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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Conduct an internal audit

C.

Conduct penetration testing

D.

Prepare compensating controls

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Questions 5

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

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Questions 6

When evaluating cloud storage solutions, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) for encryption keys

B.

Alignment with the organization’s data classification policy

C.

How the organization’s sensitive data will be transferred

D.

The volume of data to be stored in the cloud

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for an organization to communicate to affected parties that a security incident has occurred?

Options:

A.

To improve awareness of information security

B.

To disclose the root cause of the incident

C.

To increase goodwill toward the organization

D.

To comply with regulations regarding notification

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Questions 8

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is MOST difficult to measure following an information security breach?

Options:

A.

Reputational damage

B.

Human resource costs

C.

Regulatory sanctions

D.

Replacement efforts

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Questions 10

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the MOST important issue in a penetration test?

Options:

A.

Having an independent group perform the test

B.

Obtaining permission from audit

C.

Performing the test without the benefit of any insider knowledge

D.

Having a defined goal as well as success and failure criteria

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Questions 12

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Questions 13

To help users apply appropriate controls related to data privacy regulation, what is MOST important to communicate to the users?

Options:

A.

Data storage procedures

B.

Data classification policy

C.

Results of penetration testing

D.

Features of data protection products

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Questions 14

As part of incident response activities, the BEST time to begin the recovery process is after:

Options:

A.

The eradication phase has been completed

B.

The incident response team has been established

C.

The root cause has been determined

D.

The incident manager has declared the incident

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Questions 15

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security status report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Review of information security policies

C.

Information security budget requests

D.

List of recent security events

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Questions 16

Which of the following provides the MOST assurance that a third-party hosting provider will be able to meet availability requirements?

Options:

A.

Right-to-audit clause

B.

The third party's incident response plan

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

The third party's business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 17

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

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Questions 18

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when attempting to create a security-focused culture?

Options:

A.

Current security strategy benchmarks against peer organizations

B.

The regional rules and legislation regarding information security

C.

The current security awareness level of the employees

D.

The organization’s existing security policies, procedures, and frameworks

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Questions 20

An information security manager learns that business unit leaders are encouraging increased use of social media platforms to reach customers. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help mitigate the risk of confidential information being disclosed by employees on social media?

Options:

A.

Establish an organization-wide social media policy.

B.

Develop sanctions for misuse of social media sites.

C.

Monitor social media sites visited by employees.

D.

Restrict social media access on corporate devices.

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Questions 21

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help assure the integrity of an organization’s accounting system?

Options:

A.

Providing security awareness training to accounting staff

B.

Implementing two-factor authentication

C.

Performing frequent security reviews of the audit log

D.

Conducting an annual security audit of the system

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Questions 22

A small organization has a contract with a multinational cloud computing vendor. Which of the following would present the GREATEST concern to an information security manager if omitted from the contract?

Options:

A.

Right of the subscriber to conduct onsite audits of the vendor

B.

Escrow of software code with conditions for code release

C.

Authority of the subscriber to approve access to its data

D.

Commingling of subscribers' data on the same physical server

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Questions 23

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization has integrated information security governance with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Security performance metrics are measured against business objectives.

B.

Impact is measured according to business loss when assessing IT risk.

C.

Security policies are reviewed whenever business objectives are changed.

D.

Service levels for security vendors are defined according to business needs.

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Questions 24

Which type of system is MOST effective for monitoring cyber incidents based on impact and tracking them until they are closed?

Options:

A.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

B.

Network intrusion detection system (NIDS)

C.

Extended detection and response (XDR)

D.

Security information and event management (SIEM)

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Questions 25

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Questions 26

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to assess the current state of information security governance within the organization?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) to understand business priorities

B.

Analyzing the integration of information security policies and practices within business processes

C.

Performing both quantitative and qualitative risk analyses

D.

Interviewing key personnel identified within the governance framework

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Questions 27

Which of the following activities is MOST appropriate to conduct during the eradication phase of a cyber incident response?

Options:

A.

Restore affected systems for normal operations.

B.

Mitigate exploited vulnerabilities to stop future incidents.

C.

Estimate the amount of damage caused by the incident.

D.

Isolate affected systems to prevent further damage

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Questions 28

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

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Questions 29

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when there is a conflict between the organization's information security policy and a local regulation?

Options:

A.

Enforce the local regulation.

B.

Obtain legal guidance.

C.

Enforce the organization's information security policy.

D.

Obtain an independent assessment of the regulation.

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Questions 30

An information security manager has been notified that two senior executives have the ability to elevate their own privileges in the corporate accounting system, in violation of policy. What is the FIRST step to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Immediately suspend the executives' access privileges.

B.

Notify the CISO of the security policy violation.

C.

Perform a full review of all system transactions over the past 90 days.

D.

Perform a system access review.

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Questions 31

Which of the following will BEST facilitate integrating the information security program into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

An up-to-date security strategy

B.

Documentation of the threat landscape

C.

Documentation of residual risk

D.

A minimum security baseline

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Questions 32

Who should be responsible for determining the level of data classification required for an application related to a new line of business?

Options:

A.

Data analyst

B.

Information security officer (ISO)

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owners

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Questions 33

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

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Questions 34

An organization has just updated its backup capability to a new cloud-based solution. Which of the following tests will MOST effectively verify this change is working as intended?

