220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2026) Questions and Answers

Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:

" Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections. "

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1

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Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.

Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.

Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.

Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts​.

A Type 2 hypervisor is defined as a hypervisor that runs on top of a host operating system, rather than directly on the system’s hardware. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization concepts, Type 2 hypervisors are also referred to as hosted hypervisors and are commonly used in desktop, lab, and testing environments.

In this model, the host operating system (such as Windows, macOS, or Linux) is installed first, and the hypervisor runs as an application within that OS. The hypervisor then manages virtual machines by requesting hardware resources through the host OS. Examples of Type 2 hypervisors include VirtualBox, VMware Workstation, and Parallels Desktop.

Option B describes a Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor, which runs directly on the hardware without a host OS. Type 1 hypervisors are typically used in enterprise environments and offer higher performance and isolation. Option A is unrelated to virtualization, as firewall functionality controls network traffic. Option D is incorrect because hypervisors do not inherently increase CPU capabilities; they allocate existing resources.

CompTIA emphasizes understanding the distinction between Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisors, particularly that Type 2 hypervisors rely on a host operating system, making option C the correct answer.

In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) cloud concepts, the key differentiator between cloud deployment models is where the service is hosted and who owns/uses the underlying infrastructure. If a company’s directory services server (for example, a domain controller providing authentication/authorization and centralized identity management) is located on premises, that points to infrastructure that is owned and operated by the organization for its own internal use. This aligns best with a private cloud model, which is defined as cloud resources dedicated to a single organization and can be implemented on-premises (internally hosted) or in a dedicated off-site environment.

It is not a public cloud because public cloud services are hosted by a third-party provider and shared across multiple customers. It is not hybrid cloud because hybrid requires a mix of on-prem resources and public cloud resources working together (the question only specifies on-prem). It is not community cloud because that involves shared infrastructure among multiple organizations with common needs.

A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization concepts:

“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking and troubleshooting, a common cause of “can’t reach internal resources” while docked is that the laptop is still using the wireless interface (or has a higher interface priority for Wi-Fi) instead of the docking station’s wired Ethernet connection. If the Wi-Fi network is a guest/isolated VLAN, uses different routing, or has stricter access controls, the user may be blocked from reaching department file servers even though an Ethernet cable is physically connected to the dock. Disabling Wi-Fi is a fast, low-risk step that forces the system to use the wired NIC path through the docking station, which typically provides the correct corporate network access, DHCP scope, and routing to internal servers.

Restarting the computer might help in some cases, but it’s less targeted and not the “best next step” when the likely issue is interface selection. Replacing the Ethernet cable is appropriate if link lights are off or the wired connection is clearly down, but the scenario highlights that the dock has a hardwired connection—suggesting the physical layer may be fine. Dock firmware updates are not a first-line fix for basic connectivity/access symptoms.

F-type connectors are commonly used to terminate coaxial cables in cable internet, cable TV, and satellite connections.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Network cables and connectors:

“F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable terminations in cable modem and TV installations.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Networking Cables and Connectors

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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Display flickering is most commonly caused by an incorrect or unstable refresh rate setting. The refresh rate is the number of times per second (measured in Hz) that a monitor redraws the image. CompTIA A+ teaches that LCD, LED, and especially older CRT displays can exhibit flickering if the refresh rate is set too low or to a value unsupported by the monitor.

For modern displays, typical refresh rates are 60 Hz, 75 Hz, 120 Hz, 144 Hz, and higher. If the refresh rate is mismatched—such as manually set above the monitor’s rated capability—the screen may flicker, blank intermittently, or show instability. Similarly, if the refresh rate is set too low, the user may perceive visible flicker, eye strain, or shimmering on the display.

Checking and adjusting the refresh rate through the operating system’s display settings (or GPU control panel) is the first and most direct troubleshooting step for flickering issues.

The LCD type (A) has no bearing on flickering once installed. Screen resolution (C) affects clarity and scaling but does not cause flicker by itself. Pixel density (D) is a hardware characteristic and cannot cause flickering.

Thus, the correct component to check when diagnosing display flicker is the refresh rate.

Packet loss

Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation

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NFC (Near-Field Communication)operates atvery short ranges usually less than 4cm, and is ideal for quick, secure transactions like contactless payments.Bluetoothsupportslonger ranges (up to 10 meters or 32 feet)and is suited for ongoing connections like wireless headsets or file transfers.

