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CISM Certified Information Security Manager Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to effectively manage emerging cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Periodic internal and external audits

B.

Clear lines of responsibility

C.

Sufficient cyber budget allocation

D.

Cybersecurity policies

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Questions 5

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to consider when identifying information security resource requirements?

Options:

A.

Current resourcing levels

B.

Availability of potential resources

C.

Information security strategy

D.

Information security incidents

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Questions 6

A newly appointed information security manager has been asked to update all security-related policies and procedures that have been static for five years or more. What should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Update in accordance with the best business practices.

B.

Perform a risk assessment of the current IT environment.

C.

Gain an understanding of the current business direction.

D.

Inventory and review current security policies.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Reviewing previous audit reports

B.

Conducting a tabletop exercise

C.

Benchmarking the plan against best practices

D.

Performing a penetration test

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Questions 8

Following a breach where the risk has been isolated and forensic processes have been performed, which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Place the web server in quarantine.

B.

Rebuild the server from the last verified backup.

C.

Shut down the server in an organized manner.

D.

Rebuild the server with relevant patches from the original media.

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful intrusion into an organization's systems?

Options:

A.

Decrease in internal network traffic

B.

Increase in the number of failed login attempts

C.

Increase in the number of irregular application requests

D.

Decrease in available storage space

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Questions 10

Which of the following BEST enables the assignment of risk and control ownership?

Options:

A.

Aligning to an industry-recognized control framework

B.

Adopting a risk management framework

C.

Obtaining senior management buy-in

D.

Developing an information security strategy

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Questions 11

Which of the following is the MOST effective defense against malicious insiders compromising confidential information?

Options:

A.

Regular audits of access controls

B.

Strong background checks when hiring staff

C.

Prompt termination procedures

D.

Role-based access control (RBAC)

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Questions 12

Following a risk assessment, an organization has made the decision to adopt a bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. What should the information security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Develop a personal device policy

B.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution

C.

Develop training specific to BYOD awareness

D.

Define control requirements

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Questions 13

A small organization with limited budget hires a new information security manager who finds the same IT staff member is assigned the responsibility of system administrator, security administrator, database administrator (DBA), and application administrator What is the manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Automate user provisioning activities.

B.

Maintain strict control over user provisioning activities.

C.

Formally document IT administrator activities.

D.

Implement monitoring of IT administrator activities.

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Questions 14

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a SIEM flags a potential event?

Options:

A.

Validate the event is not a false positive.

B.

Initiate the incident response plan.

C.

Escalate the event to the business owner.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when shifting IT operations to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model hosted in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Labeling of data may help to ensure data is assigned to the correct cloud type.

B.

Laws and regulations of the origin country may not be applicable.

C.

There may be liabilities and penalties in the event of a security breach.

D.

Data may be stored in unknown locations and may not be easily retrievable.

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Questions 16

When an organization lacks internal expertise to conduct highly technical forensics investigations, what is the BEST way to ensure effective and timely investigations following an information security incident?

Options:

A.

Purchase forensic standard operating procedures.

B.

Provide forensics training to the information security team.

C.

Ensure the incident response policy allows hiring a forensics firm.

D.

Retain a forensics firm prior to experiencing an incident.

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Questions 17

When drafting the corporate privacy statement for a public website, which of the following MUST be included?

Options:

A.

Limited liability clause

B.

Explanation of information usage

C.

Information encryption requirements

D.

Access control requirements

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Questions 18

Which of the following would BEST ensure that security risk assessment is integrated into the life cycle of major IT projects?

Options:

A.

Training project managers on risk assessment

B.

Having the information security manager participate on the project steering committees

C.

Applying global security standards to the IT projects

D.

Integrating the risk assessment into the internal audit program

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Questions 19

For the information security manager, integrating the various assurance functions of an organization is important PRIMARILY to enable:

Options:

A.

consistent security.

B.

comprehensive audits

C.

a security-aware culture

D.

compliance with policy

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Questions 20

An information security manager has been tasked with developing materials to update the board, regulatory agencies, and the media about a security incident. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Set up communication channels for the target audience.

B.

Determine the needs and requirements of each audience.

C.

Create a comprehensive singular communication

D.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan.

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Questions 21

When preventive controls to appropriately mitigate risk are not feasible, which of the following is the MOST important action for the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Managing the impact

B.

Identifying unacceptable risk levels

C.

Assessing vulnerabilities

D.

Evaluating potential threats

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Questions 22

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when updating procedures for managing security devices?

Options:

A.

Updates based on the organization's security framework

B.

Notification to management of the procedural changes

C.

Updates based on changes m risk technology and process

D.

Review and approval of procedures by management

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Questions 23

An information security manager has identified that privileged employee access requests to production servers are approved; but user actions are not logged. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern with this situation?

Options:

A.

Lack of availability

B.

Lack of accountability

C.

Improper authorization

D.

Inadequate authentication

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Questions 24

A forensic examination of a PC is required, but the PC has been switched off. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform a backup of the hard drive using backup utilities.

B.

Perform a bit-by-bit backup of the hard disk using a write-blocking device

C.

Perform a backup of the computer using the network

D.

Reboot the system using third-party forensic software in the CD-ROM drive

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Questions 25

In the context of developing an information security strategy, which of the following provides the MOST useful input to determine the or

Options:

A.

Security budget

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk score

D.

Laws and regulations

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Questions 26

To ensure that a new application complies with information security policy, the BEST approach is to:

Options:

A.

review the security of the application before implementation.

B.

integrate functionality the development stage.

C.

perform a vulnerability analysis.

D.

periodically audit the security of the application.

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Questions 27

Which of the following processes is MOST important for the success of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Involving all stakeholders in testing and training

B.

Scheduling periodic internal and external audits

C.

Including the board and senior management in plan reviews

D.

Maintaining copies of the plan at the primary and recovery sites

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Questions 28

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure the business continuity plan (BCP) is current?

Options:

A.

Manage business process changes.

B.

Update business impact analyses (BIAs) on a regular basis.

C.

Conduct periodic testing.

D.

Review and update emergency contact lists.

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Questions 29

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Inform customers of the breach.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Monitor the third party's response.

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Questions 30

An organization implemented a number of technical and administrative controls to mitigate risk associated with ransomware. Which of the following is MOST important to present to senior management when reporting on the performance of this initiative?

Options:

A.

The total cost of the investment

B.

The cost and associated risk reduction

C.

The number and severity of ransomware incidents

D.

Benchmarks of industry peers impacted by ransomware

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Questions 31

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the information security manager in application development?

Options:

A.

To ensure security is integrated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)

B.

To ensure compliance with industry best practice

C.

To ensure enterprise security controls are implemented

D.

To ensure control procedures address business risk

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Questions 32

The PRIMARY purpose for continuous monitoring of security controls is to ensure:

Options:

A.

system availability.

