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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

When an organization lacks internal expertise to conduct highly technical forensics investigations, what is the BEST way to ensure effective and timely investigations following an information security incident?

Options:

A.

Purchase forensic standard operating procedures.

B.

Provide forensics training to the information security team.

C.

Ensure the incident response policy allows hiring a forensics firm.

D.

Retain a forensics firm prior to experiencing an incident.

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Questions 5

Following an information security risk assessment of a critical system, several significant issues have been identified. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to confirm?

Options:

A.

The risks are entered in the organization's risk register.

B.

The risks are reported to the business unit's senior management.

C.

The risks are escalated to the IT department for remediation.

D.

The risks are communicated to the central risk function.

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Questions 6

Which of the following BEST helps to enable the desired information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Information security awareness training and campaigns

B.

Effective information security policies and procedures

C.

Delegation of information security roles and responsibilities

D.

Incentives for appropriate information security-related behavior

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Questions 7

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

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Questions 8

Threat and vulnerability assessments are important PRIMARILY because they are:

Options:

A.

used to establish security investments

B.

the basis for setting control objectives.

C.

elements of the organization's security posture.

D.

needed to estimate risk.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective information security metric?

Options:

A.

The metric expresses residual risk relative to risk tolerance.

B.

The metric is frequently reported to senior management.

C.

The metric directly maps to an industry risk management framework.

D.

The metric compares the organization's inherent risk against its risk appetite.

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Questions 10

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether new risks exist in legacy systems?

Options:

A.

Frequent updates to the risk register

B.

Regularly scheduled security audits

C.

Frequent security architecture reviews

D.

Regularly scheduled risk assessments

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Questions 12

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

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Questions 13

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a lessons learned exercise following a successful response to a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Establishing the root cause of the incident

B.

Identifying attack vectors utilized in the incident

C.

When business operations were restored after the incident

D.

How incident management processes were executed

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Questions 14

An organization is MOST likely to accept the risk of noncompliance with a new regulatory requirement when:

Options:

A.

employees are resistant to the controls required by the new regulation.

B.

the regulatory requirement conflicts with business requirements.

C.

the risk of noncompliance exceeds the organization's risk appetite.

D.

the cost of complying with the regulation exceeds the potential penalties.

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Questions 15

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's risk tolerance

B.

The organizational structure

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Information security awareness

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Questions 16

An organization recently outsourced the development of a mission-critical business application. Which of the following would be the BEST way to test for the existence of backdoors?

Options:

A.

Scan the entire application using a vulnerability scanning tool.

B.

Run the application from a high-privileged account on a test system.

C.

Perform security code reviews on the entire application.

D.

Monitor Internet traffic for sensitive information leakage.

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Questions 17

The information security manager of a multinational organization has been asked to consolidate the information security policies of its regional locations. Which of the following would be of

GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Varying threat environments

B.

Disparate reporting lines

C.

Conflicting legal requirements

D.

Differences in work culture

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Questions 18

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 19

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 20

An information security team is investigating an alleged breach of an organization's network. Which of the following would be the BEST single source of evidence to review?

Options:

A.

File integrity monitoring software

B.

Security information and event management (SIEM) tool

C.

Antivirus software

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Questions 21

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify when selecting a third-party forensics provider?

Options:

A.

Existence of a right-to-audit clause

B.

Results of the provider's business continuity tests

C.

Technical capabilities of the provider

D.

Existence of the provider's incident response plan

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Questions 22

The MOST effective tools for responding to new and advanced attacks are those that detect attacks based on:

Options:

A.

signature analysis.

B.

behavior analysis.

C.

penetration testing.

D.

data packet analysis.

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Questions 23

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 24

Which of the following should be the KEY consideration when creating an information security communication plan with industry peers?

Options:

A.

Balancing the benefits of information sharing with the drawbacks of sharing sensitive information

B.

Reducing the costs associated with information sharing by automating the process

C.

Ensuring information is detailed enough to be of use to other organizations

D.

Notifying the legal department whenever incident-related information is shared

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Questions 25

An organization has received complaints from users that some of their files have been encrypted. These users are receiving demands for money to decrypt the files. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an impact assessment.

B.

Isolate the affected systems.

C.

Rebuild the affected systems.

D.

Initiate incident response.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

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Questions 27

A new application has entered the production environment with deficient technical security controls. Which of the following is MOST Likely the root cause?

Options:

A.

Inadequate incident response controls

B.

Lack of legal review

C.

Inadequate change control

D.

Lack of quality control

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Questions 28

Which of the following roles is accountable for ensuring the impact of a new regulatory framework on a business system is assessed?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Application owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Legal representative

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Questions 29

An information security manager has confirmed the organization's cloud provider has unintentionally published some of the organization's business data. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify users associated with the exposed data.

B.

Initiate the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) processes.

C.

Review the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA).

D.

Invoke the incident response plan.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using AI tools in security operations?

Options:

A.

Rapid detection and response to threats

B.

Prioritized vulnerabilities

C.

Reduced time and effort required to patch systems

D.

Defined risk tolerance

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Questions 31

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:

Options:

A.

review the security of the application before implementation.

B.

integrate functionality the development stage.

C.

perform a vulnerability analysis.

D.

periodically audit the security of the application.

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Questions 32

An organization plans to leverage popular social network platforms to promote its products and services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the information security manager to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Establish processes to publish content on social networks.

B.

Assess the security risk associated with the use of social networks.

C.

Conduct vulnerability assessments on social network platforms.

D.

Develop security controls for the use of social networks.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

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Questions 34

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after learning through mass media of a data breach at the organization's hosted payroll service provider?

Options:

A.

Suspend the data exchange with the provider

B.

Notify appropriate regulatory authorities of the breach.

C.

Initiate the business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Validate the breach with the provider

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Questions 35

An organization permits the storage and use of its critical and sensitive information on employee-owned smartphones. Which of the following is the BEST security control?

Options:

A.

Establishing the authority to remote wipe

B.

Developing security awareness training

C.

Requiring the backup of the organization's data by the user

D.

Monitoring how often the smartphone is used

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Questions 36

Which of the following is MOST helpful for determining which information security policies should be implemented by an organization?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Industry best practices

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Questions 37

For event logs to be acceptable for incident investigation, which of the following is the MOST important consideration to establish chain of evidence?

