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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following metrics is MOST appropriate for evaluating the incident notification process?

Options:

A.

Average total cost of downtime per reported incident

B.

Elapsed time between response and resolution

C.

Average number of incidents per reporting period

D.

Elapsed time between detection, reporting, and response

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Questions 5

Prior to conducting a forensic examination, an information security manager should:

Options:

A.

boot the original hard disk on a clean system.

B.

create an image of the original data on new media.

C.

duplicate data from the backup media.

D.

shut down and relocate the server.

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Questions 6

Which of the following would be the GREATEST threat posed by a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack on a public-facing web server?

Options:

A.

Execution of unauthorized commands

B.

Prevention of authorized access

C.

Defacement of website content

D.

Unauthorized access to resources

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for logging firewall activity?

Options:

A.

Metrics reporting

B.

Firewall tuning

C.

Intrusion prevention

D.

Incident investigation

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Questions 8

Which of the following is the BEST way to address data availability concerns when outsourcing information security administration?

Options:

A.

Develop service level agreements (SLAs).

B.

Stipulate insurance requirements.

C.

Require nondisclosure agreements (NDAs).

D.

Create contingency plans.

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Questions 9

Which is MOST important to identify when developing an effective information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Security awareness training needs

B.

Potential savings resulting from security governance

C.

Business assets to be secured

D.

Residual risk levels

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Questions 10

When establishing an information security governance framework, it is MOST important for an information security manager to understand:

Options:

A.

information security best practices.

B.

risk management techniques.

C.

the threat environment.

D.

the corporate culture.

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Questions 11

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure incident management readiness?

Options:

A.

The plan is compliant with industry standards.

B.

The plan is regularly tested.

C.

The plan is updated annually.

D.

The plan is concise and includes a checklist.

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Questions 12

Which of the following is the BEST justification for making a revision to a password policy?

Options:

A.

Vendor recommendation

B.

Audit recommendation

C.

A risk assessment

D.

Industry best practice

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Questions 13

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after identifying suspicious activity on a PC that is not in the organization's IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Isolate the PC from the network

B.

Perform a vulnerability scan

C.

Determine why the PC is not included in the inventory

D.

Reinforce information security training

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Questions 14

Which of the following metrics would provide an accurate measure of an information security program's performance?

Options:

A.

A collection of qualitative indicators that accurately measure security exceptions

B.

A combination of qualitative and quantitative trends that enable decision making

C.

A collection of quantitative indicators that are compared against industry benchmarks

D.

A single numeric score derived from various measures assigned to the security program

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Questions 15

An information security manager notes that security incidents are not being appropriately escalated by the help desk after tickets are logged. Which of the following is the BEST automated control to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning in the help desk workflow

B.

Changing the default setting for all security incidents to the highest priority

C.

Integrating automated service level agreement (SLA) reporting into the help desk ticketing system

D.

Integrating incident response workflow into the help desk ticketing system

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Questions 16

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for an information security manager to align security and business goals?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Reviewing the business strategy

C.

Defining key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Actively engaging with stakeholders

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Questions 17

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 18

Which of the following would BEST enable the timely execution of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The introduction of a decision support tool

B.

Definition of trigger events

C.

Clearly defined data classification process

D.

Centralized service desk

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Questions 19

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 20

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 21

In order to gain organization-wide support for an information security program, which of the following is MOST important to consider?

Options:

A.

Maturity of the security policy

B.

Clarity of security roles and responsibilities

C.

Corporate culture

D.

Corporate risk framework

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Questions 22

An organization uses a security standard that has undergone a major revision by the certifying authority. The old version of the standard will no longer be used for organizations wishing to maintain their certifications. Which of the following should be the FIRST

course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the cost of maintaining the certification.

B.

Review the new standard for applicability to the business.

C.

Modify policies to ensure new requirements are covered.

D.

Communicate the new standard to senior leadership.

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Questions 23

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

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Questions 24

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a lessons learned exercise following a successful response to a cybersecurity incident?

Options:

A.

Establishing the root cause of the incident

B.

Identifying attack vectors utilized in the incident

C.

When business operations were restored after the incident

D.

How incident management processes were executed

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Questions 25

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization that maintains an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Resources are prioritized to maximize return on investment (ROI)

B.

Information security guidelines are communicated across the enterprise_

C.

The organization remains compliant with regulatory requirements.

D.

Business risks are managed to an acceptable level.

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Questions 26

Which of the following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY concern when an organization is expanding business to a new country?

Options:

A.

Compliance with local regulations

B.

Changes in IT infrastructure

C.

Cultural differences in the new country

D.

Ability to gather customer data

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Questions 27

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when shifting IT operations to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model hosted in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Labeling of data may help to ensure data is assigned to the correct cloud type.

B.

Laws and regulations of the origin country may not be applicable.

C.

There may be liabilities and penalties in the event of a security breach.

D.

Data may be stored in unknown locations and may not be easily retrievable.

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Questions 28

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 29

The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:

Options:

A.

increase efficiency of access management

B.

increase the security of related applications.

C.

strengthen user passwords.

D.

support multiple authentication mechanisms.

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Questions 30

An organization would like to invest in a new emerging technology. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to consider when evaluating its impact?

Options:

A.

Secure configuration

B.

Vulnerabilities in the technology

C.

Systems compatibility

D.

Industry peer reviews of the technology

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Questions 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY preventive method to mitigate risks associated with privileged accounts?

Options:

A.

Eliminate privileged accounts.

B.

Perform periodic certification of access to privileged accounts.

C.

Frequently monitor activities on privileged accounts.

D.

Provide privileged account access only to users who need it.

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Questions 32

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

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Questions 34

When properly implemented, secure transmission protocols protect transactions:

Options:

A.

from eavesdropping.

B.

from denial of service (DoS) attacks.

C.

on the client desktop.

D.

in the server's database.

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Questions 35

Which of the following is MOST useful to an information security manager when determining the need to escalate an incident to senior?

Options:

A.

Incident management procedures

B.

Incident management policy

C.

System risk assessment

D.

Organizational risk register

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Questions 36

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

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Questions 37

Which of the following is the BEST defense against a brute force attack?

