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CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An indemnification clause in a contract is designed to

Options:

A.

create a forum to resolve contract disputes related to fulfillment of the contract terms.

B.

hold the other party responsible for fulfilling the terms of the contract.

C.

defer all legal costs to the other party in the case of harm, liability, or loss.

D.

clarify commitments to compensate the other party for harm, liability, or loss.

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Questions 5

An organization's CEO has requested that the risk manager develop policies and procedures for the risk management department. The risk manager should consider developing policies for all of the following EXCEPT

Options:

A.

coordination of responses to subpoenas.

B.

departmental accountability for occurrence reporting.

C.

risk management reporting process to the governing body.

D.

responses to freedom of information requests.

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Questions 6

An original contract could contain:

Options:

A.

Effective date, insurance requirements, and contract terms

B.

Only a logo and slogan

C.

Only verbal promises

D.

Only a price estimate without scope

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Questions 7

Protecting outdoor air intakes can mitigate the risk of terrorists introducing airborne agents. Steps include:

Options:

A.

Relocate intakes higher; establish a security zone; add lighting and surveillance

B.

Paint the intake vents a different color

C.

Put a “No trespassing” sign only

D.

Reduce HVAC maintenance

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Questions 8

When conducting a safety audit in an Emergency Department, what does an administrator need to obtain first?

Options:

A.

A written set of safety standards/criteria for the audit

B.

A marketing plan

C.

A list of staff birthdays

D.

A patient satisfaction script

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Questions 9

Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?

Options:

A.

written medical record request from an attorney

B.

demand letter from a patient

C.

internal incident report

D.

disclosure to a patient

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Questions 10

The due diligence process in acquisitions is undertaken to:

Options:

A.

Reduce unanticipated costs and risks; support valuation and post-acquisition performance

B.

Hide liabilities

C.

Avoid reviewing contracts

D.

Remove compliance requirements

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the most reliable measure of the effectiveness of an educational program?

Options:

A.

analysis of written evaluations

B.

observable changes in human behavior

C.

reduced frequency of claims or suits

D.

reduced severity of claims or suits

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Questions 12

Aside from clinical risk exposures, which of the following should be evaluated as part of a risk assessment concerning telemedicine?

Options:

A.

operational

B.

behavioral

C.

public awareness

D.

financial

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Questions 13

Which type of information was associated with the former HIPDB (now within NPDB) but not the original NPDB focus?

Options:

A.

Fraud/abuse-related actions and exclusions involving providers/suppliers (HIPDB purpose)

B.

Restaurant health inspections

C.

Public voter registration files

D.

School disciplinary actions

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Questions 14

Which of the following can be considered evidence in a malpractice claim?

    photographs of injuries

    thank you note from the patient to the physician

    patient journal of the hospital stay

    gift from the patient to a volunteer

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 15

Ultimately, the accountability for the risk management program belongs to:

Options:

A.

The board

B.

The gift shop manager

C.

A single bedside nurse

D.

The parking contractor

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Questions 16

What factors are included in a calculation of Risk Priority Number (RPN) in FMEA?

Options:

A.

Severity, occurrence (probability), detection

B.

Cost, staff satisfaction, marketing risk

C.

Legal privilege, media attention, reputation

D.

Insurance premiums, deductibles, coinsurance

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Questions 17

Which of the following best describes the appropriate scope of a risk manager's involvement in community disaster preparedness?

Options:

A.

Analyze liability risks arising from patient harm sustained due to strained or inadequate resources during a mass-casualty event.

B.

Incorporate emergency management into a comprehensive enterprise risk management plan designed to conserve and protect organizational assets.

C.

Quantify risk exposures associated with implementing the disaster plan.

D.

Calculate the value of human resources, equipment, and supplies consumed, with reimbursement to be obtained from FEMA.

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Questions 18

A hospital has opted to open an anticoagulation clinic. As this is a high-risk medication, a risk manager wants to conduct a risk assessment before opening the clinic. The BEST tool to use would be a

Options:

A.

root cause analysis RCA.

B.

failure mode and effects analysis FMEA.

C.

cause and effect diagram.

D.

scatter diagram.

