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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Questions 5

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization ' s culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

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Questions 6

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of reviewing security trends reported by a log monitoring system?

Options:

A.

Identification of process weaknesses

B.

Assessment of system performance

C.

Confirmation that risk is at acceptable levels

D.

Identification of emerging risk scenarios

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Questions 7

It is MOST important that entries in an organization’s risk register be updated:

Options:

A.

when the key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has been reached.

B.

when required by internal audit.

C.

prior to a risk review.

D.

when aspects of the risk scenario change.

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Questions 8

While reviewing the risk register, a risk practitioner notices that different business units have significant variances in inherent risk for the same risk scenario. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Update the risk register with the average of residual risk for both business units.

B.

Review the assumptions of both risk scenarios to determine whether the variance is reasonable.

C.

Update the risk register to ensure both risk scenarios have the highest residual risk.

D.

Request that both business units conduct another review of the risk.

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Questions 9

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' $ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization ' s risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

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Questions 10

When reviewing a risk response strategy, senior management ' s PRIMARY focus should be placed on the:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

investment portfolio.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

alignment with risk appetite.

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Questions 11

Which risk analysis methodology uses diagrams to analyze causes and consequences of particular risk events?

Options:

A.

Failure mode and effects analysis

B.

Process and control mapping

C.

Monte Carlo simulation

D.

Fault tree analysis

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Questions 12

Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Historical trends of the organizational risk profile

B.

Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects

C.

Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures

D.

Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth

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Questions 13

What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Documenting project lessons learned

B.

Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed

C.

Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded

D.

Verifying that the risk level has been lowered

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Questions 14

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

Options:

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Questions 15

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

Options:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

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Questions 17

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries.

B.

Identification of risk events.

C.

Impact on critical assets.

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events.

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Questions 18

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Questions 19

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

Options:

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 20

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization ' s key IT applications in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider ' s data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

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Questions 21

The PRIMARY reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to:

Options:

A.

provide an enterprise-wide view of risk

B.

support risk response tracking

C.

assign risk ownership

D.

facilitate risk response decisions.

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Questions 22

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Questions 23

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

Options:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Questions 24

Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk register details

D.

Risk financial impact

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Questions 25

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to regularly assess the design of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Increasing process failures could impact a key objective.

B.

Tolerance levels change as strategies evolve.

C.

System enhancements could bypass the change control process.

D.

Data required for risk reporting changes with industry trends.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when assessing the risk exposure associated with ransomware?

Options:

A.

Potentially impacted business processes

B.

Recent changes in the environment

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Suspected phishing events

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Questions 27

What should be the PRIMARY consideration related to data privacy protection when there are plans for a business initiative to make use of personal information?

Options:

A.

Do not collect or retain data that is not needed.

B.

Redact data where possible.

C.

Limit access to the personal data.

D.

Ensure all data is encrypted at rest and during transit.

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Questions 28

An organization has made a decision to purchase a new IT system. During when phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) will identified risk MOST likely lead to architecture and design trade-offs?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Implementation

C.

Initiation

D.

Operation and maintenance

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Questions 29

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

Options:

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

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Questions 30

Which of the following is the MOST important technology control to reduce the likelihood of fraudulent payments committed internally?

Options:

A.

Automated access revocation

B.

Daily transaction reconciliation

C.

Rule-based data analytics

D.

Role-based user access model

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Questions 31

An organization ' s recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

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Questions 32

Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?

Options:

A.

Trends in IT resource usage

B.

Trends in IT maintenance costs

C.

Increased resource availability

D.

Increased number of incidents

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Questions 33

Analyzing trends in key control indicators (KCIs) BEST enables a risk practitioner to proactively identify impacts on an organization ' s:

Options:

A.

risk classification methods

B.

risk-based capital allocation

C.

risk portfolio

D.

risk culture

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Questions 34

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

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Questions 35

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

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Questions 36

Which of the following is MOST important when creating a program to reduce ethical risk?

Options:

A.

Defining strict policies

B.

Developing an organizational communication plan

C.

Conducting a gap analysis

D.

Obtaining senior management commitment

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Questions 37

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 39

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

Options:

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

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Questions 40

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

Options:

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Questions 41

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Questions 42

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

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Questions 43

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

Options:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

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Questions 44

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

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Questions 45

A risk practitioners PRIMARY focus when validating a risk response action plan should be that risk response:

Options:

A.

reduces risk to an acceptable level

B.

quantifies risk impact

C.

aligns with business strategy

D.

advances business objectives.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

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Questions 47

Which of the following represents a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

An identity thief seeking to acquire personal financial data from an organization

B.

Media recognition of an organization ' s market leadership in its industry

C.

A standard procedure for applying software patches two weeks after release

D.

An employee recently fired for insubordination

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Questions 48

Which of the following approaches MOST effectively enables accountability for data protection?

Options:

A.

Establishing ownership for data within applications and systems

B.

Establishing discipline for policy violations by data owners

C.

Implementing data protection policies across the organization

D.

Conducting data protection awareness and training campaigns

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of creating an organizational code of conduct?

Options:

A.

Clear expectations for employee behavior

B.

Identification of ethical risk facing the organization

C.

Improvement in workforce productivity

D.

Enhanced integrity of management

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Questions 50

A small organization finds it difficult to implement separation of duties necessary to mitigate the likelihood of system misuse. Which of the following would be the BEST compensating control?

Options:

A.

Undertake control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Require reports from staff with multiple duties

C.

Obtain independent analysis of transaction logs

D.

Assign activities to fewer employees

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Questions 51

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Questions 52

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Questions 53

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

Options:

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Questions 54

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls ' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

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Questions 55

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

Options:

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Questions 56

What would be MOST helpful to ensuring the effective implementation of a new cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to report the number of security incidents

B.

Hiring subject matter experts for the program

C.

Establishing a budget for additional resources

D.

Assigning clear ownership of the program

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Questions 57

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Questions 58

A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:

Options:

A.

validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.

B.

assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.

C.

identifying IT assets that support key business processes.

D.

defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture

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Questions 59

Which of the following will have the GREATEST influence when determining an organization ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Risk management budget

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Risk culture

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Questions 60

Options:

A.

Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.

B.

Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.

C.

Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.

D.

Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.

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Questions 61

A risk practitioner can use an organization ' s problem management process to anticipate potential risk within IT systems by:

Options:

A.

conducting regular user satisfaction surveys to gather feedback on system performance.

B.

continuously monitoring system metrics to identify performance issues.

C.

analyzing incident trends to identify underlying issues that could lead to system failures.

D.

implementing security patches and updates to prevent vulnerabilities from being exploited.

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Questions 62

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

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Questions 63

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?

Options:

A.

Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.

B.

There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.

C.

Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.

D.

Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.

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Questions 64

Which of the following functions independently reviews and provides feedback regarding the achievement of organizational objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Internal audit

C.

IT governance

D.