Options:

A.

Time-of-day restrictions

B.

Mandatory access control

C.

Discretionary access control

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

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Questions 38

Who is accountable for ensuring proper controls are in place to address the confidentiality and availability of an information system?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Information owner

C.

Business manager

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 39

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to the recovery of critical systems and data following a ransomware incident?

Options:

A.

Lack of encryption for backup data in transit

B.

Undefined or undocumented backup retention policies

C.

Ineffective alert configurations for backup operations

D.

Unavailable or corrupt data backups

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Questions 40

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that a recently established infofmation security program is effective?

Options:

A.

The number of reported incidents has increased

B.

Regular IT balanced scorecards are communicated.

C.

Senior management has reported fewer junk emails.

D.

The number of tickets associated with IT incidents have stayed consistent

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Questions 41

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an incident response plan to ensure incidents are responded to by the appropriate individuals?

Options:

A.

Skills required for the incident response team

B.

A list of external resources to assist with incidents

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A detailed incident notification process

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Questions 42

Which of the following BEST indicates that information security governance and corporate governance are integrated?

Options:

A.

The information security team is aware of business goals.

B.

The board is regularly informed of information security key performance indicators (KPIs),

C.

The information security steering committee is composed of business leaders.

D.

A cost-benefit analysis is conducted on all information security initiatives.

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Questions 43

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon confirming a privileged user's unauthorized modifications to a security application?

Options:

A.

Report the risk associated with the policy breach.

B.

Enforce the security configuration and require the change to be reverted.

C.

Implement compensating controls to address the risk.

D.

Implement a privileged access management system.

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Questions 44

Which of the following is the BEST approach to incident response for an organization migrating to a cloud-based solution?

Options:

A.

Adopt the cloud provider's incident response procedures.

B.

Transfer responsibility for incident response to the cloud provider.

C.

Continue using the existing incident response procedures.

D.

Revise incident response procedures to encompass the cloud environment.

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Questions 45

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when confidential information is inadvertently disseminated outside the organization?

Options:

A.

Review compliance requirements.

B.

Communicate the exposure.

C.

Declare an incident.

D.

Change the encryption keys.

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Questions 46

A security review identifies that confidential information on the file server has been accessed by unauthorized users in the organization. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Invoke the incident response plan

B.

Implement role-based access control (RBAC)

C.

Remove access to the information

D.

Delete the information from the file server

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Questions 47

An organization requires that business-critical applications be recovered within 30 minutes in the event of a disaster. Which of the following metrics should be in the business continuity plan (BCP) to manage this requirement?

Options:

A.

Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

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Questions 48

Which of the following is an information security manager's MOST important course of action after receiving information about a new cybersecurity threat?

Options:

A.

Assess the impact of the new threat on the organization in the event of materialization.

B.

Update correlation rules for log monitoring to detect the possible emerging threat.

C.

Report the threat to senior management immediately to enable an informed decision.

D.

Review the enterprise architecture (EA) for vulnerabilities exploited by the threat.

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Questions 49

Which of the following BEST indicates the effectiveness of a recent information security awareness campaign delivered across the organization?

Options:

A.

Decrease in the number of security incidents

B.

Increase in the frequency of security incident escalations

C.

Reduction in the impact of security incidents

D.

Increase in the number of reported security incidents

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Questions 50

A department has reported that a security control is no longer effective. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Replace the control

B.

Check for defense in depth

C.

Assess the control state

D.

Report the failure to management

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Questions 51

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

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Questions 52

A security incident has been reported within an organization When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been mitigated

B.

After the incident has been confirmed.

C.

After the potential incident has been togged

D.

After the incident has been contained

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Questions 53

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 54

To effectively manage an organization's information security risk, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

assign risk management responsibility to an experienced consultant.

B.

periodically identify and correct new systems vulnerabilities.

C.

establish and communicate risk tolerance.

D.

benchmark risk scenarios against peer organizations.

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Questions 55

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been contained

B.

After the incident has been mitigated

C.

After the incident has been confirmed

D.

After the potential incident has been logged

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Questions 56

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Questions 57

The PRIMARY purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure:

Options:

A.

control gaps are minimized.

B.

system availability.

C.

effectiveness of controls.

D.

alignment with compliance requirements.

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Questions 58

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

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Questions 59

The ULTIMATE responsibility for ensuring the objectives of an information security framework are being met belongs to:

Options:

A.

)the information security officer.

B.

the steering committee.

C.

the board of directors.

D.

the internal audit manager.

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Questions 60

An organization's quality process can BEST support security management by providing:

Options:

A.

security configuration controls.

B.

assurance that security requirements are met.

C.

guidance for security strategy.

D.

a repository for security systems documentation.

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Questions 61

After a ransomware incident an organization's systems were restored. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

The service level agreement (SLA) was not met.

B.

The recovery time objective (RTO) was not met.

C.

The root cause was not identified.

D.

Notification to stakeholders was delayed.

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Questions 62

Capacity planning would prevent:

Options:

A.

file system overload arising from distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks.

B.

system downtime for scheduled security maintenance.

C.

application failures arising from insufficient hardware resources.

D.

software failures arising from exploitation of buffer capacity vulnerabilities.

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Questions 63

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

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Questions 64

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 65

Which of the following is MOST important for the improvement of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Incorporating lessons learned

B.

Implementing an IT resilience solution

C.

Implementing management reviews

D.

Documenting critical business processes

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Questions 66

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Questions 67

Which of the following BEST demonstrates that an anti-phishing campaign is effective?

Options:

A.

Improved staff attendance in awareness sessions

B.

Decreased number of phishing emails received

C.

Improved feedback on the anti-phishing campaign

D.

Decreased number of incidents that have occurred

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Questions 68

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform regular reviews of the cybersecurity threat landscape?

Options:

A.

To compare emerging trends with the existing organizational security posture

B.

To communicate worst-case scenarios to senior management

C.

To train information security professionals to mitigate new threats

D.

To determine opportunities for expanding organizational information security

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Questions 69

Predetermined containment methods to be used in a cybersecurity incident response should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

number of impacted users.

B.

capability of incident handlers.

C.

type of confirmed incident.