Options:

A.

Centralized logging

B.

Time clock synchronization

C.

Available forensic tools

D.

Administrator log access

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Questions 38

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 39

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a vulnerability has been disclosed?

Options:

A.

Perform a patch update.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a penetration test.

D.

Conduct an impact assessment.

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Questions 40

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining whether a firewall has been configured to provide a comprehensive perimeter defense9

Options:

A.

A validation of the current firewall rule set

B.

A port scan of the firewall from an internal source

C.

A ping test from an external source

D.

A simulated denial of service (DoS) attack against the firewall

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Questions 42

The PRIMARY reason for creating a business case when proposing an information security project is to:

Options:

A.

articulate inherent risks.

B.

provide demonstrated return on investment (ROI).

C.

establish the value of the project in relation to business objectives.

D.

gain key business stakeholder engagement.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is MOST important for guiding the development and management of a comprehensive information security program?

Options:

A.

Adopting information security program management best practices

B.

Implementing policies and procedures to address the information security strategy

C.

Aligning the organization's business objectives with IT objectives

D.

Establishing and maintaining an information security governance framework

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Questions 44

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

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Questions 45

Which of the following is a viable containment strategy for a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Block IP addresses used by the attacker

B.

Redirect the attacker's traffic

C.

Disable firewall ports exploited by the attacker.

D.

Power off affected servers

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Questions 46

An organization is experiencing a sharp increase in incidents related to phishing messages. The root cause is an outdated email filtering system that is no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reinforce security awareness practices for end users.

B.

Temporarily outsource the email system to a cloud provider.

C.

Develop a business case to replace the system.

D.

Monitor outgoing traffic on the firewall.

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Questions 47

What should be an information security manager’s FIRST course of action upon learning a business unit is bypassing an existing control in order to increase operational efficiency?

Options:

A.

Report the noncompliance to senior management.

B.

Assess the risk of noncompliance.

C.

Activate the incident response plan.

D.

Evaluate possible compensating controls.

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Questions 48

An information security manager learns through a threat intelligence service that the organization may be targeted for a major emerging threat. Which of the following is the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an information security audit.

B.

Validate the relevance of the information.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Inform senior management

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Questions 49

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

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Questions 50

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 51

An organization has suffered from a large-scale security event impacting a critical system. Following the decision to restore the system at an alternate location, which plan should be invoked?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Communications plan

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Questions 52

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Conduct an internal audit.

B.

Conduct penetration testing.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Prepare compensating controls.

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Questions 53

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 54

How does an incident response team BEST leverage the results of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Assigning restoration priority during incidents

B.

Determining total cost of ownership (TCO)

C.

Evaluating vendors critical to business recovery

D.

Calculating residual risk after the incident recovery phase

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Questions 55

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to key stakeholders regarding the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Security baselines

C.

Security incident details

D.

Security risk exposure

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Questions 56

A financial institution is planning to develop a new mobile application. Which of the following is the BEST time to begin assessments of the application's security compliance?

Options:

A.

During user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

During the design phase

C.

During static code analysis

D.

During regulatory review

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Questions 57

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 58

After the occurrence of a major information security incident, which of the following will BEST help an information security manager determine corrective actions?

Options:

A.

Calculating cost of the incident

B.

Conducting a postmortem assessment

C.

Performing an impact analysis

D.

Preserving the evidence

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Questions 59

An organization has implemented controls to mitigate risks resulting from identified vulnerabilities in an application. Which of the following is the BEST way to verify all weaknesses have been addressed?

Options:

A.

Perform a vulnerability assessment

B.

Conduct an internal audit

C.

Conduct penetration testing

D.

Prepare compensating controls

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Questions 60

How does an organization PRIMARILY benefit from the creation of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

An increase in information security risk awareness

B.

An increased alignment with industry security trends that impact the business

C.

An increased focus on information security resource management

D.

An increased alignment of information security with the business

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Questions 61

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Questions 62

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 63

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

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Questions 64

An organization successfully responded to an information security incident. However, the information security manager learned that some of the steps specified in the incident management procedures were not taken by the response team. What should be the information security manager's FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Provide additional training to the incident response team.

B.

Review the incident management procedures.

C.

Interview the incident response team.

D.

Remove the steps from the incident management procedures.

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Questions 65

An information security manager is reporting on open items from the risk register to senior management. Which of the following is MOST important to communicate with regard to these risks?

Options:

A.

Responsible entities

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIS)

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Potential business impact

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Questions 66

Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?

Options:

A.

Documentation of control procedures

B.

Standardization of compliance requirements

C.

Automation of controls

D.

Integration of assurance efforts

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Questions 67

The BEST way to report to the board on the effectiveness of the information security program is to present:

Options:

A.

a dashboard illustrating key performance metrics.

B.

a summary of the most recent audit findings.

C.

peer-group industry benchmarks.

D.

a report of cost savings from process improvements.

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

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Questions 69

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

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Questions 70

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

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Questions 71

Which of the following is the MOST critical input to developing policies, standards, and procedures to secure information assets?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Industry best practices

D.

Enterprise goals

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Questions 72

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for an organization to consider when defining incident classification and categorization levels?

Options:

A.

Maturity of incident response activities

B.

Threat environment

C.

Quantity of impacted assets

D.

Incident impact

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Questions 73

Which of the following tools would be MOST helpful to an incident response team?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

B.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) solution

C.

User and entity behavior analytics

D.

Vulnerability scanning tools

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Questions 74

Which of the following BEST enables the capability of an organization to sustain the delivery of products and services within acceptable time frames and at predefined capacity during a disruption?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 75

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 76

In a business proposal, a potential vendor promotes being certified for international security standards as a measure of its security capability.

Before relying on this certification, it is MOST important that the information security manager confirms that the:

Options:

A.

current international standard was used to assess security processes.

B.

certification will remain current through the life of the contract.

C.

certification scope is relevant to the service being offered.

D.

certification can be extended to cover the client's business.

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Questions 77

An information security team is planning a security assessment of an existing vendor. Which of the following approaches is MOST helpful for properly scoping the assessment?

Options:

A.

Focus the review on the infrastructure with the highest risk

B.

Review controls listed in the vendor contract

C.

Determine whether the vendor follows the selected security framework rules

D.