Options:

A.

Tabletop testing

B.

Black box testing

C.

Parallel testing

D.

Simulation testing

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Questions 35

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 36

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether new risks exist in legacy systems?

Options:

A.

Frequent updates to the risk register

B.

Regularly scheduled security audits

C.

Frequent security architecture reviews

D.

Regularly scheduled risk assessments

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Questions 37

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

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Questions 38

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

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Questions 39

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

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Questions 40

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 42

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 43

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

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Questions 44

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating information security governance into the corporate governance framework?

Options:

A.

Heightened awareness of information security strategies

B.

Improved process resiliency in the event of attacks

C.

Promotion of security-by-design principles to the business

D.

Management accountability for information security

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Questions 45

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

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Questions 46

During an information security audit, it was determined that IT staff did not follow the established standard when configuring and managing IT systems. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

Options:

A.

Providing annual information security awareness training

B.

Conducting periodic vulnerability scanning

C.

Implementing a strict change control process

D.

Updating configuration baselines

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Questions 47

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs.

B.

are more objective than information security management.

C.

can see the overall impact to the business.

D.

can balance the technical and business risks.

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Questions 48

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

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Questions 49

Which type of recovery site is MOST reliable and can support stringent recovery requirements?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Warm site

C.

Hot site

D.

Mobile site

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Questions 50

The results of a risk assessment for a potential network reconfiguration reveal a high likelihood of sensitive data being compromised. What is the information security manager's BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional network segmentation.

B.

Seek an independent opinion to confirm the findings.

C.

Determine alignment with existing regulations.

D.

Report findings to key stakeholders.

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Questions 51

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

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Questions 52

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 53

An information security manager has recently been notified of potential security risks associated with a third-party service provider. What should be done NEXT to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Escalate to the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

Conduct a vulnerability analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk analysis.

D.

Determine compensating controls.

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Questions 54

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

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Questions 55

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security risk assessment is integrated into the life cycle of major IT projects?

Options:

A.

Training project managers on risk assessment

B.

Having the information security manager participate on the project steering committees

C.

Applying global security standards to the IT projects

D.

Integrating the risk assessment into the internal audit program

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Questions 56

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Determine recovery priorities.

B.

Define the recovery point objective (RPO).

C.

Confirm control effectiveness.

D.

Analyze vulnerabilities.

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Questions 57

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

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Questions 58

An incident handler is preparing a forensic image of a hard drive. Which of the following MUST be done to provide evidence that the image is an exact copy of the original?

Options:

A.

Perform a manual verification of file counts.

B.

Encrypt and back up the hard drive before copying.

C.

Use the same hardware for the image as the original.

D.

Perform digital hashing of the original and the image.

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Questions 59

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

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Questions 60

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

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Questions 61

An information security manager is updating the organization's incident response plan. Which of the following is the BEST way to validate that the process and procedures provided by IT and business units are complete, accurate, and known by all responsible teams?

Options:

A.

Review the test objectives with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a data breach incident tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct an incident response plan survey.

D.

Review data breach incident triage steps.

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Questions 62

The PRIMARY consideration when responding to a ransomware attack should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

backups are available.

B.

the most recent patches have been applied.

C.

the ransomware attack is contained

D.

the business can operate

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Questions 63

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

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Questions 64

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

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Questions 65

The PRIMARY objective of timely declaration of a disaster is to:

Options:

A.

ensure engagement of business management in the recovery process.

B.

assess and correct disaster recovery process deficiencies.

C.

protect critical physical assets from further loss.

D.

ensure the continuity of the organization's essential services.

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Questions 66

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

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Questions 67

An incident response team has established that an application has been breached. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Maintain the affected systems in a forensically acceptable state

B.

Conduct a risk assessment on the affected application

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Isolate the impacted systems from the rest of the network

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Questions 68

Which of the following MUST be established to maintain an effective information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security controls automation

B.

Defined security metrics

C.

Change management processes

D.

Security policy provisions

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Questions 69

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 70

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

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Questions 71

The PRIMARY goal to a post-incident review should be to:

Options:

A.

identify policy changes to prevent a recurrence.

B.

determine how to improve the incident handling process.

C.

establish the cost of the incident to the business.

D.

determine why the incident occurred.

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Questions 72

An external security audit has reported multiple instances of control noncompliance. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Control owner responses based on a root cause analysis

B.

The impact of noncompliance on the organization's risk profile

C.

A noncompliance report to initiate remediation activities

D.

A business case for transferring the risk

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Questions 73

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 74

Which of the following backup methods requires the MOST time to restore data for an application?

Options:

A.

Full backup

B.

Incremental

C.

Differential

D.

Disk mirroring

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Questions 75

An organization is planning to engage a third-party service provider to develop custom software. Which of the following would help to provide the GREATEST assurance of software security?

Options:

A.

Security training for the service provider’s software development staff

B.

Independent assessment against a relevant standard

C.

Verification of certifications held by the individual developers

D.

Review of the service provider’s software development policies

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Questions 76

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of the vendor risk management process?

Options:

A.

Increase in the percentage of vendors certified to a globally recognized security standard

B.

Increase in the percentage of vendors with a completed due diligence review

C.

Increase in the percentage of vendors conducting mandatory security training

D.