B.

control gaps are minimized.

C.

alignment with compliance requirements.

D.

effectiveness of controls.

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Questions 33

Which of the following BEST indicates that an information security governance framework has been successfully implemented?

Options:

A.

The framework aligns internal and external resources.

B.

The framework aligns security processes with industry best practices.

C.

The framework aligns management and other functions within the security organization.

D.

The framework includes commercial off-the-shelf security solutions.

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Questions 34

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance in determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical security system?

Options:

A.

Available annual budget

B.

Cost-benefit analysis of mitigating controls

C.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

D.

Maximum tolerable outage (MTO)

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Questions 35

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for executive management to be involved in establishing an enterprise's security management framework?

Options:

A.

To ensure industry best practices for enterprise security are followed

B.

To establish the minimum level of controls needed

C.

To determine the desired state of enterprise security

D.

To satisfy auditors' recommendations for enterprise security

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Questions 36

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that a competitor has experienced a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Perform a full data backup.

B.

Conduct ransomware awareness training for all staff.

C.

Update indicators of compromise in the security systems.

D.

Review the current risk assessment.

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Questions 37

An external security audit has reported multiple instances of control noncompliance. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

Control owner responses based on a root cause analysis

B.

The impact of noncompliance on the organization's risk profile

C.

A noncompliance report to initiate remediation activities

D.

A business case for transferring the risk

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Questions 38

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure information security policies are understood?

Options:

A.

Implement a whistle-blower program.

B.

Provide regular security awareness training.

C.

Include security responsibilities in job descriptions.

D.

Document security procedures.

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Questions 39

An information security manager learns that business unit leaders are encouraging increased use of social media platforms to reach customers. Which of the following should be done FIRST to help mitigate the risk of confidential information being disclosed by employees on social media?

Options:

A.

Establish an organization-wide social media policy.

B.

Develop sanctions for misuse of social media sites.

C.

Monitor social media sites visited by employees.

D.

Restrict social media access on corporate devices.

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Questions 40

An investigation of a recent security incident determined that the root cause was negligent handing of incident alerts by system admit manager to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment and share the result with senior management.

B.

Revise the incident response plan-to align with business processes.

C.

Provide incident response training to data custodians.

D.

Provide incident response training to data owners.

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Questions 41

When an organization experiences a disruptive event, the business continuity plan (BCP) should be triggered PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

expected duration of outage.

B.

management direction.

C.

type of security incident.

D.

the root cause of the event.

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Questions 42

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?

Options:

A.

Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected

B.

Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget

C.

Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level

D.

Confirming the organization complies with security policies

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Questions 43

Which of the following is the BEST reason for senior management to support a business case for developing a monitoring system for a critical application?

Options:

A.

An industry peer experienced a recent breach with a similar application.

B.

The system can be replicated for additional use cases.

C.

The cost of implementing the system is less than the impact of downtime.

D.

The solution is within the organization's risk tolerance.

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Questions 44

Which of the following BEST illustrates residual risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Balanced scorecard

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Questions 45

An organization provides notebook PCs, cable wire locks, smartphone access, and virtual private network (VPN) access to its remote employees. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure?

Options:

A.

Employees use smartphone tethering when accessing from remote locations.

B.

Employees physically lock PCs when leaving the immediate area.

C.

Employees are trained on the acceptable use policy.

D.

Employees use the VPN when accessing the organization's online resources.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the risk associated with a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Implement a mobile device policy and standard.

B.

Provide employee training on secure mobile device practices.

C.

Implement a mobile device management (MDM) solution.

D.

Require employees to install an effective anti-malware app.

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Questions 47

Which of the following should include contact information for representatives of equipment and software vendors?

Options:

A.

Information security program charter

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 48

The MOST important element in achieving executive commitment to an information security governance program is:

Options:

A.

a defined security framework.

B.

a process improvement model

C.

established security strategies.

D.

identified business drivers.

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Questions 49

A new regulatory requirement affecting an organization's information security program is released. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Conduct benchmarking.

C.

Notify the legal department.

D.

Determine the disruption to the business.

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Questions 50

What should a global information security manager do FIRST when informed that a new regulation with significant impact will go into effect soon?

Options:

A.

Perform a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

B.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Questions 51

Which of the following is an information security manager's BEST course of action when a penetration test reveals a security exposure due to a firewall that is not configured correctly?

Options:

A.

Ensure a plan with milestones is developed.

B.

Implement a distributed denial of service (DDoS) control.

C.

Engage the incident response team.

D.

Define new key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Questions 52

While conducting a test of a business continuity plan (BCP), which of the following is the MOST important consideration?

Options:

A.

The test is scheduled to reduce operational impact.

B.

The test involves IT members in the test process.

C.

The test addresses the critical components.

D.

The test simulates actual prime-time processing conditions.

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Questions 53

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when one of the organization's critical third-party providers experiences a data breach?

Options:

A.

Inform the public relations officer.

B.

Monitor the third party's response.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan.

D.

Inform customers of the breach.

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Questions 54

A technical vulnerability assessment on a personnel information management server should be performed when:

Options:

A.

the data owner leaves the organization unexpectedly.

B.

changes are made to the system configuration.

C.

the number of unauthorized access attempts increases.

D.

an unexpected server outage has occurred.

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Questions 55

Which of the following BEST facilitates the reporting of useful information about the effectiveness of the information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk heat map.

B.

Security benchmark report.

C.

Security metrics dashboard.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Questions 56

How would the information security program BEST support the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Conducting a control assessment

B.

Developing an emerging technology roadmap

C.

Providing effective risk governance

D.

Developing an acceptable use policy

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Questions 57

A security incident has been reported within an organization. When should an information security manager contact the information owner?

Options:

A.

After the incident has been contained

B.

After the incident has been mitigated

C.

After the incident has been confirmed

D.

After the potential incident has been logged

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Questions 58

When developing a categorization method for security incidents, the categories MUST:

Options:

A.

align with industry standards.

B.

be created by the incident handler.

C.

have agreed-upon definitions.

D.

align with reporting requirements.

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Questions 59

Which of the following is a function of the information security steering committee?

Options:

A.

Deliver external communication during incident response.

B.

Align the security framework with security standards.

C.

Align security strategy with business objectives.

D.

Monitor regulatory requirements.

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Questions 60

An organization is leveraging tablets to replace desktop computers shared by shift-based staff These tablets contain critical business data and are inherently at increased risk of theft Which of the following will BEST help to mitigate this risk''

Options:

A.

Deploy mobile device management (MDM)

B.

Implement remote wipe capability.

C.

Create an acceptable use policy.

D.

Conduct a mobile device risk assessment

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Questions 61

A penetration test against an organization's external web application shows several vulnerabilities. Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

A rules of engagement form was not signed prior to the penetration test

B.