D.

predicted incident duration.

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Questions 70

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 71

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

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Questions 72

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the inherent risk of an information asset?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Net present value (NPV)

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Business criticality

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Questions 73

Which of the following BEST prepares a computer incident response team for a variety of information security scenarios?

Options:

A.

Forensics certification

B.

Disaster recovery drills

C.

Tabletop exercises

D.

Penetration tests

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Questions 74

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 75

In violation of a policy prohibiting the use of cameras at the office, employees have been issued smartphones and tablet computers with enabled web cameras. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Revise the policy.

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment,

D.

Communicate the acceptable use policy.

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Questions 76

When is the BEST time to verify that a production system's security mechanisms meet control objectives?

Options:

A.

During quality and acceptance checks

B.

On a continuous basis through monitoring activities and automated tooling

C.

After remediations recommended by penetration tests have been completed

D.

During annual internal and compliance audits

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Questions 77

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST recommendation to senior management following a breach at the organization's Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Update the vendor risk assessment.

B.

Engage legal counsel.

C.

Renegotiate the vendor contract.

D.

Terminate the relationship with the vendor.

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Questions 78

Which of the following BEST indicates misalignment of security policies with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Low completion rate of employee awareness training

B.

Lack of adequate funding for the security program

C.

A large number of long-term policy exceptions

D.

A large number of user noncompliance incidents

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 80

Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain organization-wide support for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Mandate regular security awareness training.

B.

Develop security performance metrics.

C.

Position security as a business enabler.

D.

Prioritize security initiatives based on IT strategy.

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Questions 81

Which of the following will BEST enable an effective information asset classification process?

Options:

A.

Including security requirements in the classification process

B.

Analyzing audit findings

C.

Reviewing the recovery time objective (RTO) requirements of the asset

D.

Assigning ownership

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Questions 82

Which of the following BEST determines the data retention strategy and subsequent policy for an organization?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business requirements

C.

Supplier requirements

D.

Risk appetite

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Questions 83

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

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Questions 84

Which of the following is the BEST approach when creating a security policy for a global organization subject to varying laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Incorporate policy statements derived from third-party standards and benchmarks.

B.

Adhere to a unique corporate privacy and security standard

C.

Establish baseline standards for all locations and add supplemental standards as required

D.

Require that all locations comply with a generally accepted set of industry

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Questions 85

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

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Questions 86

An organization is in the process of defining policies for employee use of social media. It is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

Assign accountability for monitoring social media

B.

Identify security monitoring tools

C.

Evaluate risks to the organization

D.

Develop security awareness training

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Questions 87

Which is the BEST method to evaluate the effectiveness of an alternate processing site when continuous uptime is required?

Options:

A.

Parallel test

B.

Full interruption test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Tabletop test

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Questions 88

Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when developing an incident response strategy with a cloud provider?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes

B.

Technological capabilities

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Security audit reports

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Questions 89

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to validate user access requirements during an annual user access review?

Options:

A.

Access manager

B.

IT director

C.

System administrator

D.

Business owner

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Questions 90

When mitigation is the chosen risk treatment, which of the following roles is responsible for effective implementation of the chosen treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Business system owner

D.

Application owner

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Questions 91

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) related to information security?

Options:

A.

To alert on unacceptable risk

B.

To identify residual risk

C.

To reassess risk appetite

D.

To benchmark control performance

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Questions 92

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 93

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place as a basis for developing an effective information security program that supports the organization's business goals?

Options:

A.

Metrics to drive the information security program

B.

Information security policies

C.

A defined security organizational structure

D.

An information security strategy

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Questions 94

When taking a risk-based approach to vulnerability management, which of the following is MOST important to consider when prioritizing a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

The information available about the vulnerability

B.

The sensitivity of the asset and the data it contains

C.

IT resource availability and constraints

D.

Whether patches have been developed and tested

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Questions 95

An information security manager has confirmed the organization's cloud provider has unintentionally published some of the organization's business data. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify users associated with the exposed data.

B.

Initiate the organization's data loss prevention (DLP) processes.

C.

Review the cloud provider's service level agreement (SLA).

D.

Invoke the incident response plan.

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Questions 96

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Questions 97

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an inforrnation security manager contact the information owner? After the:

Options:

A.

incident has been confirmed.

B.

incident has been contained.

C.

potential incident has been logged.

D.

incident has been mitigated.

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Questions 98

The PRIMARY purpose for deploying information security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

compare program effectiveness to benchmarks.

B.

support ongoing security budget requirements.

C.

ensure that technical operations meet specifications.

D.

provide information needed to make decisions.

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Questions 99

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on the development of information security policies?

Options:

A.

Business strategy

B.

Past and current threats

C.

IT security framework

D.

Industry standards

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Questions 100

Which of the following functions is MOST critical when initiating the removal of system access for terminated employees?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Information security

C.

Help desk

D.

Human resources (HR)

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Questions 101

What type of control is being implemented when a security information and event management (SIEM) system is installed?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Deterrent

C.

Detective

D.

Corrective

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Questions 102

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to detect security incidents?

Options:

A.

Analyze recent security risk assessments.

B.

Analyze security anomalies.

C.

Analyze penetration test results.

D.

Analyze vulnerability assessments.

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Questions 103

Meeting which of the following security objectives BEST ensures that information is protected against unauthorized disclosure?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Nonrepudiation

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Questions 104

Which of the following is MOST important to maintain integration among the incident response plan, business continuity plan (BCP). and disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Asset classification

B.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Escalation procedures

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Questions 105

When designing a disaster recovery plan (DRP), which of the following MUST be available in order to prioritize system restoration?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Recovery procedures

D.

Systems inventory

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Questions 106

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Questions 107

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an information security manager in a software development project?

Options:

A.

To enhance awareness for secure software design

B.

To assess and approve the security application architecture

C.

To identify noncompliance in the early design stage

D.

To identify software security weaknesses

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Questions 108

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining whether a phishing email is malicious?

Options:

A.

Security awareness training

B.

Reverse engineering

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Sandboxing

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Questions 109

A global organization has outsourced security processes to a service provider by means of a global agreement. What is the MOST efficient approach to meet country-specific regulatory requirements?