Senior leadership

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Questions 65

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

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Questions 66

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Questions 67

Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

System owner

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Questions 68

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

Options:

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Questions 69

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

Options:

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Questions 70

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Questions 71

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

Options:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Questions 72

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Questions 73

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input to determine risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Organizational objectives

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk management costs

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Questions 74

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when performing a risk assessment of a fire suppression system within a data center?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Onsite replacement availability

C.

Maintenance procedures

D.

Installation manuals

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Questions 75

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization ' s risk taxonomy?

Options:

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

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Questions 76

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a root cause analysis following an incident?

Options:

A.

To reduce incident response times defined in SLAs

B.

To satisfy senior management expectations for incident response

C.

To ensure risk has been reduced to acceptable levels

D.

To minimize the likelihood of future occurrences

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Questions 77

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Questions 78

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

Options:

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Questions 80

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 81

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

Options:

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

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Questions 82

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk to an organization with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices within its network?

Options:

A.

Inadequate network bandwidth

B.

Lack of interoperability between IoT devices

C.

Insufficient IoT policies and procedures

D.

Increased maintenance costs for IoT devices

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Questions 83

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Questions 84

An organization is planning to implement a Zero Trust model. From a cybersecunty perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure successful alignment with the overall inten Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

Access policies

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Network compatibility

D.

Encryption algorithms

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Questions 85

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

Options:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

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Questions 86

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

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Questions 87

A vendor ' s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure manager

B.

Chief Risk Officer (CRO)

C.

Business continuity manager

D.

Business application owner

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Questions 88

A global organization is considering the transfer of its customer information systems to an overseas cloud service provider in the event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

Regulatory restrictions for cross-border data transfer

B.

Service level objectives in the vendor contract

C.

Organizational culture differences between each country

D.

Management practices within each company

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Questions 89

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers ' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Questions 90

What is a risk practitioner ' s BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Questions 91

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Questions 92

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B.

To identify important business processes in the organization

C.

To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D.

To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

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Questions 93

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Questions 94

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Questions 95

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

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Questions 96

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization ' s critical data.

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Questions 97

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk of relying on artificial intelligence (Al) within heuristic security systems?

Options:

A.

Al may result in less reliance on human intervention.

B.

Malicious activity may inadvertently be classified as normal during baselining.

C.

Risk assessments of heuristic security systems are more difficult.

D.

Predefined patterns of malicious activity may quickly become outdated.

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Questions 98

A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:

Options:

A.

user requests and tests the change prior to production.

B.

user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.

C.

programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.

D.

programmer writes and promotes code into production.

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Questions 99

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

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Questions 100

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the board of directors in corporate risk governance?

Options:

A.

Approving operational strategies and objectives

B.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate risk

C.

Ensuring the effectiveness of the risk management program

D.

Ensuring risk scenarios are identified and recorded in the risk register

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Questions 101

Which of the following controls would BEST mitigate the risk of user passwords being compromised by a man in the middle technique?

Options:

A.

Require users to select long passwords.

B.

Implement a passwordless access mechanism.

C.

Require users to change password as frequently as possible.

D.

Block user sessions after short periods of inactivity.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to consolidate the results of risk assessments across multiple operating units?

Options:

A.

Perform additional risk assessments and create an enterprise risk matrix.

B.

Implement a governance, risk and compliance (GRC) system.

C.

Aggregate operating unit risk registers to a central risk register.

D.

Update departmental risk registers with items from the central risk register.

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Questions 103

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

Options:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Questions 104

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Questions 105

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

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Questions 106

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to senior management when the cost to mitigate a risk scenario exceeds the financial impact should the risk materialize?

Options:

A.

Manage the risk within risk tolerance.

B.

Implement the risk mitigation plan.

C.

Reassess the risk frequently

D.

Increase the organization ' s risk appetite.

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Questions 107

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Questions 108

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

Options:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Questions 109

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

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Questions 110

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

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Questions 111

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Questions 112

An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

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Questions 113

An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 114

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

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Questions 115

A user has contacted the risk practitioner regarding malware spreading laterally across the organization ' s corporate network. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review all log files generated during the period of malicious activity.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Notify the cybersecurity incident response team.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 116

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when identifying and assigning ownership of IT-related risk?

Options:

A.

Accountability for control operation

B.

Ability to design controls to mitigate the risk

C.

Accountability for losses due to impact

D.

Span of control within the organization

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Questions 117

Options:

A.

In the design phase.

B.

During pre-production testing.

C.

Once in the production environment.

D.

Throughout development.

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to update a risk register with risk assessment results?

Options:

A.

To communicate the level and priority of assessed risk to management

B.

To provide a comprehensive inventory of risk across the organization

C.

To assign a risk owner to manage the risk

D.

To enable the creation of action plans to address nsk

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Questions 119

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Questions 120

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

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Questions 121

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

Options:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

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Questions 122

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

Options:

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

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Questions 123

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Questions 124

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

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Questions 125

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 126

An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?

Options:

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 127

A process maturity model is MOST useful to the risk management process because it helps:

Options:

A.

determine the cost of control improvements

B.

determine the gap between actual and desired state.

C.

benchmark maturity against industry standards

D.

reduce audit and regulatory findings

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Questions 128

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Questions 129

Which of the following would MOST likely require a risk practitioner to update the risk register?

Options:

A.

An alert being reported by the security operations center.

B.

Development of a project schedule for implementing a risk response

C.

Completion of a project for implementing a new control

D.

Engagement of a third party to conduct a vulnerability scan

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Questions 130

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Questions 131

The MAJOR reason to classify information assets is

Options:

A.

maintain a current inventory and catalog of information assets

B.

determine their sensitivity and critical

C.

establish recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

categorize data into groups

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Questions 132

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization ' s risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

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Questions 133

Key control indicators (KCls) help to assess the effectiveness of the internal control environment PRIMARILY by:

Options:

A.

ensuring controls are operating efficiently and facilitating productivity.

B.

enabling senior leadership to better understand the level of risk the organization is facing.

C.

monitoring changes in the likelihood of adverse events due to ineffective controls.

D.

providing information on the degree to which controls are meeting intended objectives.

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Questions 134

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner ' s NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

Options:

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

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Questions 135

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?

Options:

A.

Deleting the data from the file system

B.

Cryptographically scrambling the data

C.

Formatting the cloud storage at the block level

D.

Degaussing the cloud storage media

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Questions 136

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

Options:

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider ' s control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider ' s control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

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Questions 137

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Questions 138

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

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Questions 139

An organization ' s IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

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Questions 140

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

Options:

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year ' s budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

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Questions 141

When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:

Options:

A.

low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

B.

high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

C.

high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels

D.

low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.

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Questions 142

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

Options:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

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Questions 143

An organization ' s decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

Options:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Questions 144

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Questions 145

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a cloud service provider. The provider ' s controls are inadequate for the organization ' s level of risk tolerance. As a result, the organization has internally implemented additional backup and recovery controls. Which risk response has been adopted?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

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Questions 146

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization ' s risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Questions 147

Which of the following shortcomings of perimeter security does Zero Trust aim to resolve?

