220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here’s the breakdown:

A. Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):

Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).

It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.

For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.

Incorrect Options:

B. Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.

C. Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.

D. Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.

Key Takeaway:

For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m), Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.

A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without affecting the host system.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization:

“A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test applications or code.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):

Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.

This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.

Incorrect Options:

A. Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.

B. Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.

D. Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost-effective solution for this scenario.

Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.

Ceiling-mounted projectors are typically installed upside down, and therefore include a built-in “Ceiling Mount” or “Vertical Flip” setting within their display menu. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that projectors provide their own orientation controls intended specifically for this installation scenario. Adjusting orientation from the laptop rotates the desktop, not the projected output configuration. Changing input sources does not affect image orientation. Display frequency affects refresh rate and flickering, not physical image rotation.

Flipping the image directly from the projector ensures the display is oriented correctly regardless of the device connected. This is the method recommended in A+ material under display configuration and projector troubleshooting, which covers keystone correction, rotation, and mounting modes.

Thus, the correct solution is to flip the image vertically using the projector’s built-in settings.

To allow multiple users to print to networked printers:

Printer shares enable users to access printers shared on the network.

Print servers manage print jobs and provide centralized control of printing.

Why Not B (DHCP server): DHCP is unrelated to print management.

Why Not D (Printer subnet): Subnets group devices but don’t manage printing.

Why Not E (SMB configuration): SMB is for file sharing, not specifically print management.

Why Not F (Printer Wi-Fi settings): These settings are irrelevant since the printers use Ethernet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer configuration​.

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Official Study Guide)

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is the technology used by organizations to centrally configure, secure, and control mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets.

The CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) objectives specify that MDM solutions allow administrators to implement and enforce security and usage policies, including:

Application control (whitelisting and blacklisting)

Restricting installation of unapproved applications

Enforcing corporate compliance requirements

Remotely managing mobile device configurations

This directly applies to the scenario: the company wants to prevent users from installing unapproved apps on corporate tablets.

MDM enforces this through:

App whitelisting → only approved apps can be installed

App blacklisting → specific apps are blocked

Locked-down app stores → only corporate-approved app stores or catalogs

This is exactly the function MDM is designed for in enterprise mobile security and management.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

B. ACL (Access Control List)

ACLs control network or file-system access, such as allowing or denying IP addresses, ports, or file permissions.

They cannot control app installation behavior on mobile devices.

C. DRM (Digital Rights Management)

DRM protects digital content from unauthorized copying or distribution.

It does not restrict which applications can be installed on a mobile device.

D. PAM (Privileged Access Management)

PAM controls administrative or privileged accounts in enterprise environments.

It is unrelated to app-installation restrictions on tablets.

An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.

Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.

Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.

Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types​.

A DHCP reservation binds a specific MAC address to an IP address so the device always receives the same IP from the DHCP server. This ensures network devices like printers maintain consistent connectivity and availability even when the IP pool is low.

A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.

Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.

Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically implement ACLs.

Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts​.

If the system reports“Bootable device not found”, and the BIOS is configured correctly, the next step is torun diagnostics on the hard driveto check for physical or logical failure. It could be a sign of afailing drive or corrupt boot sector.

Option A:Reformatting the drive would erase data not a diagnostic step.

Option C:RAM does not affect whether a drive is bootable.

Option D:Replacing the drive should only be doneafter diagnostics confirm failure.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.

If a print spooler crashes specifically with one application and no issue occurs on other systems, the most likely root cause is a bug within that specific application. Restarting the spooler and reinstalling drivers resolves system-wide or hardware-related issues not app-specific failures. This indicates the application may be sending malformed print data.

Inlaser printers, thefuser unitis responsible formelting the toner onto the paperusing heat and pressure. If the toner rubs off easily, it's a clear sign thefuser is failing or not heating properly. Replacing the fuser will ensure the toner bonds correctly to the paper.

Option B (Drum):Transfers the image, but doesn't fuse the toner.

Option C (Developer roller):Applies toner to the drum wouldn’t cause toner to rub off.