Options:

A.

Include binding corporate rules into the global agreement

B.

Review the agreement for each country separately

C.

Set up a governance organization for each country

D.

Set up companion agreements for each country

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Helping to determine the recovery point objective (RPO)

B.

Providing a basis for implementing a need-to-know policy

C.

Supporting segregation of duties

D.

Defining resource ownership

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Questions 111

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence to senior management that security control performance has improved?

Options:

A.

Demonstrated return on security investment

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Results of an emerging threat analysis

D.

Review of security metrics trends

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Questions 112

Which of the following would provide the MOST effective security outcome in an organizations contract management process?

Options:

A.

Performing vendor security benchmark analyses at the request-for-proposal (RFP) stage

B.

Ensuring security requirements are defined at the request-for-proposal (RFP) stage

C.

Extending security assessment to cover asset disposal on contract termination

D.

Extending security assessment to include random penetration testing

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Questions 113

Recommendations for enterprise investment in security technology should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

adherence to international standards

B.

availability of financial resources

C.

the organization s risk tolerance

D.

alignment with business needs

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Questions 114

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine the alignment of an information security program with the business strategy?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the results of business continuity testing.

B.

Review key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Evaluate the business impact of incidents.

D.

Engage business process owners.

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Questions 115

Which of the following should be an information security manager s MOST important consideration when determining the priority for implementing security controls?

Options:

A.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

B.

Results of business impact analyses (BIAs)

C.

Possibility of reputational loss due to incidents

D.

Availability of security budget

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Questions 116

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern resulting from the lack of severity criteria in incident classification?

Options:

A.

Statistical reports will be incorrect.

B.

The service desk will be staffed incorrectly.

C.

Escalation procedures will be ineffective.

D.

Timely detection of attacks will be impossible.

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Questions 117

When updating the information security policy to accommodate a new regulation, the information security manager should FIRST:

Options:

A.

Review key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Perform a gap analysis

C.

Consult process owners

D.

Update key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 118

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder requirements

B.

Risk register

C.

Industry benchmarks

D.

Regulatory requirements

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Questions 119

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

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Questions 120

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 121

Which of the following incident response phases involves actions to help safeguard critical systems while maintaining business operations?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Identification

C.

Containment

D.

Preparation

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Questions 122

The PRIMARY benefit of introducing a single point of administration in network monitoring is that it:

Options:

A.

reduces unauthorized access to systems.

B.

promotes efficiency in control of the environment.

C.

prevents inconsistencies in information in the distributed environment.

D.

allows administrative staff to make management decisions.

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Questions 123

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 124

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

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Questions 125

Which is following should be an information security manager's PRIMARY focus during the development of a critical system storing highly confidential data?

Options:

A.

Reducing the number of vulnerabilities detected

B.

Ensuring the amount of residual risk is acceptable

C.

Avoiding identified system threats

D.

Complying with regulatory requirements

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Questions 126

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 127

Which of the following devices, when placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ), would be considered the MOST significant exposure?

Options:

A.

Mail relay server

B.

Proxy server

C.

Database server

D.

Application server

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Questions 128

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 129

After updating password standards, an information security manager is alerted by various application administrators that the applications they support are incapable of enforcing these standards. The information security manager's FIRST course of action should be to:

Options:

A.

determine the potential impact.

B.

reevaluate the standards.

C.

implement compensating controls.

D.

evaluate the cost of replacing the applications.

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Questions 130

An incident management team leader sends out a notification that the organization has successfully recovered from a cyberattack. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Prepare an executive summary for senior management

B.

Gather feedback on business impact

C.

Conduct a meeting to capture lessons learned.

D.

Secure and preserve digital evidence for analysis.

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Questions 131

An incident response policy should include:

Options:

A.

A description of testing methodology.

B.

Notification requirements.

C.

An infrastructure diagram.

D.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 132

Which of the following would BEST enable a new information security manager to obtain senior management support for an information security governance program?

Options:

A.

Demonstrating the program's value to the organization

B.

Discussing governance programs found in similar organizations

C.

Providing the results of external audits

D.

Providing examples of information security incidents within the organization

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Questions 133

From an information security perspective, legal issues associated with a transborder flow of technology-related items are MOST often

Options:

A.

website transactions and taxation.

B.

software patches and corporate date.

C.

encryption tools and personal data.

D.

lack of competition and free trade.

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Questions 134

Which of the following is the BEST strategy when determining an organization's approach to risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk mitigation controls that are considered quick wins

B.

Prioritizing controls that directly mitigate the organization's most critical risks

C.

Advancing the maturity of existing controls based on risk tolerance

D.

Implementing a one-size-fits-all set of controls across all organizational units

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Questions 135

Which of the following will BEST facilitate the integration of information security governance into enterprise governance?

Options:

A.

Developing an information security policy based on risk assessments

B.

Establishing an information security steering committee

C.

Documenting the information security governance framework

D.

Implementing an information security awareness program

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Questions 136

A new type of ransomware has infected an organization's network. Which of the following would have BEST enabled the organization to detect this situation?

Options:

A.

Regular review of the threat landscape

B.

Periodic information security training for end users

C.

Use of integrated patch deployment tools

D.

Monitoring of anomalies in system behavior

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Questions 137

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 138

Which of the following is MOST critical when creating an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Identifying vulnerable data assets

B.

Identifying what constitutes an incident

C.

Documenting incident notification and escalation processes

D.

Aligning with the risk assessment process

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Questions 139

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to influence organizational culture to align with security guidelines?

Options:

A.

Adhere to regulatory requirements

B.

Conduct security awareness

C.

Document and distribute security procedures

D.

Communicate and enforce security policies

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Questions 140

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 141

In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?

Options:

A.

Ownership of security

B.

Compliance with policies

C.

Auditability of systems

D.

Allocation of training resources

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Questions 142

Which of the following BEST minimizes information security risk in deploying applications to the production environment?

Options:

A.

Integrating security controls in each phase of the life cycle

B.

Conducting penetration testing post implementation

C.

Having a well-defined change process

D.