Option A:Bluetooth is faster for large file transfers.

Option B:NFC usesless power, not more.

Option C:NFC doesnotrequire pairing Bluetooth does.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

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If only one key is not functioning and debris has been checked, replacing the individual keycap is the most cost-effective next step. It ' s a simple, low-cost option before considering more extensive repairs like replacing the entire keyboard.

In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking concepts, satellite internet is commonly associated with higher (increased) latency compared with terrestrial options like cable, fiber, or DSL. Latency is the delay between sending data and receiving a response. With satellite, signals must travel from the user’s dish up to a satellite and then back down to a ground station (and return again for responses). That long travel distance adds noticeable delay, which can affect real-time activities such as VoIP, video conferencing, and online gaming. Even though newer low-earth-orbit (LEO) systems can reduce latency compared with older geostationary systems, satellite service is still generally discussed in A+ as having higher latency characteristics to consider.

The other options do not best fit satellite internet. Proximity to urban infrastructure (A) is more relevant to cable/fiber availability. An eSIM requirement (B) relates to cellular/mobile service, not satellite broadband. Line of sight to a nearby tower (C) describes cellular or fixed wireless services that depend on tower connectivity; satellite instead needs a clear view of the sky toward the satellite (not a nearby tower). Therefore, increased latency is the best characteristic to consider.

A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. One significant advantage is that it allows organizations to keep sensitive data in a private environment to meet regulatory or data residency requirements, while still utilizing the scalability and cost-efficiency of the public cloud for other workloads. This ensures compliance with legal mandates about data location.

A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.

SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.

Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.

Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.

Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols​.

Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

solution as

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For the highest possible stability, the best power-supply choice is a redundant power supply. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware concepts, redundant PSUs are used in systems where uptime and reliability are critical. A redundant PSU configuration typically includes two power supply units operating together (often in a hot-swappable bay). If one PSU fails, the other continues supplying power, allowing the workstation to remain operational and preventing unexpected shutdowns that could interrupt CAD work or corrupt data. This directly matches the requirement for maximum stability.

A UPS improves resilience to power loss and brownouts by providing battery backup and line conditioning, but it is not a power supply type and doesn’t protect against the PSU itself failing. A surge protector helps guard against voltage spikes, but it also does not ensure system operation if the PSU fails. A modular PSU mainly improves cable management and airflow by allowing detachable cables; it can be convenient and neat, but it does not inherently increase stability compared with redundancy. Therefore, the most stability-focused PSU option is Redundant.

Because the smudges are not in the original document, CompTIA A+ troubleshooting logic indicates the problem is occurring inside the print process, not in the application or file. For laser printers, smudging commonly points to an issue with the imaging components—especially the drum/photoconductor unit (and sometimes the fuser). A+ Core 1 (220-1201) printer troubleshooting emphasizes starting with the most likely, easiest-to-verify causes before replacing parts. Inspecting the drum is a diagnostic step that can reveal visible defects such as scratches, toner buildup, contamination, or worn surfaces that cause toner to transfer incorrectly, leading to streaks or smears on output.

Replacing the toner (D) is a corrective action and may be unnecessary if the drum is damaged. Changing paper type (A) can help with some issues (like poor fusing or humidity-related problems), but it’s less directly tied to consistent smudges caused by the imaging process. Firmware updates (C) are rarely the first step for print-quality defects; they’re more relevant to compatibility, bugs, or feature issues—not physical smearing. Therefore, inspecting the printer drum first best matches A+ methodology and common laser printer failure points.

For a main database server with high read/write activity, the best RAID choice must deliver strong performance while still providing fault tolerance. Per CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) storage/RAID objectives, RAID 10 (1+0) combines disk mirroring (RAID 1) and disk striping (RAID 0). Striping improves performance by distributing read/write operations across multiple disks, which is ideal for databases that perform frequent transactions. Mirroring provides redundancy by keeping an identical copy of data on a paired drive, allowing the system to tolerate drive failures (typically one drive per mirrored pair) without data loss.