Option D (Discharge lamp):Prepares the drum for a new image; not related to toner adhesion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

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CompTIA A+ teaches that the default gateway is required for any device to communicate with external networks such as the internet. Without a configured default gateway, the computer can communicate only with devices on the same local subnet explaining why the file server is reachable.

DNS and IPv6 settings are not the issue; without a gateway, external routing cannot occur. Flushing DNS affects hostname resolution, not routing. NetBIOS settings have no effect on internet connectivity.

Adding or correcting the default gateway (usually the router’s LAN IP, such as 192.168.1.1) will allow the PC to route traffic beyond its local network.

This aligns precisely with CompTIA’s troubleshooting steps for missing or incorrect gateway configuration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150 Words):

A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve security through caching.

Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication, none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.

Portable devices such as laptops, small-form-factor computers, and mini-PCs use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM) memory modules. CompTIA A+ explains that SODIMMs are physically smaller and consume less power than standard DIMMs, making them ideal for mobile systems where space and energy efficiency are critical. Unlike ECC memory, which is primarily used in servers, or RAID which is a storage redundancy methodology rather than a memory type SODIMM is specifically designed for compact computing devices. SATA is a storage interface, not a memory form factor.

The A+ study guide clearly lists SODIMM as the standard laptop memory type because of its compact footprint and compatibility with mobile motherboard layouts. This makes SODIMM the most widely implemented memory technology in portable devices.

Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.

Why Not A (MOW): "Mobile Only Workplace" (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.

Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies​.

If a desktopfails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is afaulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.

Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.

Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.

Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

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Cellular networks offer broad coverage in rural or less populated areas where laying fiber, cable, or DSL lines may not be feasible or cost-effective. Cellular broadband (4G LTE/5G) provides fast speeds using existing mobile network infrastructure.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.7 – Compare and contrast Internet connection types:

"Cellular connections offer high speed and extensive coverage, especially in areas where other wired infrastructure may not exist or be practical."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Internet Connections

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.7

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A fileshare becoming slow over time and then failing completely strongly suggests storage subsystem degradation, often due to a failing RAID array. CompTIA A+ explains that slow file access is an early sign of a degraded array, and eventual unavailability indicates the array may have failed or entered a critical state.

Since the technician can still RDP into the server, the OS is functioning, meaning memory is likely not the issue. Network connectivity is sufficient for remote login. Backup integrity does not affect real-time file availability.

Thus, the next step is to check the RAID array status, which directly controls the server’s storage performance and availability precisely what CompTIA identifies as the primary point of failure in such scenarios.

A corporate-provided email client is designed to integrate with enterprise services such as shared mailboxes, MDM policies, and enterprise authentication. CompTIA A+ states that corporate clients support additional management features, secure authentication protocols (such as OAuth or Kerberos), and policy-enforced access control essential for accessing shared or departmental mailboxes.

Open-source clients (Option A) may lack compatibility with enterprise environments. Built-in smartphone clients (Option B) often don’t support complex mailbox structures such as shared mailboxes. Employee-preferred apps (Option D) are discouraged because they may not meet security requirements.

Corporate clients ensure full compatibility with organizational mail servers, shared folders, calendars, and enterprise security features, making corporate email clients the correct choice according to CompTIA’s mobile device email configuration standards.

If the user is on a guest network and cannot access internal resources like printers, connecting to the corporate Wi-Fi will place the device on the correct subnet to access the printer.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network segmentation:

“Guest networks are isolated from internal resources for security. Connect to the main corporate Wi-Fi to access shared devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.

The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them—unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.

Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to match the print media resolves the issue.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshooting printers:

“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the required output.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Improper seating is the most common reason an SSD isn’t recognized. Ensuring it is correctly connected resolves the issue.

Why Not A (Faulty SSD): A faulty SSD is possible but less likely than an installation issue.

Why Not B (Not formatted): Formatting affects data usability, not drive detection.

Why Not C (Incompatibility): SSD compatibility issues are rare with modern hardware.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting​.

Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.

Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds—not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.

Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.

Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.

A smart card provides an additional factor of authentication by storing secure credentials, such as certificates, that cannot be guessed or replicated. It complements user accounts and is "something you have".

Why Not A (Fingerprint reader): This is "something you are", but the scenario specifically requires a physical token.