Verifying security during the testing process

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Questions 143

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 144

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 145

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Questions 146

An information security manager has been made aware of a new data protection regulation that will soon go into effect. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk of noncompliance?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Consult with senior management on the best course of action.

C.

Implement a program of work to comply with the new legislation.

D.

Understand the cost of noncompliance.

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Questions 147

Of the following, who is MOST appropriate to own the risk associated with the failure of a privileged access control?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Business owner

C.

Information security manager

D.

Compliance manager

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Questions 148

An organization successfully responded to an information security incident. However, the information security manager learned that some of the steps specified in the incident management procedures were not taken by the response team. What should be the information security manager's FIRST step?

Options:

A.

Provide additional training to the incident response team.

B.

Review the incident management procedures.

C.

Interview the incident response team.

D.

Remove the steps from the incident management procedures.

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Questions 149

The GREATEST challenge when attempting data recovery of a specific file during forensic analysis is when:

Options:

A.

the partition table on the disk has been deleted.

B.

the tile has been overwritten.

C.

all files in the directory have been deleted.

D.

high-level disk formatting has been performed.

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Questions 150

Communicating which of the following would be MOST helpful to gain senior management support for risk treatment options?

Options:

A.

Quantitative loss

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 151

An organization is about to purchase a rival organization. The PRIMARY reason for performing information security due diligence prior to making the purchase is to:

Options:

A.

determine the security exposures.

B.

assess the ability to integrate the security department operations.

C.

ensure compliance with international standards.

D.

evaluate the security policy and standards.

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Questions 152

Once a suite of security controls has been successfully implemented for an organization's business units, it is MOST important for the information security manager to:

Options:

A.

hand over the controls to the relevant business owners.

B.

ensure the controls are regularly tested for ongoing effectiveness.

C.

perform testing to compare control performance against industry levels.

D.

prepare to adapt the controls for future system upgrades.

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Questions 153

Who has the PRIMARY authority to decide if additional risk treatments are required to mitigate an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Risk owner

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Questions 154

Which of the following is the BEST way lo monitor for advanced persistent threats (APT) in an organization?

Options:

A.

Network with peers in the industry to share information.

B.

Browse the Internet to team of potential events

C.

Search for anomalies in the environment

D.

Search for threat signatures in the environment.

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Questions 155

When determining an acceptable risk level which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

Threat profiles

B.

System criticalities

C.

Vulnerability scores

D.

Risk matrices

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Questions 156

Identifying which of the following BEST enables a cyberattack to be contained?

Options:

A.

The vulnerability exploited by the attack

B.

The segment targeted by the attack

C.

The IP address of the computer that launched the attack

D.

The threat actor that initiated the attack

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Questions 157

Which of the following provides the BEST input to determine the level of protection needed for an IT system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Asset classification

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Internal audit findings

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Questions 158

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to identify changes in an information security environment?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Annual risk assessments

C.

Regular penetration testing

D.

Continuous monitoring

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Questions 159

When integrating security risk management into an organization it is MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

business units approve the risk management methodology.

B.

the risk treatment process is defined.

C.

information security policies are documented and understood.

D.

the risk management methodology follows an established framework.

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Questions 160

A data loss prevention (DLP) tool has flagged personally identifiable information (Pll) during transmission. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Validate the scope and impact with the business process owner.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Review and validate the rules within the DLP system.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management.

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Questions 161

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

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Questions 162

Which of the following should be triggered FIRST when unknown malware has infected an organization's critical system?

Options:

A.

Incident response plan

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Vulnerability management plan

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Questions 163

Which of the following risks is an example of risk transfer?

Options:

A.

Utilizing third-party applications

B.

Moving risk ownership to another department

C.

Conducting off-site backups

D.

Purchasing cybersecurity insurance

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Questions 164

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when identifying information security resource requirements?

Options:

A.

Current resourcing levels

B.

Availability of potential resources

C.

Information security strategy

D.

Information security incidents

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Questions 165

What is the role of the information security manager in finalizing contract negotiations with service providers?

Options:

A.

To perform a risk analysis on the outsourcing process

B.

To obtain a security standard certification from the provider

C.

To update security standards for the outsourced process

D.

To ensure that clauses for periodic audits are included

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Questions 166

Which of the following is MOST important to include in an information security status report to senior management?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Review of information security policies

C.

Information security budget requests

D.

List of recent security events

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Questions 167

Regular vulnerability scanning on an organization's internal network has identified that many user workstations have unpatched versions of software. What is the BEST way for the information security manager to help senior management understand the related risk?

Options:

A.

Include the impact of the risk as part of regular metrics.

B.

Recommend the security steering committee conduct a review.

C.

Update the risk assessment at regular intervals

D.

Send regular notifications directly to senior managers

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Questions 168

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

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Questions 169

An organization is transitioning to a Zero Trust architecture. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST approach for communicating the implications of this transition to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Present a diagram of core Zero Trust logical components to help visualize the architectural changes

B.

Summarize the training plan and end user feedback in an internal portal and send the link to the board

C.

Prepare a report on the Zero Trust implementation that includes a status dashboard and timeline

D.

Provide an outline of the business impact in terms of risk reduction and changes in user experience

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Questions 170

Which of the following is the MOST important factor in an organization's selection of a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Return on investment (ROI)

B.

Compliance requirements

C.

Target audience

D.

Criticality of information

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for executive management to be involved in establishing an enterprise's security management framework?

Options:

A.

To ensure industry best practices for enterprise security are followed

B.

To establish the minimum level of controls needed

C.

To determine the desired state of enterprise security

D.

To satisfy auditors' recommendations for enterprise security

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Questions 172

Which of the following should an organization do FIRST when confronted with the transfer of personal data across borders?

Options:

A.

Define policies and standards for data processing.

B.

Implement applicable privacy principles

C.

Assess local or regional regulations

D.

Research cyber insurance policies

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Questions 173

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 174

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 175

Which type of policy BEST helps to ensure that all employees, contractors, and third-party users receive formal communication regarding an organization’s security program?

Options:

A.

Management review policy

B.

Business continuity management policy

C.

Information security training policy

D.

Security incident management policy

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Questions 176

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when recovering a compromised system that needs a complete rebuild?

Options:

A.

Patch management files

B.