RAID 0 is fast but offers no redundancy, making it inappropriate for critical servers. RAID 5 and RAID 6 use parity, which provides redundancy but introduces a write penalty because parity must be calculated and written during updates—often a poor fit for workloads with heavy random writes like databases. RAID 6 is even more write-intensive

A router is a network device that forwards data between different networks by examining packet headers, specifically the IP address information contained in Layer 3 (Network Layer) of the OSI model. According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, routers use routing tables and packet header analysis to determine the best path for data to travel from a source network to a destination network. When a packet arrives at a router interface, the router reads the destination IP address in the packet header, compares it against its routing table, and then forwards the packet to the appropriate next hop or network interface. This function allows routers to connect multiple networks such as LANs, WANs, and the internet.

The other options do not perform this function. A hub operates at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply broadcasts incoming signals to all connected ports without inspecting any packet information. A repeater also operates at the physical layer and is used only to regenerate or amplify signals to extend network distance. An unmanaged switch operates mainly at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and forwards frames based on MAC addresses, not IP packet headers. Because only routers analyze packet headers and forward traffic between different networks, Router is the correct answer.

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A SIM card enables a laptop to connect directly to a cellular network when the laptop includes an integrated mobile broadband (cellular) modem (often referred to as LTE/5G capable). In this setup, the SIM provides subscriber identity and authentication details required by the carrier, allowing the laptop to register on the cellular network and access mobile data without relying on separate tethering devices. This aligns with CompTIA A+ Core 1 coverage of mobile and wireless connectivity options, including cellular data capabilities and the components required to use them.

The other options do not meet the requirement “without using an external device” for cellular connectivity. A hotspot typically means using a phone or dedicated hotspot device to share its cellular connection over Wi-Fi, which relies on an external device. Bluetooth can be used for tethering, but it still requires a phone providing the cellular connection. NFC is used for short-range communication like tap-to-pair or payments and does not provide cellular internet access. Therefore, a SIM card (with an internal cellular modem) is the correct choice.

To ensure seamless connectivity during (and after) migrating an application server, the best DNS approach in CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) terms is to use a CNAME (Canonical Name) record, which creates an alias from one hostname to another. Instead of users connecting directly to a server’s changing hostname, they connect to a consistent service name (for example, app.company.com). That name can be configured as a CNAME pointing to the current host (such as server1.company.com). When the application is moved to a new server, the technician updates what the alias ultimately resolves to (or updates the target host’s A/AAAA record), and clients continue using the same familiar application URL/name—minimizing disruption and avoiding the need to reconfigure endpoints across devices.

The other record types are not designed for this purpose. TXT records store text-based information (often verification or policy data). SPF and DKIM are email authentication-related mechanisms (typically implemented via TXT records) used to validate authorized mail senders and message integrity—not application server migration. Because the goal is maintaining a stable name for a service while the underlying host changes, CNAME is the correct record type.

The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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Answer of both steps below.

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Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) display technology objectives emphasize that contrast ratio is strongly influenced by how well a screen can produce true black. OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) panels are known for the highest contrast ratios because each pixel is self-emissive—meaning it generates its own light. When an image requires black, OLED can turn individual pixels completely off, producing near-perfect black levels and extremely high (often “infinite”) contrast in practical terms.

By comparison, LCD panels require a backlight, so black areas still allow some light leakage through the liquid crystal layer, reducing contrast. LED in this context is typically an LED-backlit LCD, not a fundamentally different pixel technology; it improves brightness and efficiency but still relies on backlighting, so contrast is limited by backlight bleed and panel design. QLED is also a type of LCD technology that uses a quantum dot layer to enhance color and brightness, but it still uses a backlight, so it cannot match OLED’s per-pixel shutoff for black levels. Therefore, OLED is the best choice for the highest contrast ratios.

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A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is the correct solution because it logically separates devices into different broadcast domains on the same physical switching infrastructure. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201), VLANs are described as a way to segment a network for security, performance, and management—for example, isolating departments like Accounting and Customer Service so their traffic is separated. Devices assigned to different VLANs cannot communicate directly at Layer 2; communication between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device (such as a router or a Layer 3 switch) using inter-VLAN routing and appropriate access control. This effectively prevents unnecessary broadcast traffic from crossing department boundaries and helps enforce separation policies.

A VPN is used to create an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network (commonly for remote access or site-to-site connectivity), not for internal departmental segmentation. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses and does not isolate networks. DHCP automatically assigns IP configuration (IP address, gateway, DNS servers), but it does not provide segmentation by itself. Therefore, implementing VLANs is the best way to separate the two departments’ networks.