Increase in the percentage of vendors that have reported security breaches

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Questions 77

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Questions 78

When implementing a security policy for an organization handling personally identifiable information (Pll); the MOST important objective should be:

Options:

A.

strong encryption

B.

regulatory compliance.

C.

data availability.

D.

security awareness training

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the MOST critical activity for an information security manager to perform periodically throughout the term of a contract with an outsourced third party?

Options:

A.

Participatory disaster recovery testing

B.

Comprehensive risk assessments

C.

Service level agreement (SLA) updates

D.

Financial alignment reviews

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Questions 80

For event logs to be acceptable for incident investigation, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to establish chain of evidence?

Options:

A.

Centralized logging

B.

Time clock synchronization

C.

Available forensic tools

D.

Administrator log access

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Questions 81

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

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Questions 82

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

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Questions 83

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

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Questions 84

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system

B.

Disable all incoming cloud mail services

C.

Conduct awareness training across the organization

D.

Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy

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Questions 85

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

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Questions 86

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 87

Which of the following BEST informs the design of an information security framework?

Options:

A.

Recent audit findings

B.

Implementation cost

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Available skills

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Questions 88

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

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Questions 89

An organization has identified IT failures in a call center application. Of the following, who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Head of the call center

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Head of the IT department

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Questions 90

The PRIMARY objective of a post-incident review of an information security incident is to:

Options:

A.

update the risk profile

B.

minimize impact

C.

prevent recurrence.

D.

determine the impact

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Questions 91

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a post-incident review following a data breach?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the effectiveness of the information security strategy

B.

Evaluations of the adequacy of existing controls

C.

Documentation of regulatory reporting requirements

D.

A review of the forensics chain of custom

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Questions 92

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 93

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a lessons learned exercise following a successful response to a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Establishing the root cause of the incident

B.

Identifying attack vectors utilized in the incident

C.

When business operations were restored after the incident

D.

How incident management processes were executed

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Questions 94

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

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Questions 95

Which of the following provides the MOST effective response against ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Automatic quarantine of systems

B.

Thorough communication plans

C.

Effective backup plans and processes

D.

Strong password requirements

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Questions 96

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Establish performance metrics for the team

B.

Perform a post-incident review

C.

Implement a SIEM solution

D.

Perform a threat analysis

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Questions 97

Which of the following is MOST helpful for protecting an enterprise from advanced persistent threats (APTs)?

Options:

A.

Updated security policies

B.

Defined security standards

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Regular antivirus updates

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Questions 98

The PRIMARY reason for creating a business case when proposing an information security project is to:

Options:

A.

articulate inherent risks.

B.

provide demonstrated return on investment (ROI).

C.

establish the value of the project in relation to business objectives.

D.

gain key business stakeholder engagement.

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Questions 99

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

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Questions 100

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

Options:

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 101

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring that incident management plans are executed effectively?

Options:

A.

Management support and approval has been obtained.

B.

The incident response team has the appropriate training.

C.

An incident response maturity assessment has been conducted.

D.

A reputable managed security services provider has been engaged.

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to influence organizational culture to align with security guidelines?

Options:

A.

Adhere to regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct security awareness

C.

Document and distribute security procedures

D.

Communicate and enforce security policies

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Questions 103

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 104

The PRIMARY purpose of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is to determine the:

Options:

A.

scope of the business continuity program.

B.

resources needed for business recovery.

C.

recovery time objective (RTO).

D.

scope of the incident response plan.

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Questions 105

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 106

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost.

B.

tracked and reported on until their final resolution.

C.

documented in security awareness programs.

D.

noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found.

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Questions 107

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

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Questions 108

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Questions 109

A global organization is planning to expand its operations into a new country with stricter data protection regulations than those in the headquarters' home country. Which of the following is the BEST approach for adopting these new requirements?

Options:

A.

Adjust organization-wide security polices to align with regulations of the new country.

B.

Ensure local operations comply with geographical data protection laws of the headquarters.

C.

Work with legal to interpret the local regulatory requirements and implement applicable controls.

D.

Procure cybersecurity insurance that covers potential breaches and incidents in the new country.

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Questions 110

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major security incident?

Options:

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

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Questions 111

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

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Questions 112

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security policy?

Options:

A.

Best practices

B.

Management objectives

C.

Baselines

D.

Maturity levels

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Questions 113

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 114

The PRIMARY purpose of implementing information security governance metrics is to:

Options:

A.

measure alignment with best practices.

B.

assess operational and program metrics.

C.

guide security towards the desired state.

D.

refine control operations.

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Questions 115

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 116

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 117

An organization would like to invest in a new emerging technology. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to consider when evaluating its impact?

Options:

A.

Secure configuration

B.

Vulnerabilities in the technology

C.

Systems compatibility

D.

Industry peer reviews of the technology

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Questions 118

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

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Questions 119

During a post-incident review, it was determined that a known vulnerability was exploited in order to gain access to a system. The vulnerability was patched as part of the remediation on the offending system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Install patches on all existing systems.

B.

Review the vulnerability management process.

C.

Report the root cause of the vulnerability to senior management.

D.

Scan to determine whether the vulnerability is present on other systems.

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Questions 120

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for a vulnerability scanner to return incomplete results?

Options:

A.

Unauthenticated vulnerability scans are being performed.

B.