Network system logs

C.

Configuration management files

D.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 177

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Questions 178

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

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Questions 179

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit achieved when an information security governance framework is aligned with corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Protection of business value and assets

B.

Identification of core business strategiesC, Easier entrance into new businesses and technologies

C.

Improved regulatory compliance posture

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Questions 180

When assigning a risk owner, the MOST important consideration is to ensure the owner has:

Options:

A.

adequate knowledge of risk treatment and related control activities.

B.

decision-making authority and the ability to allocate resources for risk.

C.

sufficient time for monitoring and managing the risk effectively.

D.

risk communication and reporting skills to enable decision-making.

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Questions 181

Which of the following events is MOST likely to require an organization to revisit its information security framework?

Options:

A.

New services offered by IT

B.

Changes to the risk landscape

C.

A recent cybersecurity attack

D.

A new technology implemented

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Questions 182

Which of the following is MOST relevant for an information security manager to communicate to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The level of inherent risk

B.

Vulnerability assessments

C.

The level of exposure

D.

Threat assessments

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Questions 183

Within the confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA) triad, which of the following activities BEST supports the concept of

confidentiality?

Options:

A.

Ensuring hashing of administrator credentials

B.

Enforcing service level agreements (SLAs)

C.

Ensuring encryption for data in transit

D.

Utilizing a formal change management process

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Questions 184

A proposal designed to gain buy-in from senior management for a new security project will be MOST effective if it includes:

Options:

A.

analysis of current threat landscape.

B.

historical data of reported incidents.

C.

projected return on investment (ROI).

D.

industry benchmarking gap analysis.

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Questions 185

During the implementation of a new system, which of the following processes proactively minimizes the likelihood of disruption, unauthorized alterations, and errors?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Password management

C.

Change management

D.

Version management

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Questions 186

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or

Options:

A.

Security budget

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk score

D.

Laws and regulations

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Questions 187

Which of the following would be MOST effective in reducing the impact of a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack?

Options:

A.

Impose state limits on servers.

B.

Spread a site across multiple ISPs.

C.

Block the attack at the source.

D.

Harden network security.

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Questions 188

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY outcome of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Strategic alignment

B.

Risk elimination

C.

Cost reduction

D.

Threat reduction

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Questions 189

Senior management wants to thoroughly test a disaster recovery plan (DRP) for a mission-critical system. Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable results?

Options:

A.

Full interruption test

B.

Parallel test

C.

Simulation test

D.

Structured walk-through

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Questions 190

Which of the following is ESSENTIAL to ensuring effective incident response?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Classification scheme

D.

Senior management support

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Questions 191

Which of the following MUST be established to maintain an effective information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security controls automation

B.

Defined security metrics

C.

Change management processes

D.

Security policy provisions

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Questions 192

What is the MOST important consideration when establishing metrics for reporting to the information security strategy committee?

Options:

A.

Developing a dashboard for communicating the metrics

B.

Agreeing on baseline values for the metrics

C.

Benchmarking the expected value of the metrics against industry standards

D.

Aligning the metrics with the organizational culture

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Questions 193

Detailed business continuity plans (BCPs) should be PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

strategies validated by senior management.

B.

capabilities of available local vendors.

C.

strategies that cover all applications.

D.

cost and resources needed to execute.

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Questions 194

Which of the following provides the MOST effective response against ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Automatic quarantine of systems

B.

Thorough communication plans

C.

Effective backup plans and processes

D.

Strong password requirements

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Questions 195

How does an organization PRIMARILY benefit from the creation of an information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

An increase in information security risk awareness

B.

An increased alignment with industry security trends that impact the business

C.

An increased focus on information security resource management

D.

An increased alignment of information security with the business

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Questions 196

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 197

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for an information security manager to periodically review existing controls?

Options:

A.

To prioritize security initiatives

B.

To avoid redundant controls

C.

To align with emerging risk

D.

To address end-user control complaints

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Questions 198

An organization has purchased an Internet sales company to extend the sales department. The information security manager's FIRST step to ensure the security policy framework encompasses the new business model is to:

Options:

A.

perform a gap analysis.

B.

implement both companies' policies separately

C.

merge both companies' policies

D.

perform a vulnerability assessment

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Questions 199

Which of the following has the MOST influence on the information security investment process?

Options:

A.

IT governance framework

B.

Information security policy

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 200

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 201

While responding to a high-profile security incident, an information security manager observed several deficiencies in the current incident response plan. When would be the BEST time to update the plan?

Options:

A.

While responding to the incident

B.

During a tabletop exercise

C.

During post-incident review

D.

After a risk reassessment

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Questions 202

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

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Questions 203

Senior management recently approved a mobile access policy that conflicts with industry best practices. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST course of action when developing security standards for mobile access to the organization's network?

Options:

A.

Align the standards with the organizational policy.

B.

Align the standards with industry best practices.

C.

Resolve the discrepancy before developing the standards.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis of aligning the standards to policy.

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Questions 204

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

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Questions 205

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to consider organizational culture when developing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the organization is responsible for information security.

B.

It helps expedite approval for the information security budget.

C.

It helps the organization meet compliance requirements.

D.

Security incidents have an adverse impact on the entire organization.

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Questions 206

Which of the following is the BEST way to contain an SQL injection attack that has been detected by a web application firewall?

Options:

A.

Force password changes on the SQL database.

B.

Reconfigure the web application firewall to block the attack.

C.

Update the detection patterns on the web application firewall.

D.

Block the IPs from where the attack originates.

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Questions 207

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that a competitor has experienced a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Perform a full data backup.

B.

Conduct ransomware awareness training for all staff.

C.

Update indicators of compromise in the security systems.

D.

Review the current risk assessment.

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Questions 208

Which of the following should be the NEXT step after a security incident has been reported?

Options:

A.

Recovery

B.

Investigation

C.

Escalation

D.

Containment

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Questions 209

Which of the following is the BEST approach to reduce unnecessary duplication of compliance activities?

Options:

A.

Documentation of control procedures

B.

Standardization of compliance requirements

C.

Automation of controls

D.