Vulnerabilities were not found by internal tests

C.

Vulnerabilities were caused by insufficient user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Exploit code for one of the vulnerabilities is publicly available

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Questions 62

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in patch management procedures when receiving an emergency security patch?

Options:

A.

Schedule patching based on the criticality.

B.

Install the patch immediately to eliminate the vulnerability.

C.

Conduct comprehensive testing of the patch.

D.

Validate the authenticity of the patch.

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Questions 63

Which of the following BEST enables the restoration of operations after a limited ransomware incident occurs?

Options:

A.

Reliable image backups

B.

Impact assessment

C.

Documented eradication procedures

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 64

A recent audit found that an organization's new user accounts are not set up uniformly. Which of the following is MOST important for the information security manager to review?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security policies

C.

Guidelines

D.

Standards

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Questions 65

An organization has implemented a new customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should be responsible for enforcing authorized and controlled access to the CRM data?

Options:

A.

Internal IT audit

B.

The data custodian

C.

The information security manager

D.

The data owner

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Questions 66

An organization's automated security monitoring tool generates an excessively large amount of falsq positives. Which of the following is the BEST method to optimize the monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report only critical alerts.

B.

Change reporting thresholds.

C.

Reconfigure log recording.

D.

Monitor incidents in a specific time frame.

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Questions 67

An information security team must obtain approval from the information security steering committee to implement a key control. Which of the following is the MOST important input to assist the committee in making this decision?

Options:

A.

IT strategy

B.

Security architecture

C.

Business case

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 68

The MOST useful technique for maintaining management support for the information security program is:

Options:

A.

informing management about the security of business operations.

B.

implementing a comprehensive security awareness and training program.

C.

identifying the risks and consequences of failure to comply with standards.

D.

benchmarking the security programs of comparable organizations.

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Questions 69

Which of the following defines the MOST comprehensive set of security requirements for a newly developed information system?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Audit findings

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Baseline controls

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Questions 70

The business value of an information asset is derived from:

Options:

A.

the threat profile.

B.

its criticality.

C.

the risk assessment.

D.

its replacement cost.

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Questions 71

Which of the following would be MOST useful to help senior management understand the status of information security compliance?

Options:

A.

Industry benchmarks

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Risk assessment results

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Questions 72

In a cloud technology environment, which of the following would pose the GREATEST challenge to the investigation of security incidents?

Options:

A.

Access to the hardware

B.

Data encryption

C.

Non-standard event logs

D.

Compressed customer data

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Questions 73

Which of the following is MOST important to complete during the recovery phase of an incident response process before bringing affected systems back online?

Options:

A.

Record and close security incident tickets.

B.

Test and verify that compromisedsystems are clean.

C.

Document recovery steps for senior management reporting.

D.

Capture and preserve forensic images of affected systems.

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Questions 74

Which of the following is MOST important when developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Engage stakeholders.

B.

Assign data ownership.

C.

Determine information types.

D.

Classify information assets.

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Questions 75

Which of the following BEST indicates the organizational benefit of an information security solution?

Options:

A.

Cost savings the solution brings to the information security department

B.

Reduced security training requirements

C.

Alignment to security threats and risks

D.

Costs and benefits of the solution calculated over time

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Questions 76

Which of the following would be the GREATEST threat posed by a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack on a public-facing web server?

Options:

A.

Execution of unauthorized commands

B.

Prevention of authorized access

C.

Defacement of website content

D.

Unauthorized access to resources

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Questions 77

A software vendor has announced a zero-day vulnerability that exposes an organization's critical business systems. The vendor has released an emergency patch. Which of the following should be the information security managers PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

Ability to test the patch prior to deployment

B.

Documentation of patching procedures

C.

Adequacy of the incident response plan

D.

Availability of resources to implement controls

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Questions 78

What should an information security manager verify FIRST when reviewing an information asset management program?

Options:

A.

System owners have been identified.

B.

Key applications have been secured.

C.

Information assets have been classified.

D.

Information assets have been inventoried.

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Questions 79

An organization has identified a large volume of old data that appears to be unused. Which of the following should the information

security manager do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Consult the record retention policy.

B.

Update the awareness and training program.

C.

Implement media sanitization procedures.

D.

Consult the backup and recovery policy.

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Questions 80

A common drawback of email software packages that provide native encryption of messages is that the encryption:

Options:

A.

cannot encrypt attachments

B.

cannot interoperate across product domains.

C.

has an insufficient key length.

D.

has no key-recovery mechanism.

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Questions 81

An organization plans to utilize Software as a Service (SaaS) and is in the process of selecting a vendor. What should the information security manager do FIRST to support this initiative?

Options:

A.

Review independent security assessment reports for each vendor.

B.

Benchmark each vendor's services with industry best practices.

C.

Analyze the risks and propose mitigating controls.

D.

Define information security requirements and processes.

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Questions 82

Which of the following analyses will BEST identify the external influences to an organization's information security?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Gap analysis

C.

Threat analysis

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Questions 83

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of incident triage?

Options:

A.

Coordination of communications

B.

Mitigation of vulnerabilities

C.

Categorization of events

D.

Containment of threats

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Questions 84

Which of the following should be an information security manager's FIRST course of action when a newly introduced privacy regulation affects the business?

Options:

A.

Consult with IT staff and assess the risk based on their recommendations

B.

Update the security policy based on the regulatory requirements

C.

Propose relevant controls to ensure the business complies with the regulation

D.

Identify and assess the risk in the context of business objectives

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Questions 85

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of an information security governance framework?

Options:

A.

Provide a baseline for optimizing the security profile of the organization.

B.

Demonstrate senior management commitment.

C.

Demonstrate compliance with industry best practices to external stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that users comply with the organization's information security policies.

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Questions 86

Labeling information according to its security classification:

Options:

A.

enhances the likelihood of people handling information securely.

B.

reduces the number and type of countermeasures required.

C.

reduces the need to identify baseline controls for each classification.

D.

affects the consequences if information is handled insecurely.

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Questions 87

Threat and vulnerability assessments are important PRIMARILY because they are:

Options:

A.

used to establish security investments

B.

the basis for setting control objectives.

C.

elements of the organization's security posture.

D.

needed to estimate risk.

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Questions 88

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration of business continuity management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring human safety

B.

Identifying critical business processes

C.

Ensuring the reliability of backup data

D.

Securing critical information assets

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Questions 89

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has effectively tested its business continuity and disaster recovery plans within the stated recovery time objectives (RTOs)?

Options:

A.

Regulatory requirements are being met.

B.

Internal compliance requirements are being met.

C.

Risk management objectives are being met.

D.

Business needs are being met.

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Questions 90

Which of the following is the GREATEST inherent risk when performing a disaster recovery plan (DRP) test?

Options:

A.

Poor documentation of results and lessons learned

B.

Lack of communication to affected users

C.