Why Not C (Secure token): Secure tokens are also valid but may not integrate as seamlessly into multi-factor authentication for physical and system access.

Why Not D (NFC scanner): An NFC scanner is a device and not a token itself; it reads cards or other credentials.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access controls​.

RAID 0 (striping) provides the fastest read (and write) speeds at the lowest cost, as all disk capacity is used for storage and performance. However, it offers no redundancy.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID types:

"RAID 0 stripes data across multiple disks, offering the best performance and lowest cost but no fault tolerance."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID Levels

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

Thermal printerscreate images using aheated print headon specially coated thermal paper. Vertical white lines indicate thatpart of the heating element is dirty or blocked, preventing heat transfer to the paper. Cleaning the print head (heating element) will restore full functionality.

Option A:Thermal printers donot use ink or toner, so this is not applicable.

Option B:Wrong paper could cause blank output, but consistent vertical lines point to the print head.

Option C:Maintenance kits are typically for laser printers, not thermal printers.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA A+ describes swollen or warped laptop chassis components as a classic symptom of a failing or swollen lithium-ion battery.

A swollen battery can:

Warp the keyboard

Push the bottom panel outward

Bend or distort the laptop frame

This is a safety hazard and requires immediate replacement.

Why the other answers are incorrect

B. RAM – Cannot cause physical warping.

C. Keyboard – May fail electronically, but does not physically deform itself.

D. HDD – Located away from the keyboard and cannot distort the chassis.

Final Answer: A

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.

User authentication allows access to device functions (like printing and copying) to be restricted to authorized personnel. This is typically implemented on networked multifunction devices for security and auditing.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer and device security:

“Enable user authentication on shared multifunction devices to restrict access to specific features for authorized users only.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Security

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)providesvirtualized computing resources over the internetsuch as servers, storage, and networking. It allows a business to quickly spin up virtual machines and is ideal fordisaster recoveryand scalable IT infrastructure needs.

Option B:SecaaS focuses on cloud-delivered security, not infrastructure.

Option C:PaaS offers development environments, not full virtual infrastructure.

Option D:SaaS delivers applications over the internet (e.g., email, CRM) not for disaster recovery.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Mesh networks rely on multiple access points (or mesh nodes) to create a seamless, self-healing network. Each access point communicates with others to extend coverage and improve reliability without requiring a wired backbone for each AP.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA A+ describes satellite internet as:

A wireless broadband solution used where wired infrastructure is unavailable.

Most common in rural and remote areas.

Provides high-speed access where DSL, cable, or fiber cannot be deployed.

Thus, satellite internet is the primary option for rural high-speed access.

Why the other answers are incorrect

A. Fiber – Not available in rural regions due to high installation costs.

C. DSL – Requires phone lines and is distance-limited; rarely available in remote areas.

D. Cable – Requires existing cable TV infrastructure; usually not available rurally.

Final Answer: B

Plenum cabling is designed for use in commercial spaces where cables run through air ducts or plenum spaces, as it has fire-resistant properties and emits less toxic smoke.

Why Not A (USB 3.1 Gen 2): USB is for peripheral connections, not large-scale commercial installations.

Why Not B (Straight tip fiber connector): Fiber connectors are for high-speed connections but are not specifically for commercial spaces.

Why Not D (Cat 8): While Cat 8 is high-speed, it is not uniquely suited for commercial spaces like plenum cabling.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cabling standards​.

SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.

Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.

Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.

Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols​.

B. USB-C:

USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-C).

It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power delivery capabilities.

Incorrect Options:

A. Lightning: Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices and does not natively support video output.

C. MicroUSB: MicroUSB is outdated and does not support video output.

D. MiniUSB: MiniUSB is an older standard and does not support modern features like video output or fast charging.

Key Takeaway: USB-C is the most versatile connector for charging and transferring data, audio, and video.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining:

The operating system

Applications

Patches, updates, and configurations

This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server environments without purchasing physical hardware.

In contrast:

SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications—users do not manage OS or software.

PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management.

XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning “anything as a service,” not a specific model.

Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.