Integration of assurance efforts

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Questions 210

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 211

An organization has multiple data repositories across different departments. The information security manager has been tasked with creating an enterprise strategy for protecting data. Which of the following information security initiatives should be the HIGHEST priority for the organization?

Options:

A.

Data masking

B.

Data retention strategy

C.

Data encryption standards

D.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

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Questions 212

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

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Questions 213

An organization has identified a weakness in the ability of its employees to identify and report cybersecurity incidents. Although training materials have been provided, employees show a lack of interest. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Block network access until security awareness training is complete.

B.

Conduct an enterprise cybersecurity risk assessment.

C.

Obtain key stakeholder and leadership support.

D.

Send an email mandating training for the employees.

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Questions 214

Which of the following should be established FIRST when implementing an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Security policies

C.

Security incident management team

D.

Security awareness training program

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Questions 215

Several months after the installation of a new firewall with intrusion prevention features to block malicious activity, a breach was discovered that came in through the firewall shortly after installation. This breach could have been detected earlier by implementing firewall:

Options:

A.

packet filtering.

B.

web surfing controls.

C.

log monitoring.

D.

application awareness.

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Questions 216

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To define security roles and responsibilities

B.

To determine return on investment (ROI)

C.

To establish incident severity levels

D.

To determine the criticality of information assets

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Questions 217

Which of the following is the BEST option to lower the cost to implement application security controls?

Options:

A.

Perform security tests in the development environment.

B.

Integrate security activities within the development process

C.

Perform a risk analysis after project completion.

D.

Include standard application security requirements

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Questions 218

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when developing a strategy for protecting an organization's data?

Options:

A.

Classification

B.

Encryption

C.

Access monitoring

D.

Access rights

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Questions 219

Which of the following roles has the PRIMARY responsibility to ensure the operating effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Control tester

C.

IT compliance leader

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 220

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

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Questions 221

The PRIMARY reason for creating a business case when proposing an information security project is to:

Options:

A.

articulate inherent risks.

B.

provide demonstrated return on investment (ROI).

C.

establish the value of the project in relation to business objectives.

D.

gain key business stakeholder engagement.

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Questions 222

The fundamental purpose of establishing security metrics is to:

Options:

A.

increase return on investment (ROI)

B.

provide feedback on control effectiveness

C.

adopt security best practices

D.

establish security benchmarks

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Questions 223

An organization learns that a third party has outsourced critical functions to another external provider. Which of the following is the information security manager's MOST important course of action?

Options:

A.

Engage an independent audit of the third party's external provider.

B.

Recommend canceling the contract with the third party.

C.

Evaluate the third party's agreements with its external provider.

D.

Conduct an external audit of the contracted third party.

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Questions 224

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

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Questions 225

Which of the following BEST supports investments in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Business cases

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Gap analysis results

D.

Risk assessment results

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Questions 226

Which of the following is MOST important in order to obtain senior leadership support when presenting an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The strategy aligns with management’s acceptable level of risk.

B.

The strategy addresses ineffective information security controls.

C.

The strategy aligns with industry benchmarks and standards.

D.

The strategy addresses organizational maturity and the threat environment.

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Questions 227

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

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Questions 228

Which of the following is MOST important when responding to a major security incident?

Options:

A.

Contacting forensic investigators

B.

Following the escalation process

C.

Notifying law enforcement

D.

Identifying the indicators of compromise

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Questions 229

Which of the following BEST facilitates the effectiveness of cybersecurity incident response?

Options:

A.

Utilizing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool.

B.

Utilizing industry-leading network penetration testing tools.

C.

Increasing communication with all incident response stakeholders.

D.

Continuously updating signatures of the anti-malware solution.

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Questions 230

Which of the following should an information security manager do NEXT after creating a roadmap to execute the strategy for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Obtain consensus on the strategy from the executive board.

B.

Review alignment with business goals.

C.

Define organizational risk tolerance.

D.

Develop a project plan to implement the strategy.

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Questions 231

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 232

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a cyber resilience strategy?

Options:

A.

Business continuity

B.

Regulatory compliance

C.

Employee awareness

D.

Executive support

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Questions 233

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Questions 234

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for obtaining input from risk owners when implementing controls?

Options:

A.

To reduce risk mitigation costs

B.

To resolve vulnerabilities in enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

To manage the risk to an acceptable level

D.

To eliminate threats impacting the business

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Questions 235

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 236

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an information security manager identifies that systems are vulnerable to emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Frequently update systems and monitor the threat landscape.

B.

Monitor the network containing the affected systems for malicious traffic.

C.

Increase awareness of the threats among employees who work with the systems.

D.

Notify senior management and key stakeholders of the threats.

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Questions 237

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

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Questions 238

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to document information security incidents that are reported across the organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the security posture of the organization.

B.

Identify unmitigated risk.

C.

Prevent incident recurrence.

D.

Support business investments in security.

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Questions 239

Which of the following factors has the GREATEST influence on the successful implementation of information security strategy goals?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements

B.

Compliance acceptance

C.

Management support

D.

Budgetary approval

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Questions 240

Threat and vulnerability assessments are important PRIMARILY because they are:

Options:

A.

used to establish security investments

B.

the basis for setting control objectives.

C.

elements of the organization's security posture.

D.

needed to estimate risk.

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Questions 241

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 242

An organization is creating a risk mitigation plan that considers redundant power supplies to reduce the business risk associated with critical system outages. Which type of control is being considered?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Corrective

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Questions 243

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST after discovering that a business unit has implemented a newly purchased application and bypassed the change management process?

Options:

A.

Revise the procurement process.

B.

Update the change management process.

C.

Discuss the issue with senior leadership.

D.

Remove the application from production.

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Questions 244

An information security manager learns that IT personnel are not adhering to the information security policy because it creates process inefficiencies. What should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct user awareness training within the IT function.

B.

Propose that IT update information security policies and procedures.

C.

Determine the risk related to noncompliance with the policy.

D.

Request that internal audit conduct a review of the policy development process,

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Questions 245

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure a risk response plan will be developed and executed in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk metrics

B.

Training on risk management procedures

C.

Reporting on documented deficiencies

D.

Assigning a risk owner

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Questions 246

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to regularly update business continuity and disaster recovery documents?