Options:

A.

Lack of access verification for systems on the internal network

B.

Identification and authentication failures for users

C.

Poorly configured firewall rules introducing security breaches

D.

Ineffective load balancing on network devices

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Questions 148

Which of the following is MOST important for effective communication of a risk profile to relevant stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing risk in the risk profile that is related to critical business activities

B.

Customizing the presentation of the risk profile to the intended audience

C.

Including details of risk with high deviation from the risk appetite

D.

Providing information on the efficiency of controls for risk mitigation

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Questions 149

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

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Questions 150

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Questions 151

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

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Questions 152

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Multifactor authentication

D.

Employee sanctions

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Questions 153

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

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Questions 154

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization ' s risk appetite.

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Questions 155

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Questions 156

Options:

A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 157

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

Options:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Questions 158

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Questions 159

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

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Questions 160

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Questions 161

Which of the following BEST describes the role of the IT risk profile in strategic IT-related decisions?

Options:

A.

It compares performance levels of IT assets to value delivered.

B.

It facilitates the alignment of strategic IT objectives to business objectives.

C.

It provides input to business managers when preparing a business case for new IT projects.

D.

It helps assess the effects of IT decisions on risk exposure

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Questions 162

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization ' s threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

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Questions 163

An organization has recently updated its disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk if the new plan is not tested?

Options:

A.

External resources may need to be involved.

B.

Data privacy regulations may be violated.

C.

Recovery costs may increase significantly.

D.

Service interruptions may be longer than anticipated.

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Questions 164

A risk practitioner is evaluating policies defined by an organization as part of its IT security framework. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment with global security standards

B.

Inadequate policy enforcement

C.

Lack of a single repository for security procedures

D.

Increased cost for policy adoption

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Questions 165

A risk practitioner is reviewing accountability assignments for data risk in the risk register. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

The risk owner is not the control owner for associated data controls.

B.

The risk owner is in a business unit and does not report through the IT department.

C.

The risk owner is listed as the department responsible for decision-making.

D.

The risk owner is a staff member rather than a department manager.

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Questions 166

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor ' s public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor ' s responsibilities are defined in the contract.

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Questions 167

To communicate the risk associated with IT in business terms, which of the following MUST be defined?

Options:

A.

Compliance objectives

B.

Risk appetite of the organization

C.

Organizational objectives

D.

Inherent and residual risk

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Questions 168

In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?

Options:

A.

As a risk event

B.

As a risk scenario

C.

As an incident

D.

As an error

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Questions 169

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization ' s security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

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Questions 170

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization ' s approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

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Questions 172

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department ' s roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization ' s information security risk profile

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Questions 173

Read " rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:

Options:

A.

business process owner.

B.

database administrator.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

systems administrator.

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Questions 174

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Questions 175

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

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Questions 176

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

Options:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Questions 177

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

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Questions 178

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization ' s systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Questions 179

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 180

Which of the following provides the MOST insight regarding an organization ' s risk culture?

Options:

A.

Awareness training participation rate

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Senior management interviews

D.

Risk management framework

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Questions 181

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise ' s response

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Questions 182

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

Options:

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Questions 183

A financial organization is considering a project to implement the use of blockchain technology. To help ensure the organization ' s management team can make informed decisions on the project, which of the following should the risk practitioner reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk profile

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 184

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register.

B.

validating the risk scenarios.

C.

documenting the risk scenarios.

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

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Questions 185

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Questions 186

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

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Questions 187

As part of its risk strategy, an organization decided to transition its financial system from a cloud-based provider to an internally managed system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Reassess whether the risk responses properly address known risks and vulnerabilities

B.

Analyze the risk register to identify potential updates and changes

C.

Evaluate existing control test plans of the system for potential changes

D.

Update the processes within impacted financial control assessments

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Questions 188

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Questions 189

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

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Questions 190

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

Options:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

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Questions 191

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Questions 192

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

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Questions 193

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Questions 194

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

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Questions 195

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?

Options:

A.

Hot backup site

B.

Transaction limits

C.

Scalable infrastructure

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Questions 196

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to minimize the impact associated with the loss of key employees?

Options:

A.

Maintain and publish a RACI chart.

B.

Promote incentive programs.

C.

Perform succession planning.

D.

Develop a robust onboarding program.

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Questions 197

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Questions 198

An organization has experienced a cyber-attack that exposed customer personally identifiable information (Pll) and caused extended outages of network services. Which of the following stakeholders are MOST important to include in the cyber response team to determine response actions?

Options:

A.

Security control owners based on control failures

B.

Cyber risk remediation plan owners

C.

Risk owners based on risk impact

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) team

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Questions 199

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Questions 200

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Questions 201

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization ' s risk tolerance and appetite?

Options:

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Questions 202

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Questions 203

A business delegates its application data management to the internal IT team. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data custodians

C.

Data analysts

D.

Data owners

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Questions 204

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

Options:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

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Questions 205

When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:

Options:

A.

who owns the business process.

B.

the amount of residual risk.

C.

who is responsible for risk mitigation.

D.

the total cost of risk treatment.

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

Options:

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

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Questions 207

Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Human resources (HR)

C.

Risk management committee

D.

Audit committee

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Questions 208

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization ' s risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Questions 209

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gam insight into its overall risk profile ' '

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Threat landscape

D.

Risk metrics

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Questions 210

Which of the following BEST mitigates reputational risk associated with disinformation campaigns against an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitoring digital platforms that disseminate inaccurate or misleading news stories

B.

Engaging public relations personnel to debunk false stories and publications

C.

Restricting the use of social media on corporate networks during specific hours

D.

Providing awareness training to understand and manage these types of attacks

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Questions 211

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Questions 212

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

Options:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

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Questions 213

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

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Questions 214

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

Options:

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

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Questions 215

When implementing an IT risk management program, which of the following is the BEST time to evaluate current control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Before defining a framework

B.

During the risk assessment

C.

When evaluating risk response

D.

When updating the risk register

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Questions 216

Digital signatures are an effective control method for information exchange over an insecure network because they:

Options:

A.

authenticate the user biometrically.

B.

are under the sole custody of the receiver.

C.

are constant over time.

D.

enable nonrepudiation.

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Questions 217

When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization ' s risk appetite is through the use of a:

Options:

A.

risk map

B.

cause-and-effect diagram

C.

maturity model

D.

technology strategy plan.

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Questions 218

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

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Questions 219

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and enterprise risk management (ERM), it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Risk velocity.

C.

Risk response plans and owners.

D.

Risk impact and likelihood.

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Questions 220

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to link an effective key control indicator (KCI) to relevant key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

To monitor changes in the risk environment

B.

To provide input to management for the adjustment of risk appetite

C.

