risk by buying insurance.

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Questions 283

If concurrent update transactions to an account are not processed properly, which of the following will MOST likely be affected?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Accountability

C.

Availability

D.

Integrity

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Questions 284

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

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Questions 285

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

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Questions 286

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Questions 287

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

Options:

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

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Questions 288

Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?

Options:

A.

Data as a Service (DaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 289

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?

Options:

A.

To identify threats introduced by business processes

B.

To identify risk when personal information is collected

C.

To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information

D.

To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations

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Questions 290

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

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Questions 291

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?

Options:

A.

Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles

B.

Establishing minimum cloud security requirements

C.

Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters

D.

Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security

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Questions 292

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the second line when an IT risk management framework is adopted?

Options:

A.

Overseeing the execution of framework requirements

B.

Implementing the framework requirements

C.

Advising industry standard framework organizations

D.

Auditing the execution of framework requirements

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Questions 293

An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?

Options:

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

C.

Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.

D.

Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.

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Questions 294

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

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Questions 295

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Questions 296

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of violating privacy laws when transferring personal information lo a supplier?

Options:

A.

Encrypt the data while in transit lo the supplier

B.

Contractually obligate the supplier to follow privacy laws.

C.

Require independent audits of the supplier's control environment

D.

Utilize blockchain during the data transfer

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Questions 297

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Questions 298

An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Reduced access to internal audit reports

C.

Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 299

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Questions 300

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Questions 301

A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?

Options:

A.

Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues

B.

Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents

C.

Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation

D.

Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business

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Questions 302

Options:

A.

Accept the residual risk due to the low likelihood of occurrence.

B.

Implement additional mitigation measures.

C.

Determine whether residual risk is within risk appetite.

D.

Adopt a new risk assessment method to avoid the residual risk.

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Questions 303

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

Options:

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

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Questions 304

Several newly identified risk scenarios are being integrated into an organization's risk register. The MOST appropriate risk owner would be the individual who:

Options:

A.

is in charge of information security.

B.

is responsible for enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

can implement remediation action plans.

D.

is accountable for loss if the risk materializes.

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Questions 305

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

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Questions 306

Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

Options:

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Questions 307

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Questions 308

The use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) when applied to an FTP connection is an example of which type of control category?

Options:

A.

Compensating

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Corrective

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Questions 309

Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:

Options:

A.

possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.

B.

design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.

C.

project plan for classification of the data.

D.

summary of data protection and privacy legislation.

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Questions 310

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

Options:

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Questions 311

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Questions 312

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

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Questions 313

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

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Questions 314

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

Options:

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Questions 315

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Questions 316

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Questions 317

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Questions 318

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

Options:

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Questions 319

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

Options:

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Questions 320

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization's risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 321

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:

Options:

A.

provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.

B.

determine the impact of potential threats.

C.

test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.

D.

detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.

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Questions 322

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

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Questions 323

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

Options:

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Questions 324

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

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Questions 325

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

Options:

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

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Questions 326

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 327

Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''

Options:

A.

Implement role-based access control

B.

Implement a data masking process

C.

Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

D.

Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool

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Questions 328

Options:

A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 329

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

Options:

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 330

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization's risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Questions 331

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

Options:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Questions 332

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?

Options:

A.

Number of active nodes

B.

Blockchain size in gigabytes

C.

Average transaction speed

D.

Number of validated transactions

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Questions 333

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of identifying and communicating with stakeholders at the onset of an IT risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Obtaining funding support

B.

Defining the risk assessment scope

C.

Selecting the risk assessment framework

D.

Establishing inherent risk

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Questions 334

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

Options:

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Questions 335

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party's IT operations manager

B.

The organization's process owner

C.

The third party's chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization's risk practitioner

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Questions 336

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

Options:

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Questions 337

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Questions 338

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

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Questions 339

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

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Questions 340

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?

Options:

A.

Increasing senior management's understanding of IT operations

B.

Increasing the frequency of data backups

C.

Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure

D.

Decentralizing IT infrastructure

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Questions 341

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Questions 342

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key control indicator (KCI) to help an organization prevent successful cyber risk events on the external-facing infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Increasing number of threat actors

B.

Increasing number of intrusion detection system (IDS) false positive alerts

C.

Increasing percentage of unpatched demilitarized zone (DMZ) servers

D.