Disruption to the production environment

D.

Lack of coordination among departments

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Questions 91

Which of the following has The GREATEST positive impact on The ability to execute a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Storing the plan at an offsite location

B.

Communicating the plan to all stakeholders

C.

Updating the plan periodically

D.

Conducting a walk-through of the plan

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Questions 92

Which of the following defines the triggers within a business continuity plan (BCP)? @

Options:

A.

Needs of the organization

B.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

C.

Information security policy

D.

Gap analysis

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Questions 93

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents.

B.

identify vulnerabilities.

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 94

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

project management

B.

governance.

C.

performance.

D.

risk management.

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Questions 95

A balanced scorecard MOST effectively enables information security:

Options:

A.

risk management

B.

project management

C.

governance

D.

performance

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Questions 96

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should be responsible for determining the initial recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

External consultant

B.

Information owners

C.

Information security manager

D.

Business continuity coordinator

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Questions 97

Due to specific application requirements, a project team has been granted administrative ponieon GR: is the PRIMARY reason for ensuring clearly defined roles and responsibilities are communicated to these users?

Options:

A.

Clearer segregation of duties

B.

Increased user productivity

C.

Increased accountability

D.

Fewer security incidents

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Questions 98

An organization's HR department requires that employee account privileges be removed from all corporate IT systems within three days of termination to comply with a government regulation However, the systems all have different user directories, and it currently takes up to four weeks to remove the privileges Which of the following would BEST enable regulatory compliance?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) system

B.

Identity and access management (IAM) system

C.

Privileged access management (PAM) system

D.

Governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system

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Questions 99

Which of the following is an example of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Purchasing insurance

B.

Discontinuing the activity associated with the risk

C.

Improving security controls

D.

Performing a cost-benefit analysis

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Questions 100

Which of the following should be the FIRST step in developing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Determine acceptable levels of information security risk

B.

Create a roadmap to identify security baselines and controls

C.

Perform a gap analysis based on the current state

D.

Identify key stakeholders to champion information security

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Questions 101

Which of the following change management procedures is MOST likely to cause concern to the information security manager?

Options:

A.

Fallback processes are tested the weekend before changes are made

B.

Users are not notified of scheduled system changes

C.

A manual rather than an automated process is used to compare program versions.

D.

The development manager migrates programs into production

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Questions 102

While classifying information assets an information security manager notices that several production databases do not have owners assigned to them What is the BEST way to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Assign responsibility to the database administrator (DBA).

B.

Review the databases for sensitive content.

C.

Prepare a report of the databases for senior management.

D.

Assign the highest classification level to those databases.

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Questions 103

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to prevent information security incidents?

Options:

A.

Implementing a security information and event management (SIEM) tool

B.

Implementing a security awareness training program for employees

C.

Deploying a consistent incident response approach

D.

Deploying intrusion detection tools in the network environment

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Questions 104

A penetration test was conducted by an accredited third party. Which of the following should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ensure a risk assessment is performed to evaluate the findings

B.

Ensure vulnerabilities found are resolved within acceptable timeframes

C.

Request funding needed to resolve the top vulnerabilities

D.

Report findings to senior management

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Questions 105

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to ensure that incident response teams are properly prepared?

Options:

A.

Providing training from third-party forensics firms

B.

Obtaining industry certifications for the response team

C.

Conducting tabletop exercises appropriate for the organization

D.

Documenting multiple scenarios for the organization and response steps

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Questions 106

Which of the following is the BEST indication of information security strategy alignment with the “&

Options:

A.

Percentage of information security incidents resolved within defined service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Percentage of corporate budget allocated to information security initiatives

C.

Number of business executives who have attended information security awareness sessions

D.

Number of business objectives directly supported by information security initiatives

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Questions 107

During the initiation phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) for a software project, information security activities should address:

Options:

A.

baseline security controls.

B.

benchmarking security metrics.

C.

security objectives.

D.

cost-benefit analyses.

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Questions 108

A Seat a-hosting organization's data center houses servers, appli

BEST approach for developing a physical access control policy for the organization?

Options:

A.

Review customers’ security policies.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine security risks and mitigating controls.

C.

Develop access control requirements for each system and application.

D.

Design single sign-on (SSO) or federated access.

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Questions 109

Which of the following is the BEST reason for an organization to use Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS)?

Options:

A.

It transfers the risk associated with recovery to a third party.

B.

It lowers the annual cost to the business.

C.

It eliminates the need to maintain offsite facilities.

D.

It eliminates the need for the business to perform testing.

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Questions 110

Which of the following is the MOST important detail to capture in an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk severity level

C.

Risk acceptance criteria

D.

Risk ownership

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Questions 111

Implementing the principle of least privilege PRIMARILY requires the identification of:

Options:

A.

job duties

B.

data owners

C.

primary risk factors.

D.

authentication controls

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Questions 112

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of information security governance into corporate governance?

Options:

A.

Well-decumented information security policies and standards

B.

An information security steering committee with business representation

C.

Clear lines of authority across the organization

D.

Senior management approval of the information security strategy

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Questions 113

When performing a business impact analysis (BIA), who should calculate the recovery time and cost estimates?

Options:

A.

Business process owner

B.

Business continuity coordinator

C.

Senior management

D.

Information security manager

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Questions 114

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the risk associated with using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor?

Options:

A.

Verify that information security requirements are included in the contract.

B.

Request customer references from the vendor.

C.

Require vendors to complete information security questionnaires.

D.

Review the results of the vendor's independent control reports.

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Questions 115

A multinational organization is required to follow governmental regulations with different security requirements at each of its operating locations. The chief information security officer (CISO) should be MOST concerned with:

Options:

A.

developing a security program that meets global and regional requirements.

B.

ensuring effective communication with local regulatory bodies.

C.

using industry best practice to meet local legal regulatory requirements.

D.

monitoring compliance with defined security policies and standards.

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Questions 116

An information security manager learns through a threat intelligence service that the organization may be targeted for a major emerging threat. Which of the following is the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Conduct an information security audit.

B.

Validate the relevance of the information.

C.

Perform a gap analysis.

D.

Inform senior management

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Questions 117

What is the PRIMARY objective of performing a vulnerability assessment following a business system update?

Options:

A.

Determine operational losses.

B.

Improve the change control process.

C.

Update the threat landscape.

D.

Review the effectiveness of controls

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Questions 118

Which of the following is MOST effective for communicating forward-looking trends within security reporting?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCIs)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key goal indicators (KGIs)

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Questions 119

A critical server for a hospital has been encrypted by ransomware. The hospital is unable to function effectively without this server Which of the following would MOST effectively allow the hospital to avoid paying the ransom?

Options:

A.

Employee training on ransomware

B.

A properly tested offline backup system

C.

A continual server replication process

D.