Options:

A.

To enforce security policy requirements

B.

To maintain business asset inventories

C.

To ensure audit and compliance requirements are met

D.

To ensure the availability of business operations

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Questions 247

The PRIMARY objective of timely declaration of a disaster is to:

Options:

A.

ensure engagement of business management in the recovery process.

B.

assess and correct disaster recovery process deficiencies.

C.

protect critical physical assets from further loss.

D.

ensure the continuity of the organization's essential services.

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Questions 248

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure compliance with an organization's information security requirements by an IT service provider?

Options:

A.

Requiring an external security audit of the IT service provider

B.

Requiring regular reporting from the IT service provider

C.

Defining information security requirements with internal IT

D.

Defining the business recovery plan with the IT service provider

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Questions 249

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the information security function when an organization adopts emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Developing security training for the new technologies

B.

Designing new security controls

C.

Creating an acceptable use policy for the technologies

D.

Assessing the potential security risk

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Questions 250

Relationships between critical systems are BEST understood by

Options:

A.

evaluating key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

developing a system classification scheme

D.

evaluating the recovery time objectives (RTOs)

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Questions 251

Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to include when presenting changes in the security risk profile to senior management?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Security training test results

C.

Performance measures for existing controls

D.

Number of false positives

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Questions 252

When management changes the enterprise business strategy which of the following processes should be used to evaluate the existing information security controls as well as to select new information security controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration management

B.

Risk management

C.

Access control management

D.

Change management

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Questions 253

An organization is planning to outsource network management to a service provider. Including which of the following in the contract would be the MOST effective way to mitigate information security risk?

Options:

A.

Requirement for regular information security awareness

B.

Right-to-audit clause

C.

Service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Requirement to comply with corporate security policy

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Questions 254

An information security manager is alerted to multiple security incidents across different business units, with unauthorized access to sensitive data and potential data exfiltration from critical systems. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to appropriately classify and prioritize these incidents?

Options:

A.

Assemble the incident response team to evaluate the incidents

B.

Initiate the crisis communication plan to notify stakeholders of the incidents

C.

Engage external incident response consultants to conduct an independent investigation

D.

Prioritize the incidents based on data classification standards

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Questions 255

Which of the following is BEST used to determine the maturity of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security budget allocation

B.

Organizational risk appetite

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Security metrics

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Questions 256

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST when a mandatory security standard hinders the achievement of an identified business objective?

Options:

A.

Revisit the business objective.

B.

Escalate to senior management.

C.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

D.

Recommend risk acceptance.

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Questions 257

Network isolation techniques are immediately implemented after a security breach to:

Options:

A.

preserve evidence as required for forensics

B.

reduce the extent of further damage.

C.

allow time for key stakeholder decision making.

D.

enforce zero trust architecture principles.

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Questions 258

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on the effectiveness of an organization’s security posture?

Options:

A.

Incident metrics are frequently compared against industry benchmarks

B.

New hires are mandated to attend security training

C.

Security is embedded in organizational culture

D.

Senior management has approved and endorsed security practices

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Questions 259

An information security manager wants to document requirements detailing the minimum security controls required for user workstations. Which of the following resources would be MOST appropriate for this purposed?

Options:

A.

Guidelines

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Standards

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Questions 260

If the investigation of an incident is not completed within the time allocated in the incident response plan, which of the following actions should be taken by the incident response team?

Options:

A.

Initiate the escalation process.

B.

Continue the investigation.

C.

Invoke the business continuity plan (BCP).

D.

Engage the crisis management team.

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Questions 261

When establishing metrics for an information security program, the BEST approach is to identify indicators that:

Options:

A.

reduce information security program spending.

B.

support major information security initiatives.

C.

reflect the corporate risk culture.

D.

demonstrate the effectiveness of the security program.

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Questions 262

Which of the following should have the MOST influence on an organization's response to a new industry regulation?

Options:

A.

The organization's control objectives

B.

The organization's risk management framework

C.

The organization's risk appetite

D.

The organization's risk control baselines

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Questions 263

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of information asset classification?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability reduction

B.

Compliance management

C.

Risk management

D.

Threat minimization

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Questions 264

Which of the following will BEST facilitate integrating the information security program into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

An up-to-date security strategy

B.

Documentation of the threat landscape

C.

Documentation of residual risk

D.

A minimum security baseline

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Questions 265

An organization involved in e-commerce activities operating from its home country opened a new office in another country with stringent security laws. In this scenario, the overall security strategy should be based on:

Options:

A.

the security organization structure.

B.

international security standards.

C.

risk assessment results.

D.

the most stringent requirements.

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Questions 266

A business requires a legacy version of an application to operate but the application cannot be patched. To limit the risk exposure to the business, a firewall is implemented in front of the legacy application. Which risk treatment option has been applied?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Questions 267

When deciding to move to a cloud-based model, the FIRST consideration should be:

Options:

A.

storage in a shared environment.

B.

availability of the data.

C.

data classification.

D.

physical location of the data.

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Questions 268

Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a post-incident review?

Options:

A.

The impact of the incident is reported to senior management.

B.

The system affected by the incident is restored to its prior state.

C.

The person responsible for the incident is identified.

D.

The root cause of the incident is determined.

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Questions 269

Which of the following MUST be defined in order for an information security manager to evaluate the appropriateness of controls currently in place?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Security standards

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Questions 270

When implementing a security policy for an organization handling personally identifiable information (Pll); the MOST important objective should be:

Options:

A.

strong encryption

B.

regulatory compliance.

C.

data availability.

D.

security awareness training

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Questions 271

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus for an information security manager when reviewing access controls for data stored in an off-premise cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing and updating access controls in response to changes in organizational structure

B.

Implementing strong password policies and enforcing regular password changes

C.

Ensuring access is granted to only those individuals whose job functions require it

D.

Implementing strong encryption protocols to protect sensitive data

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Questions 272

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

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Questions 273

An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resolve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify. What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?

Options:

A.

Implement a SIEM solution.

B.

Perform a threat analysis.

C.

Establish performance metrics for the team.

D.

Perform a post-incident review.

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Questions 274

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Questions 275

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 276

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 920
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