Increasing trend of perimeter attacks

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Questions 343

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

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Questions 344

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

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Questions 345

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

Options:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Questions 346

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Questions 347

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

Options:

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Questions 348

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

Options:

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Questions 349

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

Options:

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Questions 350

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

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Questions 351

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

Options:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

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Questions 352

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Questions 353

A company has recently acquired a customer relationship management (CRM) application from a certified software vendor. Which of the following will BE ST help lo prevent technical vulnerabilities from being exploded?

Options:

A.

implement code reviews and Quality assurance on a regular basis

B.

Verity me software agreement indemnifies the company from losses

C.

Review the source coda and error reporting of the application

D.

Update the software with the latest patches and updates

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Questions 354

Which of the following provides the MOST useful input to the development of realistic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk map

D.

Risk events

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Questions 355

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 356

Which of the following BEST measures the efficiency of an incident response process?

Options:

A.

Number of incidents escalated to management

B.

Average time between changes and updating of escalation matrix

C.

Average gap between actual and agreed response times

D.

Number of incidents lacking responses

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Questions 357

A PRIMARY objective of disaster recovery is to:

Options:

A.

Improve infrastructure of physical locations

B.

Restore critical business and IT services

C.

Recover financial data and statements

D.

Maintain operational processes and connectivity

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Questions 358

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 359

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

Options:

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Questions 360

Which of the following functions can be performed by any of the three lines of defense?

Options:

A.

Monitoring control effectiveness

B.

Operating control activities

C.

Designing control functions

D.

Assuring control processes

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Questions 361

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?

Options:

A.

Availability of test data

B.

Integrity of data

C.

Cost overruns

D.

System performance

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Questions 362

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

Options:

A.

Public relations manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

Business manager

D.

Database manager

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Questions 363

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Questions 364

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Questions 365

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

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Questions 366

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

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Questions 367

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Questions 368

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Questions 369

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 370

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 371

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

Options:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

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Questions 372

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

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Questions 373

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations' risk management programs

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Questions 374

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Questions 375

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

Options:

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

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Questions 376

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Questions 377

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

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Questions 378

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Questions 379

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Questions 380

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Questions 381

Which of the following is MOST helpful in aligning IT risk with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Introducing an approved IT governance framework

B.

Integrating the results of top-down risk scenario analyses

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BlA)

D.

Implementing a risk classification system

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Questions 382

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

Options:

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Questions 383

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Questions 384

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?

Options:

A.

Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.

C.

Revise the organization's risk and control policy.

D.

Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.

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Questions 385

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

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Questions 386

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure new IT policies address the enterprise's requirements?

Options:

A.

involve IT leadership in the policy development process

B.

Require business users to sign acknowledgment of the poises

C.

involve business owners in the pokey development process

D.

Provide policy owners with greater enforcement authority

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Questions 387

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Postpone the risk assessment.

B.

Facilitate the exception process.

C.

Accept the manager's request.

D.

Reject the manager's request.

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Questions 388

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Questions 389

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

Options:

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Questions 390

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Questions 391

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

Options:

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

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Questions 392

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

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Questions 393

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

Options:

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Questions 394

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Questions 395

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Questions 396

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Questions 397

Which of the following can be interpreted from a single data point on a risk heat map?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk magnitude

C.

Risk response

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 398

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

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Questions 399

Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business

B.

Performing network scanning for unknown devices

C.

Requesting an asset list from business owners

D.

Documenting asset configuration baselines

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Questions 400

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

Options:

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Questions 401

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

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Questions 402

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

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Questions 403

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Questions 404

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

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Questions 405

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Questions 406

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with outsourcing network management to an external vendor who will have access to sensitive information assets?

Options:

A.

Prepare a skills matrix to illustrate tasks and required expertise.

B.

Require periodic security assessments of the vendor within the contract.

C.

Perform due diligence to enable holistic assessment of the vendor.

D.

Plan a phased approach for the transition of processes to the vendor.

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Questions 407

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?

Options:

A.

Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.

B.

Control owners approve control changes.

C.

End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.

D.

Performance information in the log is encrypted.

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Questions 408

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of a well-defined risk event?

Options:

A.

Forensic investigations include chain-of-custody requirements

B.

Impact analyses include annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Incident response plans include recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Critical systems include key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 409

Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:

Options:

A.

with strategic initiatives.

B.

to meet risk appetite.

C.

within resource availability.

D.

below risk appetite.

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Questions 410

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

Options:

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Questions 411

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

Options:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Questions 412

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

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Questions 413

A maturity model will BEST indicate:

Options:

A.

confidentiality and integrity.