According to the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) virtualization objectives, a Type 1 hypervisor is known as a bare-metal hypervisor because it installs directly onto the physical hardware of a system rather than running on top of a traditional operating system. This architecture allows the hypervisor to manage hardware resources—such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking—without the overhead of a host operating system. Because of this direct interaction with the hardware, Type 1 hypervisors typically provide higher performance, better scalability, and improved stability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.

Examples of Type 1 hypervisors include VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V (bare-metal deployment), and Citrix XenServer. These hypervisors are commonly used in enterprise data centers, cloud infrastructure, and large virtualization environments where multiple virtual machines must run efficiently on a single physical server. ???? ️

Option A (Host OS required) describes a Type 2 hypervisor, such as VMware Workstation or Oracle VirtualBox, which runs on top of an existing operating system. Option C (Lightweight OS) may describe some hypervisor environments but is not the defining characteristic. Option D (Local configuration options) is also not specific to Type 1 hypervisors.

Therefore, the key characteristic that defines a Type 1 hypervisor is that it performs a bare-metal server installation directly on the hardware

In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam objectives, cloud deployment models describe how and where computing resources are hosted and who has access to them. A private cloud is defined as a cloud environment that is dedicated to a single organization and may be hosted on-premises within the company’s own data center or in a dedicated external facility. Since the question states that the directory services server is located on premises, it indicates that the organization is hosting and managing its own infrastructure internally. This aligns directly with the definition of a private cloud deployment model.

Directory services—such as Microsoft Active Directory or LDAP-based services—are commonly deployed internally to manage user authentication, authorization, group policies, and resource access within an organization. When these services run on company-owned hardware inside the organization’s network, the infrastructure remains under the organization’s full administrative control, security policies, and management.

The other options do not match this scenario. A public cloud is hosted by third-party providers and shared among multiple customers ☁. A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. A community cloud is shared by multiple organizations with similar requirements. Because the system is hosted internally for a single organization, the correct classification is Private Cloud .

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

When a printout is being cut off, CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) troubleshooting emphasizes checking the simplest, most likely configuration mismatch first—the printer’s paper size/source settings. Even if the user physically loaded the correct paper, the print job can still be formatted incorrectly if the printer driver, application, or printer itself is set to use a different paper size or a different tray. If the printer thinks it is using a smaller paper size (or a tray configured for smaller paper), it may clip the printable area and truncate the image at the edges.

Changing tray settings (paper size and paper source) aligns the printer’s configuration with the actual media installed, which is a standard first-step for issues related to formatting, clipping, and page boundaries. Image quality (DPI) affects sharpness, not cropping. File type rarely causes consistent edge cutoff compared with page setup mismatches. Adjusting image size could work as a workaround, but CompTIA best practice is to correct the paper/tray and page setup settings first so all prints format properly without editing the document each time.

correct answer is " Overclocking " and " Reduce CPU Clock speed " CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/

CompTIA A+ strongly emphasizes that virtual machines (VMs) are ideal for testing potentially unsafe software, malware samples, or experimental code because they isolate the environment from the host system. VMs allow snapshots, cloning, and rollback functionality, which makes them essential in development, QA, and cybersecurity environments where code might be unstable or harmful.

Hybrid cloud refers to infrastructure strategy, not code execution isolation. Load balancers distribute production traffic but have no testing or sandboxing purpose. Application gateways filter traffic but do not provide execution environments.

Virtual machines create a safe sandbox where failure, infection, or corruption is contained. This is covered in the Virtualization and Cloud Computing domain of the CompTIA A+ exam, making VMs the correct tool for executing unauthorized code safely.

The most likely cause isthird-party or ill-fitting casesobstructing the contact between the stylus and the tablet charging mechanism. Some cases may not be designed with stylus charging in mind, particularly if users are purchasing their own accessories.

Option B:A software update might fix OS-related issues, but would not typically affect physical charging.

Option C:If some devices had defects, the issue would likely be consistent, not isolated to some users.

Option D:Firmware issues could be a factor but are less likely than physical obstructions when users are using different accessories.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.

From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions—especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.

Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.

With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users’ reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.

Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.

Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.

Why Not A (MOW): " Mobile Only Workplace " (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.

Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies​.