Review the vendor's security policy

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Questions 78

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the BEST technical defense against unauthorized access to a corporate network through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Requiring challenge/response information

B.

Requiring multi factor authentication

C.

Enforcing frequent password changes

D.

Enforcing complex password formats

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Questions 80

Which of the following would be an information security managers PRIMARY challenge when deploying a bring your own device (BYOD) mobile program in an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Mobile application control

B.

Inconsistent device security

C.

Configuration management

D.

End user acceptance

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Questions 81

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 82

The BEST way to ensure that frequently encountered incidents are reflected in the user security awareness training program is to include:

Options:

A.

results of exit interviews.

B.

previous training sessions.

C.

examples of help desk requests.

D.

responses to security questionnaires.

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Questions 83

Which of the following is MOST likely to reduce the effectiveness of a SIEM system?

Options:

A.

Complex user interface

B.

Misconfiguration of alert thresholds

C.

Weakly encrypted log files

D.

Lack of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for system access

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Questions 84

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

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Questions 85

Who is accountable for approving an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

The board of directors

B.

The chief information security officer (ClSO)

C.

The enterprise risk committee

D.

The chief information officer (CIO)

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Questions 86

An organization is transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach for communicating the implications of this transition to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Present a diagram of core Zero Trust logical components to help visualize the architectural changes

B.

Summarize the training plan and end user feedback in an internal portal and send the link to the board

C.

Prepare a report on the Zero Trust implementation that includes a status dashboard and timeline

D.

Provide an outline of the business impact in terms of risk reduction and changes in user experience

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Questions 87

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when developing an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Document disaster recovery procedures.

C.

Identify business requirements.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 88

The executive management of a domestic organization has announced plans to expand operations to multiple international locations. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST step upon learning of these plans?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis against international information security standards

B.

Update security training and awareness resources accordingly

C.

Research legal and regulatory requirements impacting the new locations

D.

Prepare localized information security policies for each new location

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Questions 89

Which of the following roles is MOST appropriate to determine access rights for specific users of an application?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Data custodian

C.

System administrator

D.

Senior management

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Questions 90

Which of the following will ensure confidentiality of content when accessing an email system over the Internet?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Digital encryption

C.

Data masking

D.

Digital signatures

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Questions 91

Senior management has expressed concern that the organization's intrusion prevention system (IPS) may repeatedly disrupt business operations Which of the following BEST indicates that the information security manager has tuned the system to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Increasing false negatives

B.

Decreasing false negatives

C.

Decreasing false positives

D.

Increasing false positives

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Questions 92

What should a global information security manager do FIRST when informed that a new regulation with significant impact will go into effect soon?

Options:

A.

Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 93

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when creating an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identify the response and recovery learns.

C.

Review the communications plan.

D.

Develop response and recovery strategies.

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Questions 94

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 95

An organization requires that business-critical applications be recovered within 30 minutes in the event of a disaster. Which of the following metrics should be in the business continuity plan (BCP) to manage this requirement?

Options:

A.

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 96

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 97

Management would like to understand the risk associated with engaging an Infrastructure-as-a-Service (laaS) provider compared to hosting internally. Which of the following would provide the BEST method of comparing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping risk scenarios according to sensitivity of data

B.

Reviewing mitigating and compensating controls for each risk scenario

C.

Mapping the risk scenarios by likelihood and impact on a chart

D.

Performing a risk assessment on the laaS provider

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Questions 98

Which of the following BEST facilitates recovery of data lost as a result of a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Removable storage media

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Offsite data backups

D.

Encrypted data drives

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Questions 99

Which of the following would provide the MOST effective security outcome in an organizations contract management process?

Options:

A.

Performing vendor security benchmark analyses at the request-for-proposal (RFP) stage

B.

Ensuring security requirements are defined at the request-for-proposal (RFP) stage

C.

Extending security assessment to cover asset disposal on contract termination

D.

Extending security assessment to include random penetration testing

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Questions 100

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

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Questions 101

Which of the following functions is MOST critical when initiating the removal of system access for terminated employees?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Information security

C.

Help desk

D.

Human resources (HR)

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Questions 102

An organization is considering using a third party to host sensitive archived data. Which of the following is MOST important to verify before entering into the relationship?

Options:

A.

The vendor's data centers are in the same geographic region.

B.

The encryption keys are not provisled to the vendor.

C.

The vendor's controls are in line with the organization's security standards.

D.

Independent audits of the vendor's operations are regularly conducted.

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Questions 103

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls.

C.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security.

D.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk.

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Questions 104

A finance department director has decided to outsource the organization's budget application and has identified potential providers. Which of the following actions should be initiated FIRST by IN information security manager?

Options:

A.

Determine the required security controls for the new solution

B.

Review the disaster recovery plans (DRPs) of the providers

C.

Obtain audit reports on the service providers' hosting environment

D.

Align the roles of the organization's and the service providers' stats.

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Questions 105

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

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Questions 106

Which of the following would be the BEST way to reduce the risk of disruption resulting from an emergency system change?

Options:

A.

Confirm the change implementation is scheduled.

B.

Verify the change request has been approved.

C.

Confirm rollback plans are in place.

D.

Notify users affected by the change.

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Questions 107

Before approving the implementation of a new security solution, senior management requires a business case. Which of the following would BEST support the justification for investment?

Options:

A.

The solution contributes to business strategy.

B.

The solution improves business risk tolerance levels.

C.

The solution improves business resiliency.

D.

The solution reduces the cost of noncompliance with regulations.

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Questions 108

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

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Questions 109

Which of the following is the GREATEST value provided by a security information and event management (SIEM) system?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a repository base of security policies

B.

Measuring impact of exploits on business processes

C.

Facilitating the monitoring of risk occurrences

D.

Redirecting event logs to an alternate location for business continuity plan

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve compliance with new global regulations related to the protection of personal information?

Options:

A.

Execute a risk treatment plan.

B.

Review contracts and statements of work (SOWs) with vendors.

C.

Implement data regionalization controls.

D.

Determine current and desired state of controls.

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Questions 111

An information security manager wants to document requirements detailing the minimum security controls required for user workstations. Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for this purposed?

Options:

A.