B.

effectiveness and efficiency.

C.

availability and reliability.

D.

certification and accreditation.

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Questions 414

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Questions 415

Which of the following requirements is MOST important to include in an outsourcing contract to help ensure sensitive data stored with a service provider is secure?

Options:

A.

A third-party assessment report of control environment effectiveness must be provided at least annually.

B.

Incidents related to data toss must be reported to the organization immediately after they occur.

C.

Risk assessment results must be provided to the organization at least annually.

D.

A cyber insurance policy must be purchased to cover data loss events.

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Questions 416

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to communicate control effectiveness to senior management?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate alignment with industry best practices

B.

To assure management that control ownership is assigned

C.

To ensure management understands the current risk status

D.

To align risk management with strategic objectives

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Questions 417

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

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Questions 418

Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Technical control validation

D.

Control testing results

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Questions 419

A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.

B.

Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.

C.

Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.

D.

Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.

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Questions 420

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?

Options:

A.

To ensure enterprise-wide risk management

B.

To establish control ownership

C.

To enable a comprehensive view of risk

D.

To identify key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 421

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Questions 422

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Questions 423

Which of the following provides the MOST helpful information in identifying risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk registers

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk responses

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Questions 424

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Questions 425

An organization is concerned that its employees may be unintentionally disclosing data through the use of social media sites. Which of the following will MOST effectively mitigate tins risk?

Options:

A.

Requiring the use of virtual private networks (VPNs)

B.

Establishing a data classification policy

C.

Conducting user awareness training

D.

Requiring employee agreement of the acceptable use policy

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Questions 426

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing generic risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The organization’s vision and mission

B.

Resources required for risk mitigation

C.

Impact to business objectives

D.

Risk-related trends within the industry

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Questions 427

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Questions 428

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

Options:

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Questions 429

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

Options:

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 430

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management's risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

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Questions 431

An organization's Internet-facing server was successfully attacked because the server did not have the latest security patches. The risk associated with poor patch management had been documented in the risk register and accepted. Who should be accountable for any related losses to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Server administrator

D.

Risk practitioner

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Questions 432

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

Options:

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Questions 433

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Questions 434

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Questions 435

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

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Questions 436

Which of the following is MOST helpful in developing key risk indicator (KRl) thresholds?

Options:

A.

Loss expectancy information

B.

Control performance predictions

C.

IT service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Remediation activity progress

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Questions 437

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

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Questions 438

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Questions 439

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

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Questions 440

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Questions 441

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

Options:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

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Questions 442

Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?

Options:

A.

System risk and control matrix

B.

Emerging IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes to risk assessment methodology

D.

Audit committee charter

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Questions 443

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Questions 444

Which of the following is MOST helpful to understand the consequences of an IT risk event?

Options:

A.

Fault tree analysis

B.

Historical trend analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 445

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Questions 446

Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Risk heat maps

C.

Internal audit findings

D.

Periodic penetration testing

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Questions 447

An organization has identified that terminated employee accounts are not disabled or deleted within the time required by corporate policy. Unsure of the reason, the organization has decided to monitor the situation for three months to obtain more information. As a result of this decision, the risk has been:

Options:

A.

avoided.

B.

accepted.

C.

mitigated.

D.

transferred.

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Questions 448

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

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Questions 449

A key performance indicator (KPI) has been established to monitor the number of software changes that fail and must be re-implemented. An increase in the KPI indicates an ineffective:

Options:

A.

corrective control.

B.

preventive control.

C.

administrative control.

D.

deterrent control.

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Questions 450

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

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Questions 451

Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Industry best practices

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Questions 452

Which of the following is the MOST essential factor for managing risk in a highly dynamic environment?

Options:

A.

Ongoing sharing of information among industry peers

B.

Obtaining support from senior leadership

C.

Adhering to industry-recognized risk management standards

D.

Implementing detection and response measures

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Questions 453

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

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Questions 454

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

Options:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Questions 455

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

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Questions 456

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

Options:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

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Questions 457

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

B.

Residual risk is increased.

C.

Inherent risk is increased.

D.

Risk appetite is decreased

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Questions 458

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

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Questions 459

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 460

An organization is implementing data warehousing infrastructure. Senior management is concerned about safeguarding client data security in this new environment. Which of the following should the risk practitioner recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Ensure a role-based access control (RBAC) model is implemented.