A properly configured firewall

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Questions 120

Which of the following is the responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plan activities with control owners

B.

Evaluating control effectiveness

C.

Approving risk treatment plans

D.

Approving the selection of risk mitigation measures

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Questions 121

Of the following, whose input is of GREATEST importance in the development of an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Process owners

B.

End users

C.

Security architects.

D.

Corporate auditors

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Questions 122

Which risk is introduced when using only sanitized data for the testing of applications?

Options:

A.

Data loss may occur during the testing phase.

B.

Data disclosure may occur during the migration event

C.

Unexpected outcomes may arise in production

D.

Breaches of compliance obligations will occur.

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Questions 123

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 124

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure appropriate security controls are built into software?

Options:

A.

Integrating security throughout the development process

B.

Performing security testing prior to deployment

C.

Providing standards for implementation during development activities

D.

Providing security training to the software development team

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to demonstrate alignment of information security strategy with business objectives?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Heat map

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Questions 126

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security manager in an organization that is implementing the use of company-owned mobile devices in its operations?

Options:

A.

Require remote wipe capabilities for devices.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Review and update existing security policies.

D.

Enforce passwords and data encryption on the devices.

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Questions 127

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for a successful security program?

Options:

A.

Mapping security processes to baseline security standards

B.

Penetration testing on key systems

C.

Management decision on asset value

D.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDA) with employees

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Questions 128

Which of the following would BEST justify continued investment in an information security program?

Options:

A.

Reduction in residual risk

B.

Security framework alignment

C.

Speed of implementation

D.

Industry peer benchmarking

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Questions 129

Which of the following roles is BEST able to influence the security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Chief executive officer (CEO)

D.

Chief operating officer (COO)

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Questions 130

Which of the following BEST facilitates an information security manager's efforts to obtain senior management commitment for an information security program?

Options:

A.

Presenting evidence of inherent risk

B.

Reporting the security maturity level

C.

Presenting compliance requirements

D.

Communicating the residual risk

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Questions 131

An employee has just reported the loss of a personal mobile device containing corporate information. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Initiate incident response.

B.

Disable remote

C.

Initiate a device reset.

D.

Conduct a risk assessment.

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Questions 132

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to transform its culture to support information security?

Options:

A.

Periodic compliance audits

B.

Strong management support

C.

Robust technical security controls

D.

Incentives for security incident reporting

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Questions 133

Which of the following is MOST important for an information security manager to verify before conducting full-functional continuity testing?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance by the business has been documented

B.

Teams and individuals responsible for recovery have been identified

C.

Copies of recovery and incident response plans are kept offsite

D.

Incident response and recovery plans are documented in simple language

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Questions 134

Which of the following is the sole responsibility of the client organization when adopting a Software as a Service (SaaS) model?

Options:

A.

Host patching

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Infrastructure hardening

D.

Data classification

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Questions 135

An organization is aligning its incident response capability with a public cloud service provider. What should be the information security manager's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify the skill set of the provider's incident response team.

B.

Evaluate the provider's audit logging and monitoring controls.

C.

Review the provider’s incident definitions and notification criteria.

D.

Update the incident escalation process.

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Questions 136

Following a successful attack, an information security manager should be confident the malware @ continued to spread at the completion of which incident response phase?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Eradication

D.

Identification

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Questions 137

Which of the following is MOST helpful for aligning security operations with the IT governance framework?

Options:

A.

Security risk assessment

B.

Security operations program

C.

Information security policy

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 138

Recovery time objectives (RTOs) are BEST determined by:

Options:

A.

business managers

B.

business continuity officers

C.

executive management

D.

database administrators (DBAs).

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Questions 139

The PRIMARY objective of performing a post-incident review is to:

Options:

A.

re-evaluate the impact of incidents

B.

identify vulnerabilities

C.

identify control improvements.

D.

identify the root cause.

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Questions 140

Which of the following sources is MOST useful when planning a business-aligned information security program?

Options:

A.

Security risk register

B.

Information security policy

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

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Questions 141

Which of the following is the BEST tool to monitor the effectiveness of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Risk profile

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Questions 142

An information security manager has been notified about a compromised endpoint device Which of the following is the BEST course of action to prevent further damage?

Options:

A.

Wipe and reset the endpoint device.

B.

Isolate the endpoint device.

C.

Power off the endpoint device.

D.

Run a virus scan on the endpoint device.

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Questions 143

Reevaluation of risk is MOST critical when there is:

Options:

A.

resistance to the implementation of mitigating controls.

B.

a management request for updated security reports.

C.

a change in security policy.

D.

a change in the threat landscape.

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Questions 144

Which of the following would be MOST effective in gaining senior management approval of security investments in network infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Performing penetration tests against the network to demonstrate business vulnerability

B.

Highlighting competitor performance regarding network best security practices

C.

Demonstrating that targeted security controls tie to business objectives

D.

Presenting comparable security implementation estimates from several vendors

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Questions 145

An information security manager believes that information has been classified inappropriately, = the risk of a breach. Which of the following is the information security manager's BEST action?

Options:

A.

Refer the issue to internal audit for a recommendation.

B.

Re-classify the data and increase the security level to meet business risk.

C.

Instruct the relevant system owners to reclassify the data.

D.

Complete a risk assessment and refer the results to the data owners.

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Questions 146

A risk assessment exercise has identified the threat of a denial of service (DoS) attack Executive management has decided to take no further action related to this risk. The MO ST likely reason for this decision is

Options:

A.

the risk assessment has not defined the likelihood of occurrence

B.

the reported vulnerability has not been validated

C.

executive management is not aware of the impact potential

D.

the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential financial losses.

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Questions 147

An organization's security policy is to disable access to USB storage devices on laptops and desktops. Which of the following is the STRONGEST justification for granting an exception to the policy?

Options:

A.

The benefit is greater than the potential risk.

B.

USB storage devices are enabled based on user roles.

C.

Users accept the risk of noncompliance.

D.

Access is restricted to read-only.

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Questions 148

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor for information security program success?

Options:

A.

comprehensive risk assessment program for information security

B.

The information security manager's knowledge of the business

C.

Security staff with appropriate training and adequate resources

D.

Ongoing audits and addressing open items

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Questions 149

Data entry functions for a web-based application have been outsourced to a third-party service provider who will work from a remote site Which of the following issues would be of GREATEST concern to an information security manager?

Options:

A.

The application does not use a secure communications protocol

B.

The application is configured with restrictive access controls

C.

The business process has only one level of error checking

D.

Server-based malware protection is not enforced

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Questions 150

What should be an information security manager's MOST important consideration when developing a multi-year plan?

Options:

A.

Ensuring contingency plans are in place for potential information security risks

B.

Ensuring alignment with the plans of other business units

C.

Allowing the information security program to expand its capabilities

D.