To monitor the accuracy of threshold levels in metrics

D.

To obtain business buy-in for investment in risk mitigation measures

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Questions 221

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s IT asset life cycle is poorly managed?

Options:

A.

Increased hardware maintenance costs

B.

Sensitive data found on discarded devices

C.

Lack of asset labeling

D.

Inadequate employee training

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Questions 222

An IT project risk was identified during a monthly steering committee meeting. Which of the following roles is BEST positioned to approve the risk mitigation response?

Options:

A.

Product owner

B.

IT manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Project coordinator

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Questions 223

Which of the following is MOST important when determining risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Assessing regulatory requirements

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Gaining management consensus

D.

Identifying risk tolerance

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Questions 224

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

Options:

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 225

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization ' s IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 226

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

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Questions 227

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

C.

Risk trends

D.

Risk objectives

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Questions 228

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce the potential for inappropriate exposure of vulnerabilities documented in an organization ' s risk register?

Options:

A.

Limit access to senior management only.

B.

Encrypt the risk register.

C.

Implement role-based access.

D.

Require users to sign a confidentiality agreement.

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Questions 229

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

Options:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.

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Questions 230

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization ' s management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization ' s vendor management office

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Questions 231

The use of multi-factor authentication (MFA) when applied to an FTP connection is an example of which type of control category?

Options:

A.

Compensating

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Corrective

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Questions 232

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Questions 233

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Questions 234

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Questions 235

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization ' s critical assets?

Options:

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

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Questions 236

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an assessment reveals a control is not operating as intended?

Options:

A.

Recommend updates to the control procedures

B.

Determine the root cause of the control issue.

C.

Discuss the status with the control owner.

D.

Recommend compensating controls.

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Questions 237

Which of the following is the BEST risk management approach for the strategic IT planning process?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are established to track IT strategic initiatives.

B.

The IT strategic plan is reviewed by the chief information security officer (CISO) and enterprise risk management (ERM).

C.

The IT strategic plan is developed from the organization-wide risk management plan.

D.

Risk scenarios associated with IT strategic initiatives are identified and assessed.

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Questions 238

Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?

Options:

A.

How severe the vulnerability is across the industry

B.

Whether the affected technology is internet-facing

C.

Whether the affected technology is used within the organization

D.

What mitigating controls are currently in place

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Questions 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Questions 240

Which of the following will BEST help to improve an organization ' s risk culture?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a documented risk register

B.

Establishing a risk awareness program

C.

Rewarding employees for reporting security incidents

D.

Allocating resources for risk remediation

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Questions 241

Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be:

Options:

A.

reflective of the lowest organizational level.

B.

a data feed taken directly from operational production systems.

C.

reported to management the same day data is collected.

D.

focused on providing a forward-looking view.

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Questions 242

A third-party vendor has offered to perform user access provisioning and termination. Which of the following control accountabilities is BEST retained within the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing access control lists

B.

Authorizing user access requests

C.

Performing user access recertification

D.

Terminating inactive user access

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Questions 243

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

Options:

A.

Organization ' s industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Questions 244

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

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Questions 245

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Questions 246

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 247

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when preparing a summary of current IT risk for senior management review?

Options:

A.

Changes in risk mitigation plans

B.

Resolution status of audit findings

C.

Areas of elevated risk

D.

Industry risk management benchmarks

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Questions 248

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization ' s disaster recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover from a major service disruption?

Options:

A.

An experienced and certified disaster recovery team

B.

A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests

C.

A comprehensive list of critical applications

D.

A defined recovery point objective (RPO)

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Questions 249

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner ' s NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

Options:

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Questions 250

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Questions 251

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

Options:

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Questions 252

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

Options:

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Questions 253

An organization is developing a risk awareness program for contractors and consultants. Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to keep confidential?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) threshold methodology

B.

Names of key cloud providers

C.

Unmitigated vulnerabilities

D.

Corporate security policies

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Questions 254

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 255

An organization ' s risk profile indicates that residual risk levels have fallen significantly below management ' s risk appetite. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Decrease monitoring of residual risk levels.

B.

Optimize controls.

C.

Increase risk appetite.

D.

Add more risk scenarios to the risk register.

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Questions 256

An external data source has released an advisory about a critical vulnerability affecting a widely used software application. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Advise application owners to patch affected software

B.

Determine organizational exposure

C.

Notify senior management of the critical vulnerability

D.

Review the incident response plan

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Questions 257

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

Options:

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Questions 258

The MOST important characteristic of an organization s policies is to reflect the organization ' s:

Options:

A.

risk assessment methodology.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

capabilities

D.

asset value.

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Questions 259

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

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Questions 260

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization ' s policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

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Questions 261

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 262

Which of the following is the FIRST step when identifying risk items related to a new IT project?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Review the IT control environment.

C.

Review the business case.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis.

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Questions 263

The risk associated with data loss from a website which contains sensitive customer information is BEST owned by:

Options:

A.

the third-party website manager

B.

the business process owner

C.

IT security

D.

the compliance manager

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Questions 264

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with local legislation because it has a higher priority.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop mitigation options.

C.

Terminate the current cloud contract and migrate to a local cloud provider.

D.

Accept the risk because foreign legislation does not apply to the organization.

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Questions 265

What is the BEST course of action when the business impact of a risk event is rated high, but the likelihood of risk materialization has decreased?

Options:

A.

Adjust risk tolerance thresholds.

B.

Adjust the associated key risk indicator (KRI).

C.

Further mitigate the risk.

D.

Accept the risk if within tolerance.

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Questions 266

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

Options:

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Questions 267

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Questions 268

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

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Questions 269

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Questions 270

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

Options:

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 271

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

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Questions 272

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

Options:

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

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Questions 273

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

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Questions 274

The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:

Options:

A.

ensure policy and regulatory compliance.

B.

assess the proliferation of new threats.

C.

verify Internet firewall control settings.

D.

identify vulnerabilities in the system.

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Questions 275

When prioritizing risk response, management should FIRST:

Options:

A.

evaluate the organization s ability and expertise to implement the solution.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar organizations.

C.

address high risk factors that have efficient and effective solutions.

D.

determine which risk factors have high remediation costs

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Questions 276

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Questions 277

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

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Questions 278

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Questions 279

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Questions 280

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

Options:

A.

Organization ' s information security manager

B.

Organization ' s risk function

C.

Service provider ' s IT management

D.

Service provider ' s information security manager

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Questions 281

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Questions 282

A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Define information retention requirements and policies

B.

Provide information security awareness training

C.

Establish security management processes and procedures

D.

Establish an inventory of information assets

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Questions 283

Which of the following management action will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

B.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication

D.

Updating remote desktop software

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Questions 284

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Questions 285

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

Options:

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary ' s legal team.

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Questions 286

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 287

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Questions 288

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

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Questions 289

A compensating control is MOST appropriate when:

Options:

A.

Management wants to increase the number of controls.