Scan results are not ingested into a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

C.

Host names have not been fully enumerated.

D.

Zero-day vulnerability signatures have not been ingested.

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Questions 121

Threat and vulnerability assessments are important PRIMARILY because they are:

Options:

A.

used to establish security investments

B.

the basis for setting control objectives.

C.

elements of the organization's security posture.

D.

needed to estimate risk.

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Questions 122

Which of the following should be done FIRST after a ransomware incident has been successfully contained?

Options:

A.

Notify relevant stakeholders.

B.

Conduct forensic analysis.

C.

Perform lessons learned.

D.

Restore impacted systems.

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Questions 123

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

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Questions 124

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address the risk associated with a new third-party cloud application that will not meet organizational security requirements?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract.

B.

Update the risk register.

C.

Consult with the business owner.

D.

Restrict application network access temporarily.

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Questions 125

What is the BEST way to inform senior management of the value of information security?

Options:

A.

Present the benefits of security awareness training

B.

Describe how security enables business objectives

C.

Describe potential impact of compromises

D.

Present anticipated return on security investment

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Questions 126

An organization has decided to outsource IT operations. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Security requirements are included in the vendor contract

B.

External security audit results are reviewed.

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs) meet operational standards.

D.

Business continuity contingency planning is provided

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Questions 127

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for obtaining input from risk owners when implementing controls?

Options:

A.

To reduce risk mitigation costs

B.

To resolve vulnerabilities in enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

To manage the risk to an acceptable level

D.

To eliminate threats impacting the business

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Questions 128

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

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Questions 129

Which of the following is the BEST way to compete for funding for an information security program in an organization with limited resources?

Options:

A.

Demonstrate the effectiveness of business continuity plans (BCPs).

B.

Report key performance indicator (KPI) trends.

C.

Demonstrate that the program enables business activities.

D.

Provide evidence of increased security events at peer organizations.

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Questions 130

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

the internal audit manager.

B.

the information security officer.

C.

the steering committee.

D.

the board of directors.

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Questions 131

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge when assessing the impact of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Complexity of the emerging risk

B.

Insufficient data related to the emerging risk

C.

Outdated risk management strategy

D.

Lack of resources to perform risk assessments

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Questions 132

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Questions 133

The executive management of a domestic organization has announced plans to expand operations to multiple international locations. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST step upon learning of these plans?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis against international information security standards

B.

Update security training and awareness resources accordingly

C.

Research legal and regulatory requirements impacting the new locations

D.

Prepare localized information security policies for each new location

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Questions 134

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST upon learning that a subsidiary is located in a country where civil unrest has just begun?

Options:

A.

Assess changes in the risk profile.

B.

Activate the disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Conduct security awareness training.

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Questions 135

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Risk register

C.

Industry benchmarks

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Questions 136

Which of the following tasks would provide a newly appointed information security manager with the BEST view of the organization's existing security posture?

Options:

A.

Reviewing policies and procedures

B.

Performing a risk assessment

C.

Interviewing business managers and employees

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 137

A penetration test was conducted by an accredited third party. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ensure a risk assessment is performed to evaluate the findings

B.

Ensure vulnerabilities found are resolved within acceptable timeframes

C.

Request funding needed to resolve the top vulnerabilities

D.

Report findings to senior management

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Questions 138

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure information security policies are understood?

Options:

A.

Implement a whistle-blower program.

B.

Provide regular security awareness training.

C.

Include security responsibilities in job descriptions.

D.

Document security procedures.

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Questions 139

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action when responding to a major security incident that could disrupt the business?

Options:

A.

Follow the escalation process.

B.

Identify the indicators of compromise.

C.

Notify law enforcement.

D.

Contact forensic investigators.

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Questions 140

Which of the following would BEST justify spending for a compensating control?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Emerging risk trends

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 141

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 142

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Review information security policies

D.

Review the state of security awareness

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Questions 143

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine what activities and changes have occurred on a system during a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Computer forensics

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Penetration testing

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Questions 144

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

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Questions 145

Which of the following is MOST helpful in the development of a cost-effective information security strategy that is aligned with business requirements?

Options:

A.

Enforcing data retention

B.

Developing policy standards

C.

Benchmarking against industry peers

D.

Categorizing information assets

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Questions 146

An organization has identified a weakness in the ability of its employees to identify and report cybersecurity incidents. Although training materials have been provided, employees show a lack of interest. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Block network access until security awareness training is complete.

B.

Conduct an enterprise cybersecurity risk assessment.

C.

Obtain key stakeholder and leadership support.

D.

Send an email mandating training for the employees.

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Questions 147

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

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Questions 148

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to help ensure an organization's cybersecurity program meets the needs of the business?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment program

B.

Information security awareness training

C.

Information security governance

D.

Information security metrics

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Questions 149

What should a global information security manager do FIRST when informed that a new regulation with significant impact will go into effect soon?

Options:

A.

Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 150

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 151

Which of the following is MOST important when designing security controls for new cloud-based services?

Options:

A.

Evaluating different types of deployment models according to the associated risks

B.

Understanding the business and IT strategy for moving resources to the cloud

C.

Defining an incident response policy to protect data moving between onsite and cloud applications

D.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA) to gather information needed to develop recovery strategies

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Questions 152

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 153

Which of the following is the MOST important factor of a successful information security program?