OLED (Organic Light-Emitting Diode) technology can turn off individual pixels completely, producing “true black” and resulting in the highest contrast ratios compared to other display types.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display types and features:

“OLED displays provide superior contrast by emitting light per pixel, allowing perfect black and extremely high contrast ratios.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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The workstation's IP configuration (192.168.1.27/24 with gateway 192.168.1.1) shows that it has a correct IP address, correct subnet mask, and expected default gateway for a typical small office network. Because the IP is in the correct private range and not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), this also confirms that DHCP is functioning properly. Therefore, option D (DHCP) cannot be the cause.

The user then pings the default gateway at 192.168.1.1, which should be the router—the device providing routing between local devices and outside networks. The repeated "Request timed out" responses indicate the workstation cannot reach the router at all. This type of failure points directly to a router outage, a powered-off router, a failed router interface, or a physical disconnection of the router from the switch.

If DNS (C) were the issue, the user would still be able to ping the IP address of the gateway because DNS is not required for IP-to-IP connectivity. A web server (A) has no relation to local gateway communication and does not affect workstation access.

Since the workstation has a valid IP but cannot reach its default gateway, the failure point is the router.

A blinking orange light typically indicates a failed hard drive in the RAID array. In RAID 1 (mirroring), you can replace the failed drive and rebuild the array without data loss.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID configuration and troubleshooting:

"In the event of a hard drive failure in RAID 1, replace the failed disk and allow the array to rebuild using the remaining mirrored disk."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID and Storage

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

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When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.

The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device—such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive—containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.

A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.

Thus, the failed component is the HDD.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping data safe from interception.

CompTIA A+ highlights that swollen or expanding batteries especially lithium-ion batteries can physically warp the laptop chassis, keyboard, or trackpad. This happens when internal chemical reactions cause the battery to swell. Distorted keyboards, bulging trackpads, and lifted chassis panels are classic symptoms of battery failure.

RAM and HDD issues do not cause physical deformation. A broken keyboard may malfunction electronically, but it will not bulge upward unless forced by something underneath typically an expanding battery.

The A+ safety domain also warns technicians not to puncture swollen batteries and to replace them immediately due to fire hazards.

Therefore, a failing (swollen) laptop battery is the most likely cause.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that allows users to access applications over the Internet without managing the infrastructure or platform. Users can log in via a browser or app on any device, such as a laptop, with minimal configuration required.

AnMX (Mail Exchange)record defineswhich mail servers are responsible for receiving emailfor a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, theMX recordmust be updated with the correct server information.

Option B (TXT):Stores text-based info used for SPF, DKIM, etc.

Option C (SPF):Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn’t redirect traffic.

Option D (CNAME):Alias for another domain name not used for email routing.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.

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High resource usage along with frequentpop-upsare strong signs of amalware infection. The next logical step is toupdate anti-malware definitionsandrun a full scanto detect and remove threats.

Option A:Network performance is likely not the root cause local system behavior points to malware.

Option B:Drivers affect hardware functionality; they don’t resolve malware-related slowness.

Option D:DHCP issues usually cause IP conflicts or no network access, not CPU spikes or pop-ups.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.2: Given a scenario, detect, remove, and prevent malware using appropriate tools and methods.

If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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To change adomain passwordfrom a remote location, the system must communicate with thedomain controller. Since the user is working from home, they need toconnect to the corporate VPNto establish that secure connection. Without it, the password change cannot be authenticated.

Option A:Restarting will not resolve the lack of connection to the domain controller.

Option C:Resetting the password in AD could help, but doesn’t let the user reset it themselves.

Option D:The user may already be on Wi-Fi; the issue is with connecting to thecorporate network, not local.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

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CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.

Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper, and fiber uses light instead of RF.

Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the correct answers.

Port 110 is used by POP3, a protocol designed for downloading emails from a remote server to a local client. POP3 does not inherently synchronize changes (such as read status, folder organization, or deletions) between devices. The customer wants a more secure connection that automatically synchronizes with the server, which directly aligns with the functions of IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

IMAP typically uses port 143 for unencrypted connections and 993 for secure, encrypted connections (IMAPS). It is designed for modern email usage—supporting multi-device access, live synchronization across clients, and server-stored mail. When a user reads, deletes, or moves an email using IMAP, these changes are reflected on the server and visible on every device logged into the same account.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that IMAP is preferred for users requiring constant synchronization, mobile access, and cloud-based email management, while POP3 is considered outdated. IMAP also supports secure, encrypted communication when paired with SSL/TLS.