B.

A vulnerability is identified.

C.

Existing controls are inadequate.

D.

A key control is already in place and operating effectively.

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Questions 290

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

Options:

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Questions 291

An organization is implementing encryption for data at rest to reduce the risk associated with unauthorized access. Which of the following MUST be considered to assess the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Data retention requirements

B.

Data destruction requirements

C.

Cloud storage architecture

D.

Key management

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Questions 292

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

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Questions 293

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

Options:

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Questions 294

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

Options:

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

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Questions 295

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

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Questions 296

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

Options:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Questions 297

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

Options:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

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Questions 298

A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:

Options:

A.

map findings to objectives.

B.

provide quantified detailed analysis

C.

recommend risk tolerance thresholds.

D.

quantify key risk indicators (KRls).

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Questions 299

A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Include an indemnification clause in the provider ' s contract.

B.

Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).

C.

Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.

D.

Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.

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Questions 300

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

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Questions 301

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

Options:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Questions 302

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting risk indicators (KRIs)? The ability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor the performance of a process

B.

Assess the risk associated with risk scenarios

C.

Measure changes in the threat landscape

D.

Refine the organization’s risk appetite

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Questions 303

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization ' s secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Questions 304

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

Options:

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization ' s technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Questions 305

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application?

Options:

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

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Questions 306

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

Options:

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Questions 307

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

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Questions 308

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

Options:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

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Questions 309

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

Options:

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Questions 310

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Questions 311

A key risk indicator (KRI) indicates a reduction in the percentage of appropriately patched servers. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine changes in the risk level.

B.

Outsource the vulnerability management process.

C.

Review the patch management process.

D.

Add agenda item to the next risk committee meeting.

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Questions 312

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

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Questions 313

An organization’s expense claim system allows users to split large transactions into smaller ones to bypass limits. What should the risk practitioner do?

Options:

A.

Conduct an audit to determine the frequency of occurrence

B.

Update the probability in the risk register

C.

Create a noncompliance risk scenario

D.

Weigh compliance against the cost-benefit

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Questions 314

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

Options:

A.

Develop a risk treatment plan.

B.

Validate organizational risk appetite.

C.

Review results of prior risk assessments.

D.

Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

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Questions 315

Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?

Options:

A.

The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset

B.

The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines

C.

The length of time between identification and containment of the incident

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Questions 316

The FIRST step for a startup company when developing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be to identify:

Options:

A.

Current vulnerabilities

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Critical business processes

D.

A suitable alternate site

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Questions 317

Which of the following is accountable for the management of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Business process owners

C.

Second line

D.

Internal audit

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Questions 318

Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signature

B.

Edit checks

C.

Encryption

D.

Multifactor authentication

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Questions 319

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

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Questions 320

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

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Questions 321

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization ' s secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

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Questions 322

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 323

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

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Questions 324

An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:

Options:

A.

increased inherent risk.

B.

higher risk management cost

C.

decreased residual risk.

D.

lower risk management cost.

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Questions 325

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Questions 326

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are BEST utilized to provide a high-level overview of:

Options:

A.

control efficiency

B.

cost effectiveness

C.

return on investment (ROI)

D.

changes in risk tolerance

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Questions 327

One of an organization ' s key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization ' s IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Questions 328

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

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Questions 329

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Questions 330

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

Options:

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

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Questions 331

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk associated with using cloud computing for disaster recovery?

Options:

A.

Cloud vendor lock-in and dependency

B.

Lack of adequate incident management capabilities

C.

Use of multiple cloud access service brokers (CASBs)

D.

Availability issues with cloud storage solutions

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Questions 332

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

Options:

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Questions 333

Which of the following will be MOST effective to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices?

Options:

A.

An acceptable use policy for personal devices

B.

Required user log-on before synchronizing data

C.

Enforced authentication and data encryption

D.

Security awareness training and testing

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Questions 334

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

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Questions 335

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether external emerging risk factors will impact the organization ' s risk profile?

Options:

A.

Control identification and mitigation

B.

Adoption of a compliance-based approach

C.

Prevention and detection techniques

D.

Scenario analysis and stress testing

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Questions 336

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when selecting appropriate protection for data?

Options:

A.

Business objectives

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Data access requirements

D.

Data classification

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Questions 337

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

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Questions 338

Which of the following would be the GREATEST challenge when implementing a corporate risk framework for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk controls

B.

Business continuity

C.

Risk taxonomy

D.

Management support

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Questions 339

Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?

Options:

A.

Review of user access logs

B.

Frequent password expiration

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Questions 340

Which of the following should be used as the PRIMARY basis for evaluating the state of an organization ' s cloud computing environment against leading practices?

Options:

A.

The cloud environment ' s capability maturity model

B.

The cloud environment ' s risk register

C.

The cloud computing architecture

D.

The organization ' s strategic plans for cloud computing

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Questions 341

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Questions 342

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

Options:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

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Questions 343

A threat intelligence team has identified an indicator of compromise related to an advanced persistent threat (APT) actor. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the most recent vulnerability scanning report.

B.

Determine the business criticality of the asset.

C.

Determine the adequacy of existing security controls.

D.

Review prior security incidents related to the asset.

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Questions 344

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

Options:

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Questions 345

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Questions 346

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Questions 347

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Questions 348

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

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Questions 349

During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Development

C.

Implementation

D.

Initiation

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Questions 350

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

Options:

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

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Questions 351

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization ' s risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Questions 352

Quantifying the value of a single asset helps the organization to understand the:

Options:

A.

overall effectiveness of risk management

B.

consequences of risk materializing

C.

necessity of developing a risk strategy,

D.

organization s risk threshold.

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Questions 353

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise ' s current appetite for risk?

Options:

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Questions 354

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization ' s change management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

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Questions 355

After the implementation of a blockchain solution, a risk practitioner discovers noncompliance with new industry regulations. Which of the following is the MOST important course of actionpriorto informing senior management?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the design effectiveness of existing controls.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Evaluate the industry response to the new regulations.

D.

Evaluate the potential impact.

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Questions 356

A payroll manager discovers that fields in certain payroll reports have been modified without authorization. Which of the following control weaknesses could have contributed MOST to this problem?

Options:

A.

The user requirements were not documented.

B.

Payroll files were not under the control of a librarian.

C.

The programmer had access to the production programs.

D.

The programmer did not involve the user in testing.

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Questions 357

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Questions 358

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

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Questions 359

Which of the following BEST enables the risk profile to serve as an effective resource to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Engaging external risk professionals to periodically review the risk

B.

Prioritizing global standards over local requirements in the risk profile

C.

Updating the risk profile with risk assessment results

D.

Assigning quantitative values to qualitative metrics in the risk register

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Questions 360

Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?

Options:

A.

Risk responsibilities are addressed.

B.

Risk-related information is communicated.

C.

Risk-oriented tasks are defined.

D.

Business process risk is analyzed.