Options:

A.

The program follows industry best practices.

B.

The program is based on a well-developed strategy.

C.

The program is cost-efficient and within budget,

D.

The program is focused on risk management.

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Questions 154

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

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Questions 155

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of post-incident review activities?

Options:

A.

Evidence collection

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Incident triage

D.

Incident documentation

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Questions 156

An organization learns that a third party has outsourced critical functions to another external provider. Which of the following is the information security manager's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Engage an independent audit of the third party's external provider.

B.

Recommend canceling the contract with the third party.

C.

Evaluate the third party's agreements with its external provider.

D.

Conduct an external audit of the contracted third party.

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Questions 157

A new information security reporting requirement will soon become effective. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis related to noncompliance with the new requirement.

B.

Perform a gap assessment against the new requirement.

C.

Investigate to determine whether the new requirement applies to the business.

D.

Inform senior management of the new requirement.

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Questions 158

When remote access is granted to a company's internal network, the MOST important consideration should be that access is provided:

Options:

A.

on a need-to-know basis subject to controls.

B.

subject to legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

by the use of a remote access server.

D.

if a robust IT infrastructure exists.

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Questions 159

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain organization-wide support for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Mandate regular security awareness training.

B.

Develop security performance metrics.

C.

Position security as a business enabler.

D.

Prioritize security initiatives based on IT strategy.

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Questions 160

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure risk appetite is considered during the risk treatment process?

Options:

A.

Formalized risk management framework

B.

Organization-wide risk awareness and training programs

C.

Use of a quantitative risk measurement approach

D.

Automated monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 161

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 162

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

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Questions 164

What is the information security steering committee’s PRIMARY role in the development of security policies?

Options:

A.

Commissioning an organization-wide security audit

B.

Drafting language related to policy noncompliance

C.

Ensuring policies facilitate business practices

D.

Overseeing a gap analysis against industry best practice

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Questions 165

Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?

Options:

A.

Time-of-day restrictions

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

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Questions 166

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 167

An information security manager has learned of an increasing trend in attacks that use phishing emails impersonating an organization's CEO in an attempt to commit wire transfer fraud. Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with this type of attack?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend wire transfers for the organization.

B.

Provide awareness training to the CEO for this type of phishing attack.

C.

Provide awareness training to staff responsible for wire transfers.

D.

Disable emails for staff responsible for wire transfers.

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Questions 168

Which of the following BEST protects against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Honeypot environment

B.

Updated security awareness materials

C.

Ongoing incident response training

D.

Proactive monitoring

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Questions 169

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

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Questions 170

Spoofing should be prevented because it may be used to:

Options:

A.

gain illegal entry to a secure system by faking the sender's address,

B.

predict which way a program will branch when an option is presented

C.

assemble information, track traffic, and identify network vulnerabilities.

D.

capture information such as passwords traveling through the network

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Questions 171

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

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Questions 172

Who is accountable for approving an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The board of directors

B.

The chief information security officer (ClSO)

C.

The enterprise risk committee

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 173

Which of the following is MOST important to determine following the discovery and eradication of a malware attack?

Options:

A.

The malware entry path

B.

The creator of the malware

C.

The type of malware involved

D.

The method of detecting the malware

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Questions 174

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

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Questions 175

Which of the following BEST indicates that information security governance and corporate governance are integrated?

Options:

A.

The information security team is aware of business goals.

B.

The board is regularly informed of information security key performance indicators (KPIs),

C.

The information security steering committee is composed of business leaders.

D.

A cost-benefit analysis is conducted on all information security initiatives.

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Questions 176

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain support for a new organization-wide information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmark against similar industry organizations

B.

Deliver an information security awareness campaign.

C.

Publish an information security RACI chart.

D.

Establish an information security strategy committee.

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Questions 177

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Questions 178

When management changes the enterprise business strategy which of the following processes should be used to evaluate the existing information security controls as well as to select new information security controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Risk management

C.

Access control management

D.

Change management

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Questions 179

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an organization's information security status?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection log analysis

B.

Controls audit

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 180

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

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Questions 181

The resilience requirements of an application are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

A risk assessment

B.

A business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

A cost-benefit analysis

D.

A threat assessment

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Questions 182

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

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Questions 183

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

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Questions 184

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

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Questions 185

Of the following, who is accountable for data loss in the event of an information security incident at a third-party provider?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The service provider that hosts the data

C.

The incident response team

D.

The business data owner

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Questions 186

An information security manager has identified that security risks are not being treated in a timely manner. Which of the following

Options:

A.

Provide regular updates about the current state of the risks.

B.

Re-perform risk analysis at regular intervals.

C.

Assign a risk owner to each risk

D.

Create mitigating controls to manage the risks.

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Questions 187

A global organization is considering its geopolitical security risks. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Seek advice from environmental and physical security experts

B.

Implement a third-party risk management framework

C.

Implement controls that deny access from specific jurisdictions

D.

Seek advice from enterprise risk and legal experts

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Questions 188

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

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Questions 189

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a third-party backup site continues to meet the organization’s information security standards?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Memorandum of understanding (MoU)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

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Questions 190

Information security policies should PRIMARILY reflect alignment with:

Options:

A.

an information security framework.

B.

industry best practices.

C.

data security standards.