Demonstrating projected budget increases year after year

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Questions 151

An organization is in the process of acquiring a new company Which of the following would be the BEST approach to determine how to protect newly acquired data assets prior to integration?

Options:

A.

Include security requirements in the contract

B.

Assess security controls.

C.

Perform a risk assessment

D.

Review data architecture.

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Questions 152

Reverse lookups can be used to prevent successful:

Options:

A.

denial of service (DoS) attacks

B.

session hacking

C.

phishing attacks

D.

Internet protocol (IP) spoofing

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Questions 153

Which of the following BEST determines the allocation of resources during a security incident response?

Options:

A.

Senior management commitment

B.

A business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

An established escalation process

D.

Defined levels of severity

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Questions 154

The MAIN reason for having senior management review and approve an information security strategic plan is to ensure:

Options:

A.

the organization has the required funds to implement the plan.

B.

compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

staff participation in information security efforts.

D.

the plan aligns with corporate governance.

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Questions 155

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a report to key stakeholders regarding the effectiveness of an information security program?

Options:

A.

Security metrics

B.

Security baselines

C.

Security incident details

D.

Security risk exposure

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Questions 156

Which of the following desired outcomes BEST supports a decision to invest in a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Enhanced security monitoring and reporting

B.

Reduced control complexity

C.

Enhanced threat detection capability

D.

Reduction of organizational risk

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Questions 157

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The organization's vision and mission

B.

Results of a comprehensive gap analysis

C.

Information security policies

D.

Audit and regulatory requirements

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Questions 158

What is the PRIMARY benefit to an organization when information security program requirements are aligned with employment and staffing processes?

Options:

A.

Security incident reporting procedures are followed.

B.

Security staff turnover is reduced.

C.

Information assets are classified appropriately.

D.

Access is granted based on task requirements.

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Questions 159

Which of the following activities is designed to handle a control failure that leads to a breach?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Incident management

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Vulnerability management

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Questions 160

Which of the following MUST happen immediately following the identification of a malware incident?

Options:

A.

Preparation

B.

Recovery

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 161

A recovery point objective (RPO) is required in which of the following?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Information security plan

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

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Questions 162

Which of the following would be the BEST way for an information security manager to improve the effectiveness of an organization’s information security program?

Options:

A.

Focus on addressing conflicts between security and performance.

B.

Collaborate with business and IT functions in determining controls.

C.

Include information security requirements in the change control process.

D.

Obtain assistance from IT to implement automated security cantrals.

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Questions 163

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a post-incident review following a data breach?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the effectiveness of the information security strategy

B.

Evaluations of the adequacy of existing controls

C.

Documentation of regulatory reporting requirements

D.

A review of the forensics chain of custom

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Questions 164

An organization has acquired a company in a foreign country to gain an advantage in a new market. Which of the following is the FIRST step the information security manager should take?

Options:

A.

Determine which country's information security regulations will be used.

B.

Merge the two existing information security programs.

C.

Apply the existing information security program to the acquired company.

D.

Evaluate the information security laws that apply to the acquired company.

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Questions 165

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when establishing information security policies for an organization?

Options:

A.

Job descriptions include requirements to read security policies.

B.

The policies are updated annually.

C.

Senior management supports the policies.

D.

The policies are aligned to industry best practices.

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Questions 166

An organization is close to going live with the implementation of a cloud-based application. Independent penetration test results have been received that show a high-rated vulnerability. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed?

Options:

A.

Implement the application and request the cloud service provider to fix the vulnerability.

B.

Assess whether the vulnerability is within the organization's risk tolerance levels.

C.

Commission further penetration tests to validate initial test results,

D.

Postpone the implementation until the vulnerability has been fixed.

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Questions 167

In an organization with a rapidly changing environment, business management has accepted an information security risk. It is MOST important for the information security manager to ensure:

Options:

A.

change activities are documented.

B.

the rationale for acceptance is periodically reviewed.

C.

the acceptance is aligned with business strategy.

D.

compliance with the risk acceptance framework.

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Questions 168

An information security manager developing an incident response plan MUST ensure it includes:

Options:

A.

an inventory of critical data.

B.

criteria for escalation.

C.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

critical infrastructure diagrams.

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Questions 169

Which of the following will BEST facilitate the integration of information security governance into enterprise governance?

Options:

A.

Developing an information security policy based on risk assessments

B.

Establishing an information security steering committee

C.

Documenting the information security governance framework

D.

Implementing an information security awareness program

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Questions 170

Security administration efforts will be greatly reduced following the deployment of which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Discretionary access control

B.

Role-based access control

C.

Access control lists

D.

Distributed access control

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Questions 171

Which of the following plans should be invoked by an organization in an effort to remain operational during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Incident response plan

C.

Business continuity plan (BCP)

D.

Business contingency plan

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Questions 172

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing an organization's information security governance committee?

Options:

A.

Members have knowledge of information security controls.

B.

Members are business risk owners.

C.

Members are rotated periodically.

D.

Members represent functions across the organization.

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Questions 173

Which of the following is the FIRST step to establishing an effective information security program?

Options:

A.

Conduct a compliance review.

B.

Assign accountability.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Create a business case.

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Questions 174

Which of the following messages would be MOST effective in obtaining senior management's commitment to information security management?

Options:

A.

Effective security eliminates risk to the business.

B.

Adopt a recognized framework with metrics.

C.

Security is a business product and not a process.

D.

Security supports and protects the business.

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Questions 175

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of conducting an organization-wide security awareness program?

Options:

A.

The security strategy is promoted.

B.

Fewer security incidents are reported.

C.

Security behavior is improved.

D.

More security incidents are detected.

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Questions 176

The BEST way to identify the risk associated with a social engineering attack is to:

Options:

A.

monitor the intrusion detection system (IDS),

B.

review single sign-on (SSO) authentication lags.

C.

test user knowledge of information security practices.

D.

perform a business risk assessment of the email filtering system.

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Questions 177

What is the BEST way to reduce the impact of a successful ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Perform frequent backups and store them offline.

B.

Purchase or renew cyber insurance policies.

C.

Include provisions to pay ransoms ih the information security budget.

D.

Monitor the network and provide alerts on intrusions.

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Questions 178

An organization needs to comply with new security incident response requirements. Which of the following should the information security manager do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Create a business case for a new incident response plan.

B.

Revise the existing incident response plan.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Assess the impact to the budget,

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Questions 179

Which of the following would be MOST useful to a newly hired information security manager who has been tasked with developing and implementing an information security strategy?

Options:

A.

The capabilities and expertise of the information security team

B.

The organization's mission statement and roadmap

C.

A prior successful information security strategy

D.

The organization's information technology (IT) strategy

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Questions 180

An incident response team has been assembled from a group of experienced individuals, Which type of exercise would be MOST beneficial for the team at the first drill?

Options:

A.

Red team exercise

B.

Black box penetration test

C.