Guidelines

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

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Questions 112

The PRIMARY reason to create and externally store the disk hash value when performing forensic data acquisition from a hard disk is to:

Options:

A.

validate the confidentiality during analysis.

B.

reinstate original data when accidental changes occur.

C.

validate the integrity during analysis.

D.

provide backup in case of media failure.

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Questions 113

Which of the following is the MOST important criterion when deciding whether to accept residual risk?

Options:

A.

Cost of replacing the asset

B.

Cost of additional mitigation

C.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Annual rate of occurrence

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Questions 114

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

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Questions 115

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

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Questions 116

An employee who is a remote user has copied financial data from the corporate server to a laptop using virtual private network (VPN) connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST important factor to determine if it should be classified as a data leakage incident?

Options:

A.

Review of the audit logs

B.

Ownership of the data

C.

Employee's job role

D.

Valid use case

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Questions 117

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 118

A new regulatory requirement affecting an organization's information security program is released. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Conduct benchmarking.

C.

Notify the legal department.

D.

Determine the disruption to the business.

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Questions 119

Which of the following is the PRIMARY preventive method to mitigate risks associated with privileged accounts?

Options:

A.

Eliminate privileged accounts.

B.

Perform periodic certification of access to privileged accounts.

C.

Frequently monitor activities on privileged accounts.

D.

Provide privileged account access only to users who need it.

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Questions 120

An information security program is BEST positioned for success when it is closely aligned with:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

recognized industry frameworks.

C.

information security policies.

D.

the information security strategy.

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Questions 121

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

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Questions 122

An organization has just updated its backup capability to a new cloud-based solution. Which of the following tests will MOST effectively verify this change is working as intended?

Options:

A.

Tabletop testing

B.

Black box testing

C.

Parallel testing

D.

Simulation testing

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Questions 123

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Questions 124

Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to present quarterly reports to the board on the status of the information security program?

Options:

A.

A capability and maturity assessment

B.

Detailed analysis of security program KPIs

C.

An information security dashboard

D.

An information security risk register

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 126

An organization is planning to outsource the execution of its disaster recovery activities. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in the outsourcing agreement?

Options:

A.

Definition of when a disaster should be declared

B.

Requirements for regularly testing backups

C.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

D.

The disaster recovery communication plan

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Questions 127

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 128

Which of the following is MOST important for the successful implementation of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring response staff are appropriately trained

B.

Developing metrics for incident response reporting

C.

Establishing an escalation process for the help desk

D.

Developing a RACI chart of response staff functions

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Questions 129

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to increase security awareness in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implement regularly scheduled information security audits.

B.

Require signed acknowledgment of information security policies.

C.

Conduct periodic simulated phishing exercises.

D.

Include information security requirements in job descriptions.

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Questions 130

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 131

Business objectives and organizational risk appetite are MOST useful inputs to the development of information security:

Options:

A.

strategy.

B.

risk assessments.

C.

key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

standards.

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Questions 132

An organization plans to implement a new e-commerce operation in a highly regulated market. Which of the following is MOST important to consider when updating the risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Strategy of industry peers

B.

Outsourcing needs

C.

Business culture

D.

Compliance requirements

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Questions 133

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

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Questions 134

Which of the following will BEST facilitate timely and effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Including penetration test results in incident response planning

B.

Assessing the risk of compromised assets

C.

Classifying the severity of an incident

D.

Notifying stakeholders when invoking the incident response plan

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Questions 135

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

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Questions 136

Which of the following is MOST likely to reduce the effectiveness of a SIEM system?

Options:

A.

Lack of multi-factor authentication (MFA) for system access

B.

Weakly encrypted log files

C.

Misconfiguration of alert thresholds

D.

Complex user interface

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Questions 137

Which of the following is the BEST way to address data availability concerns when outsourcing information security administration?

Options:

A.

Develop service level agreements (SLAs).

B.

Stipulate insurance requirements.

C.

Require nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).

D.

Create contingency plans.

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Questions 138

When is the BEST time to verify that a production system's security mechanisms meet control objectives?

Options:

A.

During quality and acceptance checks

B.

On a continuous basis through monitoring activities and automated tooling

C.

After remediations recommended by penetration tests have been completed

D.

During annual internal and compliance audits

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Questions 139

Which of the following risks is an example of risk transfer?

Options:

A.

Utilizing third-party applications

B.

Moving risk ownership to another department

C.

Conducting off-site backups

D.

Purchasing cybersecurity insurance

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Questions 140

An information security team has started work to mitigate findings from a recent penetration test. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Some findings were reclassified to low risk after evaluation

B.

Not all findings from the penetration test report were fixed

C.

The penetration testing report did not contain any high-risk findings

D.

Risk classification of penetration test findings was not performed

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Questions 141

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effectiveness of cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

B.

Utilizing industry-leading network penetration testing tools.

C.

Increasing communication with all incident response stakeholders.

D.

Continuously updating signatures of the anti-malware solution.

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Questions 142

What is the MOST important consideration for an organization operating in a highly regulated market when new regulatory requirements with high impact to the business need to be implemented?

Options:

A.

Engaging an external audit

B.

Establishing compensating controls

C.

Enforcing strong monitoring controls

D.

Conducting a gap analysis

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Questions 143

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 144

The MOST useful technique for maintaining management support for the information security program is:

Options:

A.

informing management about the security of business operations.

B.

implementing a comprehensive security awareness and training program.

C.

identifying the risks and consequences of failure to comply with standards.

D.

benchmarking the security programs of comparable organizations.

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Questions 145

Which of the following is MOST important for the improvement of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Incorporating lessons learned

B.

Implementing an IT resilience solution

C.

Implementing management reviews

D.

Documenting critical business processes

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Questions 146

Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the information security goxernance function?

Options:

A.

Administering information security awareness training

B.

Defining security strategies to support organizational programs

C.

Ensuring adequate support for solutions using emerging technologies

D.

Advising senior management on optimal levels of risk appetite and tolerance

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Questions 147

Which of the following provides the MOST effective response against ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Automatic quarantine of systems

B.

Thorough communication plans

C.

Effective backup plans and processes

D.

Strong password requirements

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Questions 148

Which of the following should an information security manager do NEXT after creating a roadmap to execute the strategy for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Obtain consensus on the strategy from the executive board.

B.

Review alignment with business goals.

C.