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Questions 19

A risk manager is investigating a claim that has been submitted to the malpractice carrier. There is some question as to whether or not there is coverage under the current malpractice policy. What might the risk manager expect to receive from the malpractice carrier?

Options:

A.

contingent acknowledgement of coverage

B.

reservation of rights letter

C.

notice of right to deny coverage

D.

notice of right to rescind

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Questions 20

In enterprise risk management, which of the following are external factors that may affect risk?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 21

An indemnification clause in a contract is designed to

Options:

A.

create a forum to resolve contract disputes related to fulfillment of the contract terms.

B.

hold the other party responsible for fulfilling the terms of the contract.

C.

defer all legal costs to the other party in the case of harm, liability, or loss.

D.

clarify commitments to compensate the other party for harm, liability, or loss.

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Questions 22

The reporting requirements of the Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA apply to which of the following?

    nursing homes

    physician offices

    ambulatory surgery

    hospitals

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 23

Which condition must be met for a patient to no longer be protected by EMTALA obligations of the hospital?

Options:

A.

The patient provides a caregiver contact for discharge

B.

The patient is admittedin good faithas an inpatient (or is stabilized/appropriately transferred as applicable)

C.

The patient signs a satisfaction survey

D.

The patient receives a diagnosis code

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Questions 24

A hospital’s blood transfusions are99.7% error-free. Which function best estimates how many transfusions are likely before an error occurs?

Options:

A.

Geometric distribution (time until first failure)

B.

Multinomial distribution

C.

Chi-square test

D.

Linear regression

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Questions 25

The set of values, norms, guiding beliefs, and understandings that is shared by members of a healthcare organization and is taught to new members is

Options:

A.

organizational culture.

B.

corporate vision.

C.

managerial ethics.

D.

strategic mission.

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Questions 26

Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?

Options:

A.

pre-employment background screening, training, rounding, and active shooter drills

B.

de-escalation, law enforcement notification, restraining order, and victim support

C.

notification to Drug Enforcement Agency of drug theft and crisis intervention

D.

medical record documentation of events and emergency command center activation

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Questions 27

An emergency department physician has evaluated and stabilized a patient who needs a sign language interpreter. The on-call physician is consulted for admission. Which of the following regulatory laws are most relevant?

Options:

A.

ADA and EMTALA/COBRA

B.

HCQIA and ADA

C.

EMTALA/COBRA and HIPAA

D.

HIPAA and HCQIA

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Questions 28

What is a best-practice early objective in a disclosure-and-resolution conversation after an adverse event?

Options:

A.

Delay communication until legal discovery is complete

B.

Provide timely explanation of what is known, express empathy/apology, and commit to prevention steps

C.

Blame an individual staff member immediately

D.

Provide no information to avoid lawsuits

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Questions 29

An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is

Options:

A.

an arbitration.

B.

a mediation.

C.

a jury trial.

D.

a judge trial.

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Questions 30

A sentinel event is a patient safety event that reaches the patient and results in which of the following?

Options:

A.

death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm

B.

death, temporary harm, or moderate harm

C.

permanent harm, severe temporary harm, or temporary harm

D.

severe temporary harm, moderate harm, or increased length of stay

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Questions 31

A healthcare entity has a large fleet of vehicles driven by employees. What is the minimum required documentation the entity should obtain for each driver on an annual basis?

Options:

A.

mileage log

B.

driving record

C.

driver training

D.

proof of insurance

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Questions 32

A risk manager is reviewing the professional liability insurance policy for the limits of liability. Which of the following should the risk manager review FIRST?

Options:

A.

conditions

B.

exclusions

C.

declaration

D.

insuring agreement

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Questions 33

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

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Questions 34

What are the types of quality problems identified by the Institute of Medicine’s Roundtable on Health Care Quality?

Options:

A.

Misuse, overuse, and underuse

B.

Abuse, fraud, and waste

C.

Timeliness, equity, and efficiency

D.

Access, cost, and satisfaction

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Questions 35

Which of the following are common techniques used to include patients and families in programs to educate patients about their safety?

    lay persons on select committees

    patient education opportunities

    patient events referred for peer review

    event reporting by patients and families

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Exam Code: CPHRM
Exam Name: Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 119
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