Disaster recovery exercise

D.

Tabletop exercise

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Questions 181

Who is BEST suited to determine how the information in a database should be classified?

Options:

A.

Database analyst

B.

Database administrator (DBA)

C.

Information security analyst

D.

Data owner

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Questions 182

Which of the following BEST indicates that information assets are classified accurately?

Options:

A.

Appropriate prioritization of information risk treatment

B.

Increased compliance with information security policy

C.

Appropriate assignment of information asset owners

D.

An accurate and complete information asset catalog

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Questions 183

Which of the following is PRIMARILY determined by asset classification?

Options:

A.

Insurance coverage required for assets

B.

Level of protection required for assets

C.

Priority for asset replacement

D.

Replacement cost of assets

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Questions 184

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 185

Which of the following tasks should be performed once a disaster recovery plan (DRP) has been developed?

Options:

A.

Develop the test plan.

B.

Analyze the business impact.

C.

Define response team roles.

D.

Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Questions 186

Which of the following is MOST important for building 4 robust information security culture within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mature information security awareness training across the organization

B.

Strict enforcement of employee compliance with organizational security policies

C.

Security controls embedded within the development and operation of the IT environment

D.

Senior management approval of information security policies

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Questions 187

The PRIMARY benefit of introducing a single point of administration in network monitoring is that it:

Options:

A.

reduces unauthorized access to systems.

B.

promotes efficiency in control of the environment.

C.

prevents inconsistencies in information in the distributed environment.

D.

allows administrative staff to make management decisions.

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Questions 188

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing a vulnerability assessment process?

Options:

A.

Threat management is enhanced.

B.

Compliance status is improved.

C.

Security metrics are enhanced.

D.

Proactive risk management is facilitated.

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Questions 189

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for granting a security exception?

Options:

A.

The risk is justified by the cost to the business.

B.

The risk is justified by the benefit to security.

C.

The risk is justified by the cost to security.

D.

The risk is justified by the benefit to the business.

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Questions 190

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help staff members understand their responsibilities for information security?

Options:

A.

Communicate disciplinary processes for policy violations.

B.

Require staff to participate in information security awareness training.

C.

Require staff to sign confidentiality agreements.

D.

Include information security responsibilities in job descriptions.

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Questions 191

Which of the following BEST supports the incident management process for attacks on an organization's supply chain?

Options:

A.

Including service level agreements (SLAs) in vendor contracts

B.

Establishing communication paths with vendors

C.

Requiring security awareness training for vendor staff

D.

Performing integration testing with vendor systems

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Questions 192

Which of the following is a desired outcome of information security governance?

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Improved risk management

C.

Business agility

D.

A maturity model

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Questions 193

Which of the following is the BEST evidence of alignment between corporate and information security governance?

Options:

A.

Security key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Project resource optimization

C.

Regular security policy reviews

D.

Senior management sponsorship

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Questions 194

An online bank identifies a successful network attack in progress. The bank should FIRST:

Options:

A.

isolate the affected network segment.

B.

report the root cause to the board of directors.

C.

assess whether personally identifiable information (Pll) is compromised.

D.

shut down the entire network.

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Questions 195

If civil litigation is a goal for an organizational response to a security incident, the PRIMARY step should be to:

Options:

A.

contact law enforcement.

B.

document the chain of custody.

C.

capture evidence using standard server-backup utilities.

D.

reboot affected machines in a secure area to search for evidence.

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Questions 196

During which of the following phases should an incident response team document actions required to remove the threat that caused the incident?

Options:

A.

Post-incident review

B.

Eradication

C.

Containment

D.

Identification

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Questions 197

Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST upon learning that some security hardening settings may negatively impact future business activity?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Reduce security hardening settings.

C.

Inform business management of the risk.

D.

Document a security exception.

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Questions 198

An information security manager learns of a new standard related to an emerging technology the organization wants to implement. Which of the following should the information security manager recommend be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the organization can benefit from adopting the new standard.

B.

Obtain legal counsel's opinion on the standard's applicability to regulations,

C.

Perform a risk assessment on the new technology.

D.

Review industry specialists’ analyses of the new standard.

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Questions 199

Information security controls should be designed PRIMARILY based on:

Options:

A.

a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

regulatory requirements.

C.

business risk scenarios,

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Questions 200

An organization is going through a digital transformation process, which places the IT organization in an unfamiliar risk landscape. The information security manager has been tasked with leading the IT risk management process. Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority?

Options:

A.

Identification of risk

B.

Analysis of control gaps

C.

Design of key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Selection of risk treatment options

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Questions 201

Which of the following is the BEST approach for governing noncompliance with security requirements?

Options:

A.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on residual risk,

B.

Require users to acknowledge the acceptable use policy.

C.

Require the steering committee to review exception requests.

D.

Base mandatory review and exception approvals on inherent risk.

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Questions 202

Which of the following is MOST important to ensuring information stored by an organization is protected appropriately?

Options:

A.

Defining information stewardship roles

B.

Defining security asset categorization

C.

Assigning information asset ownership

D.

Developing a records retention schedule

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Questions 203

Which of the following risk scenarios is MOST likely to emerge from a supply chain attack?

Options:

A.

Compromise of critical assets via third-party resources

B.

Unavailability of services provided by a supplier

C.

Loss of customers due to unavailability of products

D.

Unreliable delivery of hardware and software resources by a supplier

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Questions 204

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining an organization's current capacity to mitigate risks?

Options:

A.

Capability maturity model

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

IT security risk and exposure

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 205

Which of the following is the BEST indication ofa successful information security culture?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing is done regularly and findings remediated.

B.

End users know how to identify and report incidents.

C.

Individuals are given roles based on job functions.

D.

The budget allocated for information security is sufficient.

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Questions 206

Penetration testing is MOST appropriate when a:

Options:

A.

new system is about to go live.

B.

new system is being designed.

C.

security policy is being developed.

D.

security incident has occurred,

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Questions 207

Measuring which of the following is the MOST accurate way to determine the alignment of an information security strategy with organizational goals?

Options:

A.

Number of blocked intrusion attempts

B.

Number of business cases reviewed by senior management

C.

Trends in the number of identified threats to the business

D.

Percentage of controls integrated into business processes

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Questions 208

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to ensure information security is aligned with the organization's strategy?

Options:

A.

To identify the organization's risk tolerance

B.

To improve security processes

C.

To align security roles and responsibilities

D.

To optimize security risk management

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Questions 209

When properly implemented, secure transmission protocols protect transactions:

Options:

A.

from eavesdropping.

B.

from denial of service (DoS) attacks.

C.

on the client desktop.

D.

in the server's database.

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Questions 210

A post-incident review identified that user error resulted in a major breach. Which of the following is MOST important to determine during the review?

Options:

A.

The time and location that the breach occurred

B.

Evidence of previous incidents caused by the user

C.