Define organizational risk tolerance.

D.

Develop a project plan to implement the strategy.

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Questions 149

Once a suite of security controls has been successfully implemented for an organization's business units, it is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

hand over the controls to the relevant business owners.

B.

ensure the controls are regularly tested for ongoing effectiveness.

C.

perform testing to compare control performance against industry levels.

D.

prepare to adapt the controls for future system upgrades.

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Questions 150

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor for information security program success?

Options:

A.

comprehensive risk assessment program for information security

B.

The information security manager's knowledge of the business

C.

Security staff with appropriate training and adequate resources

D.

Ongoing audits and addressing open items

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Questions 151

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security risk assessment is integrated into the life cycle of major IT projects?

Options:

A.

Training project managers on risk assessment

B.

Having the information security manager participate on the project steering committees

C.

Applying global security standards to the IT projects

D.

Integrating the risk assessment into the internal audit program

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Questions 152

Management decisions concerning information security investments will be MOST effective when they are based on:

Options:

A.

a process for identifying and analyzing threats and vulnerabilities.

B.

an annual loss expectancy (ALE) determined from the history of security events,

C.

the reporting of consistent and periodic assessments of risks.

D.

the formalized acceptance of risk analysis by management,

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Questions 153

Which of the following should be updated FIRST to account for new regulatory requirements that impact current information security controls?

Options:

A.

Control matrix

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Risk register

D.

Information security policy

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Questions 154

The PRIMARY goal when conducting post-incident reviews is to identify:

Options:

A.

Additional cybersecurity budget needs

B.

Weaknesses in incident response plans

C.

Information to be shared with senior management

D.

Individuals that need additional training

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Questions 155

When developing security processes for handling credit card data on the business unit's information system, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

ensure alignment with industry encryption standards.

B.

ensure that systems that handle credit card data are segmented.

C.

review industry best practices for handling secure payments.

D.

review corporate policies regarding credit card information.

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Questions 156

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization's risk tolerance.

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Questions 157

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Questions 158

Determining the risk for a particular threat/vulnerability pair before controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

B.

the magnitude of the impact, should a threat exploit a vulnerability.

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls over a vulnerability.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat attempting to exploit a vulnerability

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Questions 159

A business continuity plan (BCP) should contain:

Options:

A.

information about eradication activities.

B.

hardware and software inventories.

C.

data restoration procedures.

D.

criteria for activation.

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Questions 160

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate risk response when the risk impact has been determined to be immaterial and the likelihood is very low?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Avoid

C.

Transfer

D.

Accept

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Questions 161

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Questions 162

Unintentional behavior by an employee caused a major data loss incident. Which of the following is the BEST way for the information security manager to prevent recurrence within the organization?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls.

B.

Communicate consequences for future instances.

C.

Enhance the data loss prevention (DLP) solution.

D.

Improve the security awareness training program.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

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Questions 164

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Questions 165

An employee of an organization has reported losing a smartphone that contains sensitive information The BEST step to address this situation is to:

Options:

A.

disable the user's access to corporate resources.

B.

terminate the device connectivity.

C.

remotely wipe the device

D.

escalate to the user's management

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Questions 166

An information security manager notes that security incidents are not being appropriately escalated by the help desk after tickets are logged. Which of the following is the BEST automated control to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning in the help desk workflow

B.

Changing the default setting for all security incidents to the highest priority

C.

Integrating automated service level agreement (SLA) reporting into the help desk ticketing system

D.

Integrating incident response workflow into the help desk ticketing system

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Questions 167

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Questions 168

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 169

Which of the following trends would be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the performance of an organization's intrusion detection systems (IDSs)?

Options:

A.

Decrease in false positives

B.

Increase in false positives

C.

Increase in false negatives

D.

Decrease in false negatives

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Questions 170

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to ensure that incident response teams are properly prepared?

Options:

A.

Providing training from third-party forensics firms

B.

Obtaining industry certifications for the response team

C.

Conducting tabletop exercises appropriate for the organization

D.

Documenting multiple scenarios for the organization and response steps

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Questions 171

When developing a business case to justify an information security investment, which of the following would BEST enable an informed decision by senior management?

Options:

A.

The information security strategy

B.

Losses due to security incidents

C.

The results of a risk assessment

D.

Security investment trends in the industry

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Questions 172

A security review identifies that confidential information on the file server has been accessed by unauthorized users in the organization. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan

B.

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Remove access to the information

D.

Delete the information from the file server

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Questions 173

When collecting admissible evidence, which of the following is the MOST important requirement?

Options:

A.

Need to know

B.

Preserving audit logs

C.

Due diligence

D.

Chain of custody

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Questions 174

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is not co-mingled or exposed when using a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Obtain an independent audit report.

B.

Require the provider to follow stringent data classification procedures.

C.

Include high penalties for security breaches in the contract.

D.

Review the provider's information security policies.

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Questions 175

Which of the following would be the GREATEST obstacle to implementing incident notification and escalation processes in an organization with high turnover?

Options:

A.

Lack of knowledgeable personnel

B.

Lack of communication processes

C.

Lack of process documentation

D.

Lack of alignment with organizational goals

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Questions 176

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 177

A daily monitoring report reveals that an IT employee made a change to a firewall rule outside of the change control process. The information security manager's FIRST step in addressing the issue should be to:

Options:

A.

require that the change be reversed

B.

review the change management process

C.

perform an analysis of the change

D.

report the event to senior management

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Questions 178

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

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Questions 179

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 180

The PRIMARY goal of a post-incident review should be to:

Options:

A.

establish the cost of the incident to the business.

B.

determine why the incident occurred.

C.

identify policy changes to prevent a recurrence.

D.

determine how to improve the incident handling process.

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Questions 181

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to determine the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Program metrics

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Risk register

D.

Security strategy

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Questions 182

Management has announced the acquisition of a new company. The information security manager of the parent company is concerned that conflicting access rights may cause critical information to be exposed during the integration of the two companies. To BEST address this concern, the information security manager should:

Options:

A.

review access rights as the acquisition integration occurs.

B.

perform a risk assessment of the access rights.

C.

escalate concerns for conflicting access rights to management.

D.

implement consistent access control standards.

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Questions 183

Which of the following would provide the MOST value to senior management when presenting the results of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Mapping the risks to the security classification scheme

B.