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Questions 361

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

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Questions 362

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit to an organization that is using threat intelligence?

Options:

A.

Timely insight into potential threats

B.

Automated vulnerability management

C.

Accurate threat information

D.

Verification of threat information

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Questions 363

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 364

An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?

Options:

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk strategy

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 365

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

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Questions 366

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to examine a post-implementation review report for a control automation tool?

Options:

A.

To verify that budget for the project is managed effectively

B.

To confirm compliance with project management methodology

C.

To ensure the risk is managed to an acceptable level

D.

To ensure audit findings are addressed in a timely manner

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Questions 367

Several vulnerabilities have been identified in an organization’s core financial systems. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the associated risk.

B.

Determine the cost of remediation.

C.

Initiate the incident response plan.

D.

Remediate the vulnerabilities.

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Questions 368

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Questions 369

The percentage of unpatched systems is a:

Options:

A.

threat vector.

B.

critical success factor (CSF).

C.

key performance indicator (KPI).

D.

key risk indicator (KRI).

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Questions 370

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Questions 371

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

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Questions 372

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

Options:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization ' s vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Questions 373

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority when developing a response plan for risk assessment results?

Options:

A.

Risk that has been untreated

B.

Items with a high inherent risk

C.

Items with the highest likelihood of occurrence

D.

Risk that exceeds risk appetite

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Questions 374

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

Options:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Questions 375

An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.

C.

Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.

D.

Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained

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Questions 376

Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Verifying that project objectives are met

B.

Identifying project cost overruns

C.

Leveraging an independent review team

D.

Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix

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Questions 377

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

Options:

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Questions 378

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

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Questions 379

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

Options:

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

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Questions 380

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

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Questions 381

Which of the following is MOST important to review when determining whether a potential IT service provider’s control environment is effective?

Options:

A.

Independent audit report

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

MOST important to update when an

D.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

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Questions 382

During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?

Options:

A.

Test system reliability and performance.

B.

Adopt an Agile development approach.

C.

Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).

D.

Adopt a phased changeover approach.

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Questions 383

Which of the following occurs during the implementation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of updated coding into production

B.

Collaboration with stakeholders to gather system requirements

C.

Development of architectural designs based on system requirements

D.

Formal authorization for deploying the system into production

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Questions 384

Which of the following will be MOST effective in helping to ensure control failures are appropriately managed?

Options:

A.

Control procedures

B.

Peer review

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Control ownership

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Questions 385

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 386

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Questions 387

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Optimizing utilization of personnel

B.

Detecting control errors in a timely manner

C.

Aligning operations with policies and procedures

D.

Minimizing the magnitude of loss from an event

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Questions 388

Which of the following should be initiated when a high number of noncompliant conditions are observed during review of a control procedure?

Options:

A.

Disciplinary action

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

A review of the awareness program

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 389

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?

Options:

A.

To provide data for establishing the risk profile

B.

To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies

C.

To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur

D.

To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness

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Questions 390

After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:

Options:

A.

residual risk.

B.

aggregated risk.

C.

audit risk.

D.

inherent risk.

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Questions 391

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Questions 392

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

Options:

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 393

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

Options:

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

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Questions 394

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in the organization ' s risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

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Questions 395

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization ' s defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Questions 396

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

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Questions 397

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

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Questions 398

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s software testing program?

Options:

A.

Average time to complete software test cases

B.

Percentage of applications with defined business cases

C.

Number of incidents resulting from software changes

D.

Percentage of staff completing software development training

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Questions 399

Which of the following will BEST support management repotting on risk?

Options:

A.

Risk policy requirements

B.

A risk register

C.

Control self-assessment

D.

Key performance Indicators

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Questions 400

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

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Questions 401

Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?

Options:

A.

Approval of the control by senior management

B.

Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives

C.

Control owner attestation of control effectiveness

D.

Internal audit review of control design

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Questions 402

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

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Questions 403

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

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Questions 404

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

Options:

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Questions 405

When determining the accuracy of a key risk indicator (KRI), it is MOST important that the indicator:

Options:

A.

is correlated to risk and tracks variances in the risk.

B.

is assigned to IT processes and projects with a low level of risk.

C.

has a high correlation with the process outcome.

D.

triggers response based on risk thresholds.

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Questions 406

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Questions 407

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

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Questions 408

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 409

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Enroll the employee in additional security training.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Conduct an internal audit.

D.

Instruct the vendor to delete the data.

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Questions 410

While reviewing an organization ' s monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

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Questions 411

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

Options:

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 412

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization ' s internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

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Questions 413

An organization ' s risk tolerance should be defined and approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief risk officer (CRO)

B.

The board of directors

C.

The chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 414

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

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Questions 415

A risk practitioner is conducting a risk assessment after discovering the use of unauthorized cloud software on personal devices to accomplish work-related tasks. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the effectiveness of controls to prevent data loss.

B.

Develop a policy standard for conducting business using personal devices.

C.

Recommend blocking downloads of unauthorized software.

D.

Identify the business need for the unauthorized software.

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Questions 416

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

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Questions 417

Options:

A.

Average time to contain security incidents

B.

Percentage of systems being monitored

C.

Number of false positives reported

D.

Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

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Questions 418

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Questions 419

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO ' s decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

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Questions 420

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements(SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Questions 421

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

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Questions 422

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

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Questions 423

An organization operates in a jurisdiction where heavy fines are imposed for leakage of customer data. Which of the following provides the BEST input to assess the inherent risk impact?

Options:

A.

Number of customer records held

B.

Number of databases that host customer data

C.

Number of encrypted customer databases

D.

Number of staff members having access to customer data

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Questions 424

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 425

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Questions 426

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

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Questions 427

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Questions 428

When developing a new risk register, a risk practitioner should focus on which of the following risk management activities?

Options:

A.

Risk management strategy planning

B.

Risk monitoring and control

C.

Risk identification

D.

Risk response planning

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Questions 429

Which of the following is MOST important to sustainable development of secure IT services?

Options:

A.

Security training for systems development staff

B.

\Well-documented business cases

C.

Security architecture principles

D.

Secure coding practices

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Questions 430

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Creating a data classification scheme

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations

C.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

D.

Identifying critical information assets

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Questions 431

An organization recently invested in an identity and access management (IAM) solution to manage user activities across corporate mobile devices. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Questions 432

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 433

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when determining the control requirements for data privacy arising from emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

internal audit recommendations

B.

Laws and regulations

C.

Policies and procedures

D.

Standards and frameworks

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Questions 434

The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:

Options:

A.

design of appropriate controls.

B.

industry benchmarking of controls.

C.

prioritization of response efforts.

D.

classification of information assets.

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Questions 435

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner ' s NEXT action?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

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Questions 436

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

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Questions 437

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

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Questions 438

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

Options:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

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Questions 439

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

Options:

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Questions 440

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?

Options:

A.

A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite

B.

A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization

C.

A control function within the risk management team

D.