The underlying reason for the user error

D.

Appropriate disciplinary procedures for user error

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Questions 211

When developing an asset classification program, which of the following steps should be completed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Categorize each asset.

B.

Create an inventory. &

C.

Create a business case for a digital rights management tool.

D.

Implement a data loss prevention (OLP) system.

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Questions 212

Which of the following service offerings in a typical Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) model will BEST enable a cloud service provider to assist customers when recovering from a security incident?

Options:

A.

Availability of web application firewall logs.

B.

Capability of online virtual machine analysis

C.

Availability of current infrastructure documentation

D.

Capability to take a snapshot of virtual machines

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Questions 213

When remote access to confidential information is granted to a vendor for analytic purposes, which of the following is the MOST important security consideration?

Options:

A.

Data is encrypted in transit and at rest at the vendor site.

B.

Data is subject to regular access log review.

C.

The vendor must be able to amend data.

D.

The vendor must agree to the organization's information security policy,

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Questions 214

Which of the following should be the FIRST step to gain approval for outsourcing to address a security gap?

Options:

A.

Collect additional metrics.

B.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

C.

Submit funding request to senior management.

D.

Begin due diligence on the outsourcing company.

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Questions 215

The effectiveness of an information security governance framework will BEST be enhanced if:

Options:

A.

consultants review the information security governance framework.

B.

a culture of legal and regulatory compliance is promoted by management.

C.

risk management is built into operational and strategic activities.

D.

IS auditors are empowered to evaluate governance activities

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Questions 216

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY objective of the information security incident response process?

Options:

A.

Conducting incident triage

B.

Communicating with internal and external parties

C.

Minimizing negative impact to critical operations

D.

Classifying incidents

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Questions 217

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to identify worst-case disruption scenarios?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Business process analysis

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Cast-benefit analysis

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Questions 218

A cloud application used by an organization is found to have a serious vulnerability. After assessing the risk, which of the following would be the information security manager's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Instruct the vendor to conduct penetration testing.

B.

Suspend the connection to the application in the firewall

C.

Report the situation to the business owner of the application.

D.

Initiate the organization's incident response process.

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Questions 219

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to conduct interviews as part of the business impact analysis (BIA) process?

Options:

A.

To facilitate a qualitative risk assessment following the BIA

B.

To increase awareness of information security among key stakeholders

C.

To ensure the stakeholders providing input own the related risk

D.

To obtain input from as many relevant stakeholders as possible

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Questions 220

An organization's marketing department wants to use an online collaboration service, which is not in compliance with the information security policy, A risk assessment is performed, and risk acceptance is being pursued. Approval of risk acceptance should be provided by:

Options:

A.

the chief risk officer (CRO).

B.

business senior management.

C.

the information security manager.

D.

the compliance officer.

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Questions 221

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when mitigating security risks associated with emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Compatibility with legacy systems

B.

Application of corporate hardening standards

C.

Integration with existing access controls

D.

Unknown vulnerabilities

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Questions 222

Which of the following BEST enables an information security manager to determine the comprehensiveness of an organization's information security strategy?

Options:

A.

Internal security audit

B.

External security audit

C.

Organizational risk appetite

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Questions 223

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance that security policies are applied across business operations?

Options:

A.

Organizational standards are included in awareness training.

B.

Organizational standards are enforced by technical controls.

C.

Organizational standards are required to be formally accepted.

D.

Organizational standards are documented in operational procedures.

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Questions 224

Reviewing which of the following would be MOST helpful when a new information security manager is developing an information security strategy for a non-regulated organization?

Options:

A.

Management's business goals and objectives

B.

Strategies of other non-regulated companies

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Industry best practices and control recommendations

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Questions 225

An information security manager learns that a risk owner has approved exceptions to replace key controls with weaker compensating controls to improve process efficiency. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Risk levels may be elevated beyond acceptable limits.

B.

Security audits may report more high-risk findings.

C.

The compensating controls may not be cost efficient.

D.

Noncompliance with industry best practices may result.

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Questions 226

Which of the following security processes will BEST prevent the exploitation of system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Intrusion detection

B.

Log monitoring

C.

Patch management

D.

Antivirus software

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Questions 227

The MOST appropriate time to conduct a disaster recovery test would be after:

Options:

A.

major business processes have been redesigned.

B.

the business continuity plan (BCP) has been updated.

C.

the security risk profile has been reviewed

D.

noncompliance incidents have been filed.

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Questions 228

The MAIN benefit of implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution is to:

Options:

A.

enhance the organization's antivirus controls.

B.

eliminate the risk of data loss.

C.

complement the organization's detective controls.

D.

reduce the need for a security awareness program.

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Questions 229

When investigating an information security incident, details of the incident should be shared:

Options:

A.

widely to demonstrate positive intent.

B.

only with management.

C.

only as needed,

D.

only with internal audit.

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Questions 230

Which of the following processes BEST supports the evaluation of incident response effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis

B.

Post-incident review

C.

Chain of custody

D.

Incident logging

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Questions 231

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when developing escalation procedures for an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Each process is assigned to a responsible party.

B.

The contact list is regularly updated.

C.

Minimum regulatory requirements are maintained.

D.

Senior management approval has been documented.

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Questions 232

Which of the following is the BEST approach for managing user access permissions to ensure alignment with data classification?

Options:

A.

Enable multi-factor authentication on user and admin accounts.

B.

Review access permissions annually or whenever job responsibilities change

C.

Lock out accounts after a set number of unsuccessful login attempts.

D.

Delegate the management of access permissions to an independent third party.

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Questions 233

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

The definition of an incident

B.

Compliance with regulations

C.

Management support

D.

Previously reported incidents

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Questions 234

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to demonstrate that an information security program provides appropriate coverage?

Options:

A.

Security risk analysis

B.

Gap assessment

C.

Maturity assessment

D.

Vulnerability scan report

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Questions 235

What should be the FIRST step when an Internet of Things (loT) device in an organization's network is confirmed to have been hacked?

Options:

A.

Monitor the network.

B.

Perform forensic analysis.

C.

Disconnect the device from the network,

D.

Escalate to the incident response team

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Questions 236

Which of the following Is MOST useful to an information security manager when conducting a post-incident review of an attack?

Options:

A.

Cost of the attack to the organization

B.

Location of the attacker

C.

Method of operation used by the attacker

D.

Details from intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

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Questions 237

An organization's main product is a customer-facing application delivered using Software as a Service (SaaS). The lead security engineer has just identified a major security vulnerability at the primary cloud provider. Within the organization, who is PRIMARILY accountable for the associated task?

Options:

A.

The information security manager

B.

The data owner

C.

The application owner

D.

The security engineer

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Exam Code: CISM
Exam Name: Certified Information Security Manager
Last Update: Oct 23, 2024
Questions: 793
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