Illustrating risk on a heat map

C.

Mapping the risks to existing controls

D.

Providing a technical risk assessment report

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Questions 184

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Questions 185

An employee clicked on a malicious link in an email that resulted in compromising company data. What is the BEST way to mitigate this risk in the future?

Options:

A.

Conduct phishing awareness training.

B.

Implement disciplinary procedures.

C.

Establish an acceptable use policy.

D.

Assess and update spam filtering rules.

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Questions 186

An information security manager is alerted to multiple security incidents across different business units, with unauthorized access to sensitive data and potential data exfiltration from critical systems. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to appropriately classify and prioritize these incidents?

Options:

A.

Assemble the incident response team to evaluate the incidents

B.

Initiate the crisis communication plan to notify stakeholders of the incidents

C.

Engage external incident response consultants to conduct an independent investigation

D.

Prioritize the incidents based on data classification standards

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Questions 187

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 188

A newly appointed information security manager of a retailer with multiple stores discovers an HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning) vendor has remote access to the stores to enable real-time monitoring and equipment diagnostics. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a penetration test of the vendor.

B.

Review the vendor's technical security controls

C.

Review the vendor contract

D.

Disconnect the real-time access

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Questions 189

Which of the following metrics BEST demonstrates the effectiveness of an organization's security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Number of security incidents reported to the help desk

B.

Percentage of employees who regularly attend security training

C.

Percentage of employee computers and devices infected with malware

D.

Number of phishing emails viewed by end users

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Questions 190

A new information security manager finds that the organization tends to use short-term solutions to address problems. Resource allocation and spending are not effectively tracked, and there is no assurance that compliance requirements are being met. What should be done FIRST to reverse this bottom-up approach to security?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat analysis.

B.

Implement an information security awareness training program.

C.

Establish an audit committee.

D.

Create an information security steering committee.

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Questions 191

Which of the following is MOST important to include in security incident escalation procedures?

Options:

A.

Key objectives of the security program

B.

Recovery procedures

C.

Notification criteria

D.

Containment procedures

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Questions 192

To confirm that a third-party provider complies with an organization's information security requirements, it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

security metrics are included in the service level agreement (SLA).

B.

contract clauses comply with the organization's information security policy.

C.

the information security policy of the third-party service provider is reviewed.

D.

right to audit is included in the service level agreement (SLA).

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Questions 193

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager when evaluating a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Data retention policies are not documented

B.

There is no right to audit the security of the provider

C.

The provider is new to the market and lacks references

D.

Security controls offered by the provider are inadequate

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Questions 194

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

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Questions 195

Which of the following is MOST difficult to measure following an information security breach?

Options:

A.

Reputational damage

B.

Human resource costs

C.

Regulatory sanctions

D.

Replacement efforts

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Questions 196

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to review the firewall logs when an external network-based attack is reported by the intrusion detection system (IDS)?

Options:

A.

To validate the incident

B.

To review network configurations

C.

To validate the payload signature

D.

To devise the incident response strategy

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Questions 197

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

Options:

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

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Questions 198

When developing an information security strategy for an organization, which of the following is MOST helpful for understanding where to focus efforts?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Project plans

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 199

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the organization's security objectives are embedded in business operations?

Options:

A.

Publish adopted information security standards.

B.

Perform annual information security compliance reviews.

C.

Implement an information security governance framework.

D.

Define penalties for information security noncompliance.

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Questions 200

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority during an information security post-incident review?

Options:

A.

Documenting actions taken in sufficient detail

B.

Updating key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Evaluating the performance of incident response team members

D.

Evaluating incident response effectiveness

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Questions 201

A proposal designed to gain buy-in from senior management for a new security project will be MOST effective if it includes:

Options:

A.

analysis of current threat landscape.

B.

historical data of reported incidents.

C.

projected return on investment (ROI).

D.

industry benchmarking gap analysis.

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Questions 202

Which of the following is the BEST course of action if the business activity residual risk is lower than the acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor the effectiveness of controls

B.

Update the risk assessment framework

C.

Review the inherent risk level

D.

Review the risk probability and impact

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Questions 203

The PRIMARY goal of the eradication phase in an incident response process is to:

Options:

A.

maintain a strict chain of custody.

B.

provide effective triage and containment of the incident.

C.

remove the threat and restore affected systems

D.

obtain forensic evidence from the affected system.

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Questions 204

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

Options:

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

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Questions 205

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

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Questions 206

Senior management recently approved a mobile access policy that conflicts with industry best practices. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action when developing security standards for mobile access to the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Align the standards with the organizational policy.

B.

Align the standards with industry best practices.

C.

Resolve the discrepancy before developing the standards.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis of aligning the standards to policy.

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Questions 207

Which of the following is the BEST defense-in-depth implementation for protecting high value assets or for handling environments that have trust concerns?

Options:

A.

Compartmentalization

B.

Overlapping redundancy

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Multi-factor authentication

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the BEST way to enhance training for incident response teams?

Options:

A.

Perform post-incident reviews.

B.

Establish incident key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Conduct interviews with organizational units.

D.

Participate in emergency response activities.

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Questions 209

Which or the following is MOST important to consider when determining backup frequency?

Options:

A.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Allowable interruption window

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 210

An organization has identified an increased threat of external brute force attacks in its environment. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk to the organization's critical systems?

Options:

A.

Implement multi-factor authentication.

B.

Increase the frequency of log monitoring and analysis.

C.

Implement a security information and event management system (SIEM),

D.

Increase the sensitivity of intrusion detection systems (IDSs).

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Questions 211

An organization requires that business-critical applications be recovered within 30 minutes in the event of a disaster. Which of the following metrics should be defined in the business continuity plan (BCP) to manage this requirement?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

C.

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Questions 212

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?

Options:

A.

Incident management procedures

B.

Incident management policy

C.

System risk assessment

D.

Organizational risk register

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Questions 213

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Questions 214

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

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Questions 215

When management changes the enterprise business strategy which of the following processes should be used to evaluate the existing information security controls as well as to select new information security controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Risk management

C.

Access control management

D.

Change management

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Questions 216

Which of the following BEST enables staff acceptance of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Strong senior management support

B.

Gomputer-based training

C.

Arobust incident response program

D.