An organization-wide risk awareness training program

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Questions 441

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Questions 442

An organization is considering modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments. To reduce the risk of data exposure, which of the following should the organization do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Update the security strategy.

C.

Implement additional controls.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 443

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 444

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the organization ' s risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management ' s intent

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Questions 445

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

Options:

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Questions 446

Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?

Options:

A.

Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk

B.

Test approval process controls once the project is completed

C.

Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes

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Questions 447

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

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Questions 448

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address new risk associated with an Internet of Things (IoT) solution?

Options:

A.

Transferring the risk

B.

Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle

C.

Updating the risk tolerance to include the new risk

D.

Implementing IoT device monitoring software

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Questions 449

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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Questions 450

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

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Questions 451

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

Options:

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Questions 452

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

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Questions 453

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

Options:

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

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Questions 454

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

Options:

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Questions 455

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Questions 456

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use key control indicators (KCIs) to evaluate control operating effectiveness?

Options:

A.

To measure business exposure to risk

B.

To identify control vulnerabilities

C.

To monitor the achievement of set objectives

D.

To raise awareness of operational issues

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Questions 457

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Questions 458

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

Options:

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

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Questions 459

An organization is revising its IT security policy. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help ensure the policy is followed?

Options:

A.

Develop a policy socialization and awareness strategy.

B.

Implement technical controls to monitor for policy violations.

C.

Benchmark the policy against industry peers.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the old and new policy.

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Questions 460

Which of the following management actions will MOST likely change the likelihood rating of a risk scenario related to remote network access?

Options:

A.

Creating metrics to track remote connections

B.

Updating remote desktop software

C.

Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Updating the organizational policy for remote access

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Questions 461

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 462

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization ' s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

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Questions 463

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Questions 464

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

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Questions 465

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

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Questions 466

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify weaknesses in an organization ' s technical environment that could be leveraged by an attacker to gain access?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Red team exercises

C.

System testing

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

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Questions 467

Which of the following should be reported periodically to the risk committee?

Options:

A.

System risk and control matrix

B.

Emerging IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes to risk assessment methodology

D.

Audit committee charter

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Questions 468

An organization ' s capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

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Questions 469

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

Options:

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Questions 470

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

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Questions 471

Which of the following scenarios is MOST important to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Accepted risk scenarios with detailed plans for monitoring

B.

Risk scenarios that have been shared with vendors and third parties

C.

Accepted risk scenarios with impact exceeding the risk tolerance

D.

Risk scenarios that have been identified, assessed, and responded to by the risk owners

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Questions 472

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

Options:

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Questions 473

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?

Options:

A.

Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.

B.

Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.

C.

Enable audit logging on the digital wallet ' s device.

D.

Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.

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Questions 474

Which of me following is MOST helpful to mitigate the risk associated with an application under development not meeting business objectives?

Options:

A.

Identifying tweets that may compromise enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Including diverse Business scenarios in user acceptance testing (UAT)

C.

Performing risk assessments during the business case development stage

D.

Including key stakeholders in review of user requirements

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Questions 475

Which of the following is the MOST effective way lo ensure professional ethics are maintained as a core organizational value and adhered to by employees?

Options:

A.

Include professional ethics in the corporate value statement.

B.

Establish a channel for employees to report unethical behavior.

C.

Include professional ethics criteria as part of performance appraisals.

D.

Establish a code of conduct document for employees to sign.

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Questions 476

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 477

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Questions 478

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

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Questions 479

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when analyzing the risk associated with migrating to a new cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

The cloud service provider ' s control environment

B.

The complexity of the cloud services

C.

The date of the cloud service provider ' s last risk assessment

D.

Past incidents related to acquired cloud services

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Questions 480

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

Options:

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Questions 481

A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?

Options:

A.

The team that performed the risk assessment

B.

An assigned risk manager to provide oversight

C.

Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment

D.

The methodology used to perform the risk assessment

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Questions 482

Before selecting a final risk response option for a given risk scenario, management should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine control ownership.

B.

evaluate the risk response of similar sized organizations.

C.

evaluate the organization ' s ability to implement the solution.

D.

determine the remediation timeline.

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Questions 483

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

Options:

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

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Questions 484

Which of the following has the MOST validity for conducting risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Internal control effectiveness measured through inference from external assessment

B.

Control effectiveness determined through subject matter expertise estimation

C.

Inferences of internal control effectiveness from peer reports

D.

Internal control effectiveness measured through direct testing

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Questions 485

An organization is considering outsourcing user administration controls tor a critical system. The potential vendor has offered to perform quarterly sett-audits of its controls instead of having annual independent audits. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to me risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The controls may not be properly tested

B.

The vendor will not ensure against control failure

C.

The vendor will not achieve best practices

D.

Lack of a risk-based approach to access control

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Questions 486

A software developer has administrative access to a production application. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The administrative access does not allow for activity log monitoring.

B.

The administrative access does not follow password management protocols.

C.

The administrative access represents a deviation from corporate policy.

D.

The administrative access represents a segregation of duties conflict.

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Questions 487

A PRIMARY function of the risk register is to provide supporting information for the development of an organization ' s risk:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

profile.

C.

process.

D.

map.

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Questions 488

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

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Questions 489

A new software package that could help mitigate risk in an organization has become available. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Review industry best practice.

D.

Review risk governance policies.

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Questions 490

To help ensure the success of a major IT project, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

obtain the appropriate stakeholders ' commitment.

B.

align the project with the IT risk framework.

C.

obtain approval from business process owners.

D.

update the risk register on a regular basis.

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Questions 491

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

Options:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Questions 492

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

Options:

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

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Questions 493

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Questions 494

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Questions 495

A failed IT system upgrade project has resulted in the corruption of an organization ' s asset inventory database. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates the impact of this incident?

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Authentication

C.

Configuration

D.

Backups

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Questions 496

Which of the following BEST indicates that a control has been implemented successfully?

Options:

A.

The control implementation has been signed off by management.

B.

The residual risk within the organization has been reduced.

C.

The inherent risk is within the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

The control has been documented in business process maps.

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Questions 497

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Questions 498

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

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Questions 499

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 500

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

Options:

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Questions 501

Which of the following BEST prevents unauthorized access to customer personal data transmitted to third-party service providers?

Options:

A.

Reviewing and testing service providers ' business continuity plans (BCPs)

B.

Ensuring service providers comply with laws and regulations

C.

Implementing and reviewing data sharing controls

D.

Requiring service providers to report privacy breaches

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Questions 502

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Questions 503

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

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Questions 504

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization ' s information security policy.

C.

validate the organization ' s data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Questions 505

Which of the following BEST enables senior management lo compare the ratings of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Risk heat map

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Questions 506

During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Implement continuous monitoring.

B.

Require a second level of approval.

C.

Implement separation of duties.

D.

Require a code of ethics.