Laptop display assemblies typically include not only the LCD panel but also the webcam, microphone, display cable, and critically, the Wi-Fi antennas. In most laptops, Wi-Fi antennas are built into the display bezel, because the elevated position allows for stronger wireless signal reception. When replacing the entire display assembly, the antennas must be carefully disconnected and reconnected during reinstallation.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes proper cable routing and antenna reattachment as essential steps in laptop hardware disassembly and reassembly. Failing to reconnect these antennas results in weak or nonfunctional wireless connectivity, even though the display replacement itself may be successful.

Heat sinks and CPU fans are located on the motherboard and are unrelated to display assembly replacement. Resetting BIOS settings is unnecessary unless troubleshooting firmware-related issues, not replacing hardware components like a display. Therefore, the only action that aligns with standard laptop design and CompTIA A+ procedures is ensuring that the wireless antennas are reconnected.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

C. Initiate the system restore:

If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.

System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.

Incorrect Options:

A. Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.

B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.

D. Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.

Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.

Degraded performance that occurs only during business hours strongly suggests network congestion caused by simultaneous data and voice traffic. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) networking objectives, combining voice (VoIP) and data traffic on the same network without proper segmentation can lead to latency, jitter, and packet loss, especially during peak usage periods.

Implementing VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) allows administrators to logically separate voice and data traffic, enabling better traffic management and prioritization. VLANs also support Quality of Service (QoS) policies that ensure time-sensitive voice traffic is prioritized over standard data traffic, improving call quality and overall performance.

Replacing switches with higher-capacity models is costly and unnecessary if proper traffic segmentation has not yet been implemented. Adding RAM to PCs or VoIP lines does not address network-level congestion. Firmware updates may improve stability but will not resolve sustained performance degradation caused by traffic contention.

CompTIA highlights VLAN implementation as a best practice for environments that use IP phones, especially when performance issues occur during high utilization periods.

The first consideration for a desktop CPU upgrade is the socket type, because the processor must be physically and electrically compatible with the motherboard. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 hardware terms, CPUs are designed for specific sockets (for example, Intel LGA or AMD AM-series), and a mismatch means the CPU simply cannot be installed. Even within the same brand, different generations may use different sockets, and the motherboard ’s chipset and BIOS/UEFI must also support the selected CPU model. If the socket is wrong, factors like core count, frequency, and integrated graphics become irrelevant because the system will not POST or function.

After confirming socket compatibility, the technician would typically evaluate other constraints such as BIOS/UEFI update requirements, power and cooling (TDP and heatsink/fan capability), and RAM compatibility supported by the platform. Only then do performance-related preferences like core count (multitasking), bus/clock characteristics, or whether an integrated GPU is needed (if no discrete video card is present) become meaningful selection criteria. Therefore, the correct first consideration is the motherboard socket type.

To ensure employees only pick up their own printouts, the printer must use an authentication-based release method so jobs are not immediately printed into the output tray where anyone can take them. A User PIN enables secure or “held” printing: the job is sent to the printer but remains stored in the printer’s queue until the user walks up to the device and enters the correct PIN on the control panel. Only after successful PIN entry does the printer release and print that specific job, preventing accidental or unauthorized pickup of sensitive documents.

RFID supports badge-based authentication and is commonly used with secure print release systems in offices. Users tap an RFID badge at the printer to authenticate, and then the printer releases only the authenticated user’s queued print jobs. This is convenient and reduces the chance of users sharing PINs, while still enforcing that jobs are released only when the correct user is physically present.

PCL is a printer language, tray selection and duplex are print settings, and USB is a connection method—none of these enforce user-specific job release. Therefore, the correct answers are User PIN and RFID.

USB-Cis a versatile connector capable oftransmitting data, video, audio, and power. With standards likeDisplayPort over USB-C or Thunderbolt 3/4, it can be used for external displays, file transfers, charging, and more all through one cable.

Option B (HDMI):Supports video and audio but not general data transfer.

Option C (DisplayPort):Similar to HDMI supports video/audio but not general file transfer.

Option D (VGA):Legacy analog video only no data or audio support.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.1: Identify common connector types.

When a printer only provides basic functionality (such as simple printing without duplexing, color management, stapling, or finishing options), this typically indicates that the system is using a generic or basic printer driver rather than the full-featured driver from the printer manufacturer. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) printing and troubleshooting objectives, advanced printer features are enabled through manufacturer-specific drivers, which expose all hardware capabilities to the operating system.