Adequate security funding

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Questions 217

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 218

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

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Questions 219

During a post-incident review, it was determined that a known vulnerability was exploited in order to gain access to a system. The vulnerability was patched as part of the remediation on the offending system. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Install patches on all existing systems.

B.

Review the vulnerability management process.

C.

Report the root cause of the vulnerability to senior management.

D.

Scan to determine whether the vulnerability is present on other systems.

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Questions 220

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls

C.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

D.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security

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Questions 221

The categorization of incidents is MOST important for evaluating which of the following?

Options:

A.

Appropriate communication channels

B.

Allocation of needed resources

C.

Risk severity and incident priority

D.

Response and containment requirements

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Questions 222

Which of the following is the BEST strategy when determining an organization’s approach to risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Advancing the maturity of existing controls based on risk tolerance

B.

Prioritizing controls that directly mitigate the organization's most critical risks

C.

Implementing risk mitigation controls that are considered quick wins

D.

Implementing a one-size-fits-all set of controls across all organizational units

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Questions 223

When choosing the best controls to mitigate risk to acceptable levels, the information security manager's decision should be MAINLY driven by:

Options:

A.

best practices.

B.

control framework

C.

regulatory requirements.

D.

cost-benefit analysis,

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Questions 224

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

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Questions 225

Which of the following events would MOST likely require a revision to the information security program?

Options:

A.

An increase in industry threat level .

B.

A significant increase in reported incidents

C.

A change in IT management

D.

A merger with another organization

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Questions 226

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 227

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk of security incidents from targeted email attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement a data loss prevention (DLP) system

B.

Disable all incoming cloud mail services

C.

Conduct awareness training across the organization

D.

Require acknowledgment of the acceptable use policy

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Questions 228

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 229

The business value of an information asset is derived from:

Options:

A.

the threat profile.

B.

its criticality.

C.

the risk assessment.

D.

its replacement cost.

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Questions 230

An organization recently updated and published its information security policy and standards. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Communicate the changes to stakeholders.

C.

Update the organization's risk register.

D.

Develop a policy exception process.

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Questions 231

An organization has introduced a new bring your own device (BYOD) program. The security manager has determined that a small number of employees are utilizing free cloud storage services to store company data through their mobile devices. Which of the following is the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Allow the practice to continue temporarily for monitoring purposes.

B.

Disable the employees' remote access to company email and data

C.

Initiate remote wipe of the devices

D.

Assess the business need to provide a secure solution

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Questions 232

Which of the following is the BEST tool to use for identifying and correlating intrusion attempt alerts?

Options:

A.

Threat analytics software

B.

Host intrusion detection system

C.

SIEM

D.

Network intrusion detection system

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Questions 233

Internal audit has reported a number of information security issues that are not in compliance with regulatory requirements. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a security exception.

B.

Perform a gap analysis to determine needed resources.

C.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Assess the risk to business operations.

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Questions 234

A data discovery project uncovers an unclassified process document. Of the following, who is BEST suited to determine the classification?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Security policy author

C.

Creator of the document

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 235

Which of the following parties should be responsible for determining access levels to an application that processes client information?

Options:

A.

The business client

B.

The information security tear

C.

The identity and access management team

D.

Business unit management

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Questions 236

A penetration test was conducted by an accredited third party. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ensure a risk assessment is performed to evaluate the findings

B.

Ensure vulnerabilities found are resolved within acceptable timeframes

C.

Request funding needed to resolve the top vulnerabilities

D.

Report findings to senior management

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Questions 237

When multiple Internet intrusions on a server are detected, the PRIMARY concern of the information security manager should be to ensure:

Options:

A.

the integrity of evidence is preserved.

B.

forensic investigation software is loaded on the server.

C.

the incident is reported to senior management.

D.

the server is unplugged from power.

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Questions 238

Which of the following BEST enables an incident response team to determine appropriate actions during an initial investigation?

Options:

A.

Feedback from affected departments

B.

Historical data from past incidents

C.

Technical capabilities of the team

D.

Procedures for incident triage

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Questions 239

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

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Questions 240

When determining an acceptable risk level which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

Threat profiles

B.

System criticalities

C.

Vulnerability scores

D.

Risk matrices

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Questions 241

Which of the following is the GREATEST challenge when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Limiting the number of KRIs

B.

Comprehensively reporting on KRIs

C.

Aggregating common KRIs

D.

Linking KRIs to specific risks

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Questions 242

Which of the following activities MUST be performed by an information security manager for change requests?

Options:

A.

Perform penetration testing on affected systems.

B.

Scan IT systems for operating system vulnerabilities.

C.

Review change in business requirements for information security.

D.

Assess impact on information security risk.

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Questions 243

Which of the following BEST ensures timely and reliable access to services?

Options:

A.

Nonrepudiation

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 244

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective information security awareness training program?

Options:

A.

An increase in the frequency of phishing tests

B.

An increase in positive user feedback

C.

An increase in the speed of incident resolution

D.

An increase in the identification rate during phishing simulations

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Questions 245

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 246

An organization experienced a loss of revenue during a recent disaster. Which of the following would BEST prepare the organization to recover?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

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Questions 247

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 248

An organization has updated its business goals in the middle of the fiscal year to respond to changes in market conditions. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to update in support of the new goals?

Options:

A.

Information security threat profile

B.

Information security policy

C.

Information security objectives

D.

Information security strategy

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Questions 249

Which of the following is the BEST method to protect against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Providing ongoing training to the incident response team

B.

Implementing proactive systems monitoring

C.

Implementing a honeypot environment

D.

Updating information security awareness materials

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Questions 250

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when there is a conflict between the organization's information security policy and a local regulation?

Options:

A.

Enforce the local regulation.

B.

Obtain legal guidance.

C.

Enforce the organization's information security policy.

D.

Obtain an independent assessment of the regulation.

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Questions 251

Of the following, who is BEST positioned to be accountable for risk acceptance decisions based on risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

C.

Information security steering committee

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 252

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Questions 253

As part of incident response activities, the BEST time to begin the recovery process is after:

Options:

A.

The eradication phase has been completed

B.

The incident response team has been established

C.

The root cause has been determined

D.

The incident manager has declared the incident

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Questions 254

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Questions 255

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on efforts to improve an organization's security posture?