B.

Perform a gap analysis regarding the organization's client data access model.

C.

Ensure an attribute-based access control model is implemented.

D.

Establish new controls addressing a consistently applied data access model.

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Questions 461

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

Options:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Questions 462

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for integrating IT risk management practices into enterprise risk management (ERM)?

Options:

A.

To reduce conflicts of interest between IT and business units

B.

To align ERM with regulatory requirements

C.

To optimize enterprise-wide resource efficiency

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are reflected in the corporate risk profile

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Questions 463

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Questions 464

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C.

Risk-based audits

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Questions 465

Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk associated with malicious activities performed by database administrators (DBAs)?

Options:

A.

Activity logging and monitoring

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Two-factor authentication

D.

Awareness training and background checks

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Questions 466

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

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Questions 467

A risk practitioner has been asked to mark an identified control deficiency as remediated, despite concerns that the risk level is still too high. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Prepare a risk acceptance proposal for senior management's consideration.

B.

Review the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

Assess the residual risk against the organization's risk appetite.

D.

Recommend implementation of additional compensating controls.

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Questions 468

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

Options:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Questions 469

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

Options:

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

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Questions 470

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Questions 471

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 472

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Questions 473

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

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Questions 474

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

Options:

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Questions 475

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

Options:

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Questions 476

After a business unit implemented an Internet of Things (IoT) solution, the organization became aware of an emerging risk from the interoperability of IoT devices. Which of the following should be done FIRST in response to this situation?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Update the risk profile.

C.

Re-evaluate the risk tolerance.

D.

Inform executive leadership.

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Questions 477

In an organization dependent on data analytics to drive decision-making, which of the following would BEST help to minimize the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Establishing an intellectual property agreement

B.

Evaluating each of the data sources for vulnerabilities

C.

Periodically reviewing big data strategies

D.

Benchmarking to industry best practice

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Questions 478

Upon learning that the number of failed backup attempts continually exceeds

the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency.

B.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance.

C.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions.

D.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal.

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Questions 479

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

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Questions 480

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Questions 481

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

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Questions 482

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Onsite replacement availability

C.

Maintenance procedures

D.

Installation manuals

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Questions 483

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

Options:

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Questions 484

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that risk management is driving business decisions in an organization?

Options:

A.

Compliance breaches are addressed in a timely manner.

B.

Risk ownership is identified and assigned.

C.

Risk treatment options receive adequate funding.

D.

Residual risk is within risk tolerance.

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Questions 485

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

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Questions 486

Which of the following is the MOST important metric to monitor the performance of the change management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes having separation of duties in code deployment

B.

Percentage of changes having completed post-implementation verification

C.

Percentage of changes having user acceptance testing (UAT) sign-off

D.

Percentage of changes having to invoke the rollback plan

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Questions 487

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

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Questions 488

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

Options:

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Questions 489

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Questions 490

Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Industry standards

D.

Heat map

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Questions 491

Which of the following is MOST important for a multinational organization to consider when developing its security policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Regional competitors' policies and standards

B.

Ability to monitor and enforce compliance

C.

Industry-standard templates

D.

Differences in regulatory requirements

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Questions 492

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when periodically reviewing risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

The action plans have documented schedules

B.

The action plans treat the corresponding risk

C.

Budget has been allocated for the action plans

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are defined in the action plans

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Questions 493

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Questions 494

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Questions 495

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?

Options:

A.

The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause

B.

The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose

C.

The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure

D.

The AI system results have not been validated

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Questions 496

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

Options:

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

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Questions 497

The FIRST step for a startup company when developing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be to identify:

Options:

A.

Current vulnerabilities

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Critical business processes

D.

A suitable alternate site

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Questions 498

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 499

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

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Questions 500

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Questions 501

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Questions 502

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when performing a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Results of the last risk assessment of the vendor

B.

Inherent risk of the business process supported by the vendor

C.

Risk tolerance of the vendor

D.

Length of time since the last risk assessment of the vendor

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Questions 503

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

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Questions 504

Which of the following would MOST likely cause management to unknowingly accept excessive risk?

Options:

A.

Satisfactory audit results

B.

Risk tolerance being set too low

C.

Inaccurate risk ratings

D.

Lack of preventive controls

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Questions 505

After the implementation of a blockchain solution, a risk practitioner discovers noncompliance with new industry regulations. Which of the following is the MOST important course of action prior to informing senior management?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the design effectiveness of existing controls.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Evaluate the industry response to the new regulations.