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Questions 507

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

Options:

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

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Questions 508

Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:

Options:

A.

systemic risk

B.

residual risk

C.

inherent risk

D.

control risk

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Questions 509

The MOST important objective of information security controls is to:

Options:

A.

Identify threats and vulnerability

B.

Ensure alignment with industry standards

C.

Provide measurable risk reduction

D.

Enforce strong security solutions

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Questions 510

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control?

Options:

A.

Scope of the control coverage

B.

The number of exceptions granted

C.

Number of steps necessary to operate process

D.

Number of control deviations detected

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Questions 511

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

Options:

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Questions 512

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

Options:

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

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Questions 513

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

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Questions 514

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

Options:

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

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Questions 515

Following a review of a third-party vendor, it is MOST important for an organization to ensure:

Options:

A.

results of the review are accurately reported to management.

B.

identified findings are reviewed by the organization.

C.

results of the review are validated by internal audit.

D.

identified findings are approved by the vendor.

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Questions 516

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Vulnerability analysis

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Scenario analysis

C.

Heat map analysis

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Questions 517

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

Options:

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 518

An organization has established a policy prohibiting ransom payments if subjected to a ransomware attack. Which of the following is the MOST effective control to support this policy?

Options:

A.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

B.

Creating immutable backups

C.

Performing required patching

D.

Implementing continuous intrusion detection monitoring

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Questions 519

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

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Questions 520

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

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Questions 521

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

Options:

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

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Questions 522

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine whether new controls mitigate security gaps in a business system?

Options:

A.

Complete an offsite business continuity exercise.

B.

Conduct a compliance check against standards.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Measure the change in inherent risk.

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Questions 523

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 524

Which of the following would MOST likely result in agreement on accountability for risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Using a facilitated risk management workshop

B.

Relying on generic risk scenarios

C.

Relying on external IT risk professionals

D.

Distributing predefined scenarios for review

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Questions 525

Which of the following introduces the GREATEST amount of risk during the software development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Use of debugging tools

B.

Incorrect firewall configuration

C.

Inability to pass user acceptance tests (UATs)

D.

Untested changes to production

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Questions 526

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an organization to include an acceptable use banner when users log in?

Options:

A.

To reduce the likelihood of insider threat

B.

To eliminate the possibility of insider threat

C.

To enable rapid discovery of insider threat

D.

To reduce the impact of insider threat

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Questions 527

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

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Questions 528

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Questions 529

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization ' s risk management processes are mature?

Options:

A.

Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager

B.

Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners

C.

Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions

D.

The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans

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Questions 530

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a recovery point objective (RPO)?

Options:

A.

Latency of the alternate site

B.

Amount of acceptable data loss

C.

Time and resources for offsite backups

D.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 531

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful to a risk practitioner when updating the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk control assessment

B.

Audit reports with risk ratings

C.

Penetration test results

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 532

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization ' s adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

Options:

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Questions 533

To help ensure all applicable risk scenarios are incorporated into the risk register, it is MOST important to review the:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation approach

B.

cost-benefit analysis.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

vulnerability assessment results

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Questions 534

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

Options:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Questions 535

The GREATEST concern when maintaining a risk register is that:

Options:

A.

impacts are recorded in qualitative terms.

B.

executive management does not perform periodic reviews.

C.

IT risk is not linked with IT assets.

D.

significant changes in risk factors are excluded.

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Questions 536

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Remove the associated risk from the register.

B.

Validate control effectiveness and update the risk register.

C.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs).

D.

Obtain an assurance report from the third-party provider.

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Questions 537

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization ' s end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Questions 538

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

Options:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

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Questions 539

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Questions 540

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

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Questions 541

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Questions 542

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization ' s use of AI technology?

Options:

A.

The AI system ' s contract does not include a right-to-audit clause

B.

The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose

C.

The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure

D.

The AI system results have not been validated

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Questions 543

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

Options:

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Questions 544

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?

Options:

A.

To ensure enterprise-wide risk management

B.

To establish control ownership

C.

To enable a comprehensive view of risk

D.

To identify key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 545

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

Options:

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

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Questions 546

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in the performance of the control environment?

Options:

A.

Evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs).

B.

Perform a control self-assessment (CSA).

C.

Implement continuous monitoring.

D.

Adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 547

Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to change the likelihood rating in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Control cost

C.

Control effectiveness

D.

Risk tolerance

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Questions 548

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

Options:

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Questions 549

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Questions 550

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to engage business unit managers in risk management processes ' ?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment will technical risk

B.

Better-informed business decisions

C.

Enhanced understanding of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Improved business operations efficiency

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Questions 551

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

Options:

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Questions 552

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 553

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 554

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

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Questions 555

Which of the following is the MOST important factor when deciding on a control to mitigate risk exposure?

Options:

A.

Relevance to the business process

B.

Regulatory compliance requirements

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Comparison against best practice

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Questions 556

A risk practitioner has discovered a deficiency in a critical system that cannot be patched. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report the issue to internal audit.

B.

Submit a request to change management.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment.

D.

Review the business impact assessment.

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Questions 557

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

Options:

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

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Questions 558

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Cyber insurance coverage

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Questions 559

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Perform quantitative risk analysis of historical data.

B.

Adopt an industry-recognized risk framework.

C.

Use qualitative risk assessment methodologies.

D.

Conduct brainstorming sessions with key stakeholders.

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Questions 560

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

Options:

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Questions 561

Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Continuous monitoring and alerting

C.

Configuration management

D.

Access controls and active logging

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Questions 562

An organization ' s stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Questions 563

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

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Questions 564

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Questions 565

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

Options:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Questions 566

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

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Questions 567

An organization ' s control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Questions 568

Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Risk practitioner

C.

Compliance manager

D.

Control owner

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Questions 569

Options:

A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

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Questions 570

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?

Options:

A.

Fewer security incidents have been reported.

B.

The number of audit findings has decreased.

C.

Residual risk is reduced.

D.

inherent risk Is unchanged.

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Questions 571

Options:

A.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

B.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

C.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Communicate the new risk profile.

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Questions 572

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

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Questions 573

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

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Questions 574

The PRIMARY benefit of selecting an appropriate set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

Options:

A.

serve as a basis for measuring risk appetite.

B.

align with the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

provide a warning of emerging high-risk conditions.

D.

provide data for updating the risk register.

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Questions 575

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

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Questions 576

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

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Questions 577

Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the

use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?

Options:

A.

Al systems need to be available continuously.

B.

Al systems can be affected by bias.

C.

Al systems are expensive to maintain.

D.

Al systems can provide false positives.

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Questions 578

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Questions 579

A risk practitioner has observed that risk owners have approved a high number of exceptions to the information security policy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Security policies are being reviewed infrequently.

B.

Controls are not operating efficiently.

C.

Vulnerabilities are not being mitigated

D.

Aggregate risk is approaching the tolerance threshold

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Exam Code: CRISC
Exam Name: Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control
Last Update: Apr 9, 2026
Questions: 1938
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