Operating systems often install default or class drivers automatically, especially when printers are connected via USB or discovered on a network. While these drivers allow basic printing, they do not include proprietary features such as high-resolution settings, tray selection, finishing units, or secure printing options. Installing the correct driver package from the printer manufacturer ensures full compatibility and unlocks advanced functionality.

Restarting the OS or modifying printer settings will not add missing features if the correct driver is not installed. OS-provided patches are designed to fix bugs or compatibility issues, not to enable vendor-specific printer capabilities.

CompTIA explicitly emphasizes verifying and installing manufacturer-recommended drivers as a key troubleshooting step when printer features are missing or limited.

Color gamut refers to the range of colors a display can accurately reproduce. For tasks like graphic design or photo editing, ensuring the screen ' s colors match the printed output is critical. Monitors with wide and accurate color gamuts (e.g., Adobe RGB) are preferred for these applications.

Option B (Pixel density): Incorrect. Pixel density affects image sharpness, not color accuracy.

Option C (Refresh rate): Incorrect. Refresh rate impacts motion smoothness but is unrelated to color matching.

Option D (Resolution): Incorrect. Resolution determines clarity and detail but does not influence color accuracy.

Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.

Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.

Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.

Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer types​.

AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.

Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.

Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.

Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.

802.11ac is a Wi-Fi standard that primarily operates in the 5GHz band and is known for higher throughput and improved performance compared with older 2.4GHz-focused standards. In CompTIA A+ Core 1 networking objectives, you are expected to recognize which IEEE 802.11 standards map to which frequency bands and the typical trade-offs. The 5GHz band generally provides more available non-overlapping channels and less interference from common household devices (like microwaves and many Bluetooth peripherals), which can improve real-world performance. While 5GHz typically has shorter range and weaker wall penetration than 2.4GHz, it often delivers better speeds in the same-room or nearby-room scenarios, which aligns with how 802.11ac is commonly deployed.

Bluetooth primarily uses the 2.4GHz ISM band and is designed for short-range personal area networking rather than high-speed WLAN connections. NFC operates at 13.56MHz for very short-range tap-based communications. RFID can operate at several bands (low frequency, high frequency, ultra-high frequency) depending on the use case, but it is not a Wi-Fi networking standard and does not “primarily” operate at 5GHz. Therefore, the correct answer is 802.11ac.

If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.

A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to create an alias that maps one domain name to another canonical domain name. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) DNS objectives, CNAME records allow multiple hostnames to reference the same IP address indirectly by pointing to a single authoritative domain name.

For example, www.example.com can be configured as a CNAME that points to example.com. When DNS queries are made, the resolver follows the alias until it reaches an A or AAAA record that contains the actual IP address.

An A record maps a hostname directly to an IPv4 address, while an AAAA record maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. A TXT record is used to store arbitrary text data, commonly for verification, email security (SPF, DKIM), or policy information, not for aliasing.

CompTIA stresses that CNAME records are specifically intended for aliasing and name redirection within DNS, making them the correct answer.

A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable.

Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring hardware replacement.

NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver (C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion.

Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.

AnMX (Mail Exchange)record defineswhich mail servers are responsible for receiving emailfor a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, theMX recordmust be updated with the correct server information.

Option B (TXT):Stores text-based info used for SPF, DKIM, etc.

Option C (SPF):Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn’t redirect traffic.

Option D (CNAME):Alias for another domain name not used for email routing.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.

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The default gateway is the network device responsible for routing traffic from a local computer to destinations outside its subnet. When a new firewall is deployed and intended to manage outbound traffic, client devices must be configured to send packets to this firewall. CompTIA A+ identifies the gateway setting as the key parameter that determines where a workstation sends its external-bound traffic.

By updating the gateway address to point to the new firewall’s internal interface, all internet-bound and off-subnet traffic will now pass through the firewall for filtering, inspection, and routing. This ensures correct traffic flow and enforces security policies.

Changing the VPN settings (A) does not affect local traffic routing unless a VPN tunnel is active. Subnet mask adjustments (C) determine the network size but do not control routing. VLAN settings (D) require switch configuration, not workstation changes, and do not dictate default routing behavior.

Thus, modifying the gateway is the correct and necessary step to route all traffic through the newly implemented firewall.