D.

senior management intent.

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Questions 191

An organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) is documented and kept at a disaster recovery site. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the plan can be carried out in an emergency?

Options:

A.

Store disaster recovery documentation in a public cloud.

B.

Maintain an outsourced contact center in another country.

C.

Require disaster recovery documentation be stored with all key decision makers.

D.

Provide annual disaster recovery training to appropriate staff.

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Questions 192

A department has reported that a security control is no longer effective. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Replace the control

B.

Check for defense in depth

C.

Assess the control state

D.

Report the failure to management

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Questions 193

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 194

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

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Questions 195

Which of the following BEST enables users to recover from ransomware or malware attacks?

Options:

A.

Incident response plans

B.

Frequent system backups

C.

Regular antivirus updates

D.

End-user awareness training

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Questions 196

Which of the following will BEST enable an organization to meet incident response requirements when outsourcing its incident response function?

Options:

A.

Including response times in service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Including a right-to-audit clause in service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Contracting with a well-known incident response provider

D.

Requiring comprehensive response applications and tools

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Questions 197

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

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Questions 198

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

Options:

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 199

Which of the following will result in the MOST accurate controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Mature change management processes

B.

Senior management support

C.

Well-defined security policies

D.

Unannounced testing

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Questions 200

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

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Questions 201

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 202

After a server has been attacked, which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Review vulnerability assessment.

C.

Conduct a security audit.

D.

Isolate the system.

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Questions 203

Which of the following should be done FIRST when establishing a new data protection program that must comply with applicable data privacy regulations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate privacy technologies required for data protection.

B.

Encrypt all personal data stored on systems and networks.

C.

Update disciplinary processes to address privacy violations.

D.

Create an inventory of systems where personal data is stored.

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Questions 204

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

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Questions 205

Following an unsuccessful denial of service (DoS) attack, identified weaknesses should be:

Options:

A.

Tracked and reported on until their final resolution

B.

Noted and re-examined later if similar weaknesses are found

C.

Documented in security awareness programs

D.

Quickly resolved and eliminated regardless of cost

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge with assessing emerging risk in an organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of a risk framework

B.

Ineffective security controls

C.

Presence of known vulnerabilities

D.

Incomplete identification of threats

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Questions 207

Who is BEST positioned to take ownership of critical IT security risks identified in an application?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

C.

Business application owner

D.

Lead application developer

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

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Questions 209

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 210

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 211

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

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Questions 212

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an organization to consider when defining incident classification and categorization levels?

Options:

A.

Maturity of incident response activities

B.

Threat environment

C.

Quantity of impacted assets

D.

Incident impact

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Questions 213

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure the effective execution of an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

The plan is reviewed by senior and IT operational management.

B.

The plan is based on industry best practices.

C.

Process steps are documented by the disaster recovery team.

D.

Procedures are available at the primary and failover location.

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Questions 214

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

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Questions 215

To help ensure that an information security training program is MOST effective, its contents should be:

Options:

A.

based on recent incidents.

B.

based on employees’ roles.

C.

aligned to business processes.

D.

focused on information security policy.

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Questions 216

What is the PRIMARY objective of implementing standard security configurations?

Options:

A.

Maintain a flexible approach to mitigate potential risk to unsupported systems.

B.

Minimize the operational burden of managing and monitoring unsupported systems.

C.

Control vulnerabilities and reduce threats from changed configurations.

D.

Compare configurations between supported and unsupported systems.

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Questions 217

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to involve stakeholders from various business units when developing an information security policy?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of policy development

B.

To share responsibility for addressing security breaches

C.

To decrease the workload of the IT department

D.

To gain acceptance of the policy across the organization

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Questions 218

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in successfully implementing Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

Preferring networks that have undergone penetration testing

B.

Focusing on logging and monitoring of user behavior

C.

Authenticating and authorizing strategic points of the architecture

D.

Understanding each component of the network

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Questions 219

Internal audit has reported a number of information security issues that are not in compliance with regulatory requirements. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Perform a gap analysis to determine needed resources

C.

Create a security exception

D.

Assess the risk to business operations

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Questions 220

An organization's research department plans to apply machine learning algorithms on a large data set containing customer names and purchase history. The risk of personal data leakage is considered high impact. Which of the following is the BEST risk treatment option in this situation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk, as the benefits exceed the potential consequences.

B.

Mitigate the risk by applying anonymization on the data set.

C.

Transfer the risk by purchasing insurance.

D.

Mitigate the risk by encrypting the customer names in the data set.

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Questions 221

Which of the following roles is accountable for the protection of data?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data custodian

C.

Data owner

D.

Data administrator

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Questions 222

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

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Questions 223

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

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Questions 224

Which of the following is the MOST critical input to developing policies, standards, and procedures to secure information assets?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Enterprise goals

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Questions 225

An information security manager determines there are a significant number of exceptions to a newly released industry-required security standard. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document risk acceptances.

B.

Revise the organization's security policy.

C.

Assess the consequences of noncompliance.

D.

Conduct an information security audit.

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Questions 226

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Questions 227

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

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Questions 228

Of the following, who is MOST appropriate to own the risk associated with the failure of a privileged access control?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Business owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 229

When is the BEST time to verify that a production system's security mechanisms meet control objectives?

Options:

A.