Options:

A.

Regular reporting to senior management

B.

Supportive tone at the top regarding security

C.

Automation of security controls

D.

Well-documented security policies and procedures

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Questions 256

Which of the following is the MOST important role of the information security manager when the organization is in the process of adopting emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Assessing how peer organizations using the same technologies have been impacted

B.

Understanding the impact on existing resources

C.

Reviewing vendor contracts and service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Developing training for end users to familiarize them with the new technology

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Questions 257

Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent insider threats?

Options:

A.

Enforce separation of duties and least privilege access.

B.

Conduct organization-wide security awareness training.

C.

Implement logging for all access activities.

D.

Implement strict security policies and password controls.

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Questions 258

Which of the following BEST supports information security management in the event of organizational changes in security personnel?

Options:

A.

Formalizing a security strategy and program

B.

Developing an awareness program for staff

C.

Ensuring current documentation of security processes

D.

Establishing processes within the security operations team

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Questions 259

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when developing an incident response strategy with a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes

B.

Technological capabilities

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Security audit reports

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Questions 260

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 261

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

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Questions 262

Which of the following should be the GREATEST consideration when determining the recovery time objective (RTO) for an in-house critical application, database, or server?

Options:

A.

Impact of service interruption

B.

Results of recovery testing

C.

Determination of recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Direction from senior management

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Questions 263

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

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Questions 264

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when reviewing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Recent security incidents

B.

New business initiatives

C.

Industry security standards

D.

Internal audit findings

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Questions 265

What should an information security manager do FIRST when an organization is planning to use a third-party cloud computing service for a critical business process?

Options:

A.

Identify the data to be hosted.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Analyze the business requirements.

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Questions 266

Which of the following is the MOST essential element of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking the program with global standards for relevance

B.

Prioritizing program deliverables based on available resources

C.

Involving functional managers in program development

D.

Applying project management practices used by the business

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Questions 267

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of a comprehensive information security policy?

Options:

A.

Alignment with an established information security framework

B.

An established internal audit program

C.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Areview of recent information security incidents

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Questions 268

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

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Questions 269

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to a large multinational organization using an automated identity and access management (1AM) system?

Options:

A.

Staff turnover rates that significantly exceed industry averages

B.

Large number of applications in the organization

C.

Inaccurate workforce data from human resources (HR)

D.

Frequent changes to user roles during employment

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Questions 270

When building support for an information security program, which of the following elements is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Identification of existing vulnerabilities

B.

Information risk assessment

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

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Questions 271

An organization involved in e-commerce activities operating from its home country opened a new office in another country with stringent security laws. In this scenario, the overall security strategy should be based on:

Options:

A.

the security organization structure.

B.

international security standards.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

the most stringent requirements.

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Questions 272

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 273

During the implementation of a new system, which of the following processes proactively minimizes the likelihood of disruption, unauthorized alterations, and errors?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Password management

C.

Change management

D.

Version management

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Questions 274

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when shifting IT operations to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model hosted in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Labeling of data may help to ensure data is assigned to the correct cloud type.

B.

Laws and regulations of the origin country may not be applicable.

C.

There may be liabilities and penalties in the event of a security breach.

D.

Data may be stored in unknown locations and may not be easily retrievable.

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Questions 275

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

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Questions 276

Which of the following is established during the preparation phase of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Chain of custody procedures

C.

Stakeholder communication plan

D.

Mean time to respond (MTTR)

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Questions 277

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of managed security solutions?

Options:

A.

Wider range of capabilities

B.

Easier implementation across an organization

C.

Greater ability to focus on core business operations

D.

Lower cost of operations

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Questions 278

An email digital signature will:

Options:

A.

protect the confidentiality of an email message.

B.

verify to recipient the integrity of an email message.

C.

automatically correct unauthorized modification of an email message.

D.

prevent unauthorized modification of an email message.

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Questions 279

Which of the following would BEST guide the development and maintenance of an information security program?

Options:

A.

A business impact assessment

B.

A comprehensive risk register

C.

An established risk assessment process

D.

The organization's risk appetite

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Questions 280

Senior management has just accepted the risk of noncompliance with a new regulation What should the information security manager do NEX*P

Options:

A.

Report the decision to the compliance officer

B.

Update details within the risk register.

C.

Reassess the organization's risk tolerance.

D.

Assess the impact of the regulation.

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Questions 281

Which of the following would BEST demonstrate the status of an organization's information security program to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Information security program metrics

B.

Results of a recent external audit

C.

The information security operations matrix

D.

Changes to information security risks

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Questions 282

Which of the following is MOST important to include in monthly information security reports to the board?

Options:

A.

Trend analysis of security metrics

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Root cause analysis of security incidents

D.

Threat intelligence

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Questions 283

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

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Questions 284

Which of the following BEST protects against emerging advanced persistent threat (APT) actors?

Options:

A.

Honeypot environment

B.

Updated security awareness materials

C.

Ongoing incident response training

D.

Proactive monitoring

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Questions 285

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a SIEM flags a potential event?

Options:

A.

Validate the event is not a false positive.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Escalate the event to the business owner.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Questions 286

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

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Questions 287

An organization plans to offer clients a new service that is subject to regulations. What should the organization do FIRST when developing a security strategy in support of this new service?

Options:

A.

Determine security controls for the new service.

B.

Establish a compliance program,

C.

Perform a gap analysis against the current state

D.

Hire new resources to support the service.

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Questions 288

When analyzing the emerging risk and threat landscape, an information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

determine the impact if threats materialize.

B.

determine the sources of emerging threats.

C.

review historical threats within the industry.

D.

map threats to business assets.

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Questions 289

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Implement a mobile device policy and standard.

B.

Provide employee training on secure mobile device practices.

C.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution.

D.

Require employees to install an effective anti-malware app.

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Questions 290

Which of the following will provide the MOST guidance when deciding the level of protection for an information asset?

Options:

A.

Impact on information security program

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Impact to business function

D.

Cost to replace

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Questions 291

Which of the following is MOST important in increasing the effectiveness of incident responders?

Options:

A.

Communicating with the management team

B.

Integrating staff with the IT department

C.

Testing response scenarios

D.

Reviewing the incident response plan annually

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Aug 20, 2025
Questions: 967
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