D.

Evaluate the potential impact.

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Questions 506

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

Options:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

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Questions 507

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

Options:

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

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Questions 508

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

Options:

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

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Questions 509

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

Options:

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Questions 510

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Questions 511

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

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Questions 512

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management's PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Questions 513

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

Options:

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Questions 514

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 515

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

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Questions 516

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Questions 517

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

Options:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Questions 518

A risk practitioner observes that the fraud detection controls in an online payment system do not perform as expected. Which of the following will MOST likely change as a result?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 519

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 520

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

Options:

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

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Questions 521

An organization has opened a subsidiary in a foreign country. Which of the following would be the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of the subsidiary's IT systems controls?

Options:

A.

Implement IT systems in alignment with business objectives.

B.

Review metrics and key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Review design documentation of IT systems.

D.

Evaluate compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

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Questions 522

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

Options:

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

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Questions 523

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Questions 524

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

Options:

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Questions 525

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

Options:

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Questions 526

A financial institution has identified high risk of fraud in several business applications. Which of the following controls will BEST help reduce the risk of fraudulent internal transactions?

Options:

A.

Periodic user privileges review

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Periodic internal audits

D.

Segregation of duties

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Questions 527

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Questions 528

From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?

Options:

A.

Updates align with strategic business objectives.

B.

Updates will be approved by the risk owners.

C.

Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.

D.

Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.

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Questions 529

IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:

Options:

A.

the cost associated with each control.

B.

historical risk assessments.

C.

key risk indicators (KRls).

D.

information from the risk register.

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Questions 530

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to have the risk management process reviewed by a third party?

Options:

A.

Obtain objective assessment of the control environment.

B.

Ensure the risk profile is defined and communicated.

C.

Validate the threat management process.

D.

Obtain an objective view of process gaps and systemic errors.

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Questions 531

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

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Questions 532

How does the identification of risk scenarios contribute to effective IT risk management?

Options:

A.

By facilitating post-incident investigations

B.

By enabling proactive risk assessment

C.

By identifying cybersecurity incidents

D.

By creating awareness of risk mitigation strategies

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Questions 533

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Questions 534

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

Options:

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Questions 535

While conducting an organization-wide risk assessment, it is noted that many of the information security policies have not changed in the past three years. The BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

review and update the policies to align with industry standards.

B.

determine that the policies should be updated annually.

C.

report that the policies are adequate and do not need to be updated frequently.

D.

review the policies against current needs to determine adequacy.

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Questions 536

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Questions 537

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

Options:

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

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Questions 538

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Questions 539

An organization is subject to a new regulation that requires nearly real-time recovery of its services following a disruption. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk in this situation?

Options:

A.

Move redundant IT infrastructure to a closer location.

B.

Obtain insurance and ensure sufficient funds are available for disaster recovery.

C.

Review the business continuity plan (BCP) and align it with the new business needs.

D.

Outsource disaster recovery services to a third-party IT service provider.

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Questions 540

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Questions 541

A risk practitioner identifies an increasing trend of employees copying company information unrelated to their job functions to USB drives. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated to reflect this observation?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Questions 542

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Questions 543

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

Options:

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

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Questions 544

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

D.

Users having unauthorized access to data

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Questions 545

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Questions 546

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Questions 547

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization's cloud computing environment against leading practices?

Options:

A.

The cloud environment's capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment's risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization's strategic plans for cloud computing

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Questions 548

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

Options:

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Questions 549

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Questions 550

Which of the following approaches MOST effectively enables accountability for data protection?

Options:

A.

Establishing ownership for data within applications and systems

B.

Establishing discipline for policy violations by data owners

C.

Implementing data protection policies across the organization

D.

Conducting data protection awareness and training campaigns

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Questions 551

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

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Questions 552

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Questions 553

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

Options:

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Questions 554

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Questions 555

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

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Questions 556

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

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Questions 557

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

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Questions 558

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Questions 559

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Questions 560

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

Options:

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Questions 561

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Questions 562

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

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Questions 563

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization's key IT applications in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider's data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Questions 564

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

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Questions 565

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Questions 566

Which of the following should be the starting point when performing a risk analysis for an asset?

Options:

A.

Assess risk scenarios.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Evaluate threats.

D.

Assess controls.

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Questions 567

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

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Questions 568

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Nov 17, 2025
Questions: 1891
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