During quality and acceptance checks

B.

On a continuous basis through monitoring activities and automated tooling

C.

After remediations recommended by penetration tests have been completed

D.

During annual internal and compliance audits

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Questions 230

The PRIMARY goal of a post-incident review should be to:

Options:

A.

establish the cost of the incident to the business.

B.

determine why the incident occurred.

C.

identify policy changes to prevent a recurrence.

D.

determine how to improve the incident handling process.

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Questions 231

Which of the following would be the GREATEST threat posed by a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack on a public-facing web server?

Options:

A.

Execution of unauthorized commands

B.

Prevention of authorized access

C.

Defacement of website content

D.

Unauthorized access to resources

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Questions 232

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

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Questions 233

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of an information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Influencing human behavior

B.

Evaluating organizational security culture

C.

Defining risk accountability

D.

Enforcing security policy

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Questions 234

To prepare for a third-party forensics investigation following an incident involving malware, the incident response team should:

Options:

A.

isolate the infected systems.

B.

preserve the evidence.

C.

image the infected systems.

D.

clean the malware.

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Questions 235

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

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Questions 236

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to key stakeholders regarding the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Security baselines

C.

Security incident details

D.

Security risk exposure

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Questions 237

An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.

B.

Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data

C.

Initiate remote wipe of the devices

D.

Assess the business need to provide a secure solution

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Questions 238

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to continuously assess the information security risk posture?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Periodic review of the risk register

C.

Degree of senior management support

D.

Compliance with industry regulations

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Questions 239

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining asset valuation?

Options:

A.

Asset recovery cost

B.

Asset classification level

C.

Cost of insurance premiums

D.

Potential business loss

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Questions 240

Which of the following is the BEST way to improve an organization's ability to detect and respond to incidents?

Options:

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Conduct periodic awareness training.

C.

Perform a security gap analysis.

D.

Perform network penetration testing.

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Questions 241

When mitigation is the chosen risk treatment, which of the following roles is responsible for effective implementation of the chosen treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Business system owner

D.

Application owner

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Questions 242

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

Options:

A.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Project resource optimization

C.

Regular security policy reviews

D.

Senior management sponsorship

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Questions 243

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

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Questions 244

Which of the following tools would be MOST helpful to an incident response team?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

B.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution

C.

User and entity behavior analytics

D.

Vulnerability scanning tools

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Questions 245

Which of the following provides the BEST indication of the return on information security investment?

Options:

A.

Increased annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Increased number of reported incidents

C.

Reduced annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Decreased number of reported incidents

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Questions 246

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 247

During the due diligence phase of an acquisition, the MOST important course of action for an information security manager is to:

Options:

A.

perform a risk assessment.

B.

review the state of security awareness.

C.

review information security policies.

D.

perform a gap analysis.

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Questions 248

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

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Questions 249

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 250

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Monitor the third party's response.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Inform customers of the breach.

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Questions 251

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining a recovery strategy in a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Legal and regulatory requirements

B.

Likelihood of a disaster

C.

Organizational tolerance to service interruption

D.

Geographical location of the backup site

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Questions 252

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of information security?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Data governance

D.

Business alignment

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Questions 253

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

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Questions 254

An information security manager is MOST likely to obtain approval for a new security project when the business case provides evidence of:

Options:

A.

organizational alignment

B.

IT strategy alignment

C.

threats to the organization

D.

existing control costs

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Questions 255

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

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Questions 256

Which of the following is the GREATEST threat posed by quantum computing technology for information security?

Options:

A.

Quantum computers can break several current encryption schemes protecting the confidentiality of data

B.

Quantum computers can allow for secure communication that benefits only the few who can afford it

C.

Quantum computers can compromise availability through extremely rapid processing of large data sets

D.

Quantum computers can simulate complex physical systems beyond traditional computing capabilities

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Questions 257

To improve the efficiency of the development of a new software application, security requirements should be defined:

Options:

A.

based on code review.

B.

based on available security assessment tools.

C.

after functional requirements.

D.

concurrently with other requirements.

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Questions 258

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to protect the authenticity of data in transit?

Options:

A.

Digital signature

B.

Private key

C.

Access controls

D.

Public key

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Questions 259

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

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Questions 260

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining which type of failover site to employ?

Options:

A.

Reciprocal agreements

B.

Disaster recovery test results

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

Data retention requirements

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Questions 261

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a potential business breach is discovered in a critical business system?

Options:

A.

Implement mitigating actions immediately.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Inform senior management of the breach.

D.

Validate the breach.

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Questions 262

Which of the following should be done FIRST once a cybersecurity attack has been confirmed?

Options:

A.

Isolate the affected system.

B.

Notify senior management.

C.

Power down the system.

D.

Contact legal authorities.

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Questions 263

Which of the following will BEST enable an effective information asset classification process?

Options:

A.

Including security requirements in the classification process

B.

Analyzing audit findings

C.

Reviewing the recovery time objective (RTO) requirements of the asset

D.

Assigning ownership

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Questions 264

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Questions 265

An organization engages a third-party vendor to monitor and support a financial application under scrutiny by regulators. Which of the following controls would MOST effectively manage risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing separation of duties between systems and data

B.

Including penalty clauses for noncompliance in the vendor contract

C.

Disabling vendor access and only re-enabling when access is needed

D.

Monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Questions 266

Which of the following risks is an example of risk transfer?

Options:

A.

Utilizing third-party applications

B.

Moving risk ownership to another department

C.

Conducting off-site backups

D.

Purchasing cybersecurity insurance

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Questions 267

Which of the following business units should own the data that populates an identity management system?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR)

B.

Legal

C.

Information technology

D.

Information security

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Questions 268

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 269

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in an information security environment?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Annual risk assessments

C.

Regular penetration testing

D.

Continuous monitoring

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Questions 270

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 271

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

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Questions 272

What should be the GREATEST concern for an information security manager of a large multinational organization when outsourcing data processing to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Vendor service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Independent review of the vendor

C.

Local laws and regulations

D.

Backup and restoration of data

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Questions 273

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate alignment of information security strategy with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Heat map

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Questions 274

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

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Questions 275

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when developing an incident response strategy with a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes

B.

Technological capabilities

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Security audit reports

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Questions 276

An organization requires that business-critical applications be recovered within 30 minutes in the event of a disaster. Which of the following metrics should be in the business continuity plan (BCP) to manage this requirement?

Options:

A.

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 277

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 278

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Questions 279

Which of the following should be an information security manager s MOST important consideration when determining the priority for implementing security controls?

Options:

A.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

B.

Results of business impact analyses (BIAs)

C.

Possibility of reputational loss due to incidents

D.

Availability of security budget

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Questions 280

When establishing classifications of security incidents for the development of an incident response plan, which of the following provides the MOST valuable input?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Vulnerability assessment results

C.

The business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Recommendations from senior management

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Questions 281

An organization's marketing department wants to use an online collaboration service, which is not in compliance with the information security policy, A risk assessment is performed, and risk acceptance is being pursued. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by:

Options:

A.

the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

business senior management.

C.

the information security manager.

D.

the compliance officer.

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Questions 282

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 283

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an online company discovers a network attack in progress?

Options:

A.

Dump all event logs to removable media

B.

Isolate the affected network segment

C.

Enable trace logging on ail events

D.

Shut off all network access points

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Questions 284

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority during an information security post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Documenting actions taken in sufficient detail

B.

Updating key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Evaluating the performance of incident response team members

D.

Evaluating incident response effectiveness

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Questions 285

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 286

Which of the following is the MOST important role of the information security manager when the organization is in the process of adopting emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Assessing how peer organizations using the same technologies have been impacted

B.

Understanding the impact on existing resources

C.

Reviewing vendor contracts and service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Developing training for end users to familiarize them with the new technology

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Questions 287

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

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Questions 288

A security review identifies that confidential information on the file server has been accessed by unauthorized users in the organization. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan

B.

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Remove access to the information

D.

Delete the information from the file server

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Questions 289

An information security manager finds that a soon-to-be deployed online application will increase risk beyond acceptable levels, and necessary controls have not been included. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Instruct IT to deploy controls based on urgent business needs.

B.

Present a business case for additional controls to senior management.

C.

Solicit bids for compensating control products.

D.

Recommend a different application.

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Questions 290

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

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Questions 291

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

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Questions 292

The GREATEST benefit of an effective information security awareness program is the organization’s ability to:

Options:

A.

Meet compliance requirements

B.

Reduce security incidents

C.

Establish accountability

D.

Develop meaningful metrics

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Questions 293

Which of the following would be MOST effective in reducing the impact of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Impose state limits on servers.

B.

Spread a site across multiple ISPs.

C.

Block the attack at the source.

D.

Harden network security.

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Questions 294

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 295

An organization has identified a large volume of old data that appears to be unused. Which of the following should the information

security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Consult the record retention policy.

B.

Update the awareness and training program.

C.

Implement media sanitization procedures.

D.

Consult the backup and recovery policy.

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Questions 296

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of including incident classification criteria within an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ability to monitor and control incident management costs

B.

More visibility to the impact of disruptions

C.

Effective protection of information assets

D.

Optimized allocation of recovery resources

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Questions 297

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Questions 298

Which of the following is the BEST reason to implement an information security architecture?

Options:

A.

Assess the cost-effectiveness of the integration.

B.

Fast-track the deployment of information security components.

C.

Serve as a post-deployment information security road map.

D.

Facilitate consistent implementation of security requirements.

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Questions 299

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

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Questions 300

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

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Questions 301

An enterprise has decided to procure security services from a third-party vendor to support its information security program. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the vendor selection criteria?

Options:

A.

Feedback from the vendor's previous clients

B.

Alignment of the vendor's business objectives with enterprise security goals

C.

The maturity of the vendor's internal control environment

D.

Penetration testing against the vendor's network

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Questions 302

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

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Questions 303

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Organizational culture

C.

IT governance

D.

Risk management

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Questions 304

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register.

B.

The risks are reported to the business unit's senior management.

C.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation.

D.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function.

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Questions 305

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

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Questions 306

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

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Questions 307

Which of the following is a function of the information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Deliver external communication during incident response.

B.

Align the security framework with security standards.

C.

Align security strategy with business objectives.

D.

Monitor regulatory requirements.

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Questions 308

When updating the information security policy to accommodate a new regulation, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

Review key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Consult process owners

D.

Update key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Feb 4, 2026
Questions: 1044
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