HTTPS and SFTP do not handle email retrieval, and SMTP is a sending protocol, not a retrieval protocol. Therefore, IMAP is the only correct and CompTIA-aligned upgrade option.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:

"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1

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A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and forwards traffic using MAC addresses. CompTIA A+ teaches that switches maintain a MAC address table, learning which devices reside on each port. When a frame arrives, the switch checks the destination MAC address and forwards it only to the appropriate port, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving performance.

Routers, on the other hand, operate at Layer 3 and forward traffic based on IP addresses, not MAC addresses. Firewalls inspect traffic for security policies and operate across multiple OSI layers but do not perform MAC-based forwarding. A gateway is a broad term that generally refers to a device connecting different networks or protocols, typically involving routing, not MAC-based switching.

Thus, the device specifically responsible for forwarding frames based on MAC address lookup is the switch.

A hybrid cloud combines private infrastructure (on-premises, self-operated data centers) with public cloud services, providing flexibility and scalability.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud concepts:

“A hybrid cloud model integrates private and public cloud infrastructure to allow applications and data to be shared between them.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Computing

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical barriers.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 – Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols:

“The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more easily absorbed by walls.”

NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances (a few centimeters).

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5

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An IP address starting with169.254.x.xis aself-assigned address(also calledAPIPA– Automatic Private IP Addressing). It’s used when a client device cannot contact a DHCP server. This address allows limited communication on the local network segment butno internet access.

Option A:DHCP reservations assign specific IPs from the DHCP server they don’t result in APIPA.

Option B:Dynamic assignment from DHCP assigns valid IPs in the proper subnet, not 169.254.x.x.

Option D:Static IPs are manually set and would not fall in the 169.254.x.x range unless set incorrectly.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

The key detail in the ipconfig output is that the system is receiving an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DHCP server information via DHCP, but the DNS servers shown are 8.8.8.8 and 8.8.4.4, which are Google’s public DNS servers. In most corporate networks, DNS is provided internally by the DHCP server—usually the same device assigning the IP address. When DNS values are different from DHCP-provided defaults, it indicates manual DNS configuration.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that mismatched DNS settings can cause browsing issues, name-resolution delays, or an inability to access internal resources. DNS is critical because it translates domain names into IP addresses; if manually configured, the device bypasses the organization’s DNS server and may not resolve internal hostnames.

The subnet mask is correct for a Class B private network subdivided using /24 (255.255.255.0). NetBIOS being enabled is common and not a cause of connectivity issues here. DHCP being enabled is normal and functioning correctly, as shown by the proper IP lease obtained.

Thus, the anomalous and most likely problematic configuration is manually configured DNS, making Option D correct.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping data safe from interception.

A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.

Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.

Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.

Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, cryptographic hardware​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When assigning a static IP address to a network device such as a printer, the administrator must manually enter all information that a DHCP server would normally provide automatically.

CompTIA A+ networking fundamentals explain that a statically assigned host requires:

IP address (set manually)

Subnet mask (must be manually configured to define the network boundary)

Default gateway (must be manually assigned so the device can communicate outside its subnet)

DNS (also typically required, but in SOHO printer configs, it is not always mandatory unless name resolution is needed)

The question asks specifically: Which must be set manually?

The two required components for every static IP assignment in a CompTIA-compliant small office network are:

✔ B. Subnet mask

Defines the network and host portions of the IP address. Must be manually entered for static IPs.

✔ C. Default gateway

Allows communication outside the local network. Must also be manually set for static IP devices.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. DHCP

Not used in static addressing. DHCP is automatic; static addressing bypasses it.

D. DNS

Not always required for printers unless hostname resolution is needed. The question asks for what must be set manually.

E. Reservations

DHCP reservations create “static-like” addresses via DHCP, not manual configuration.

F. Exclusions

Used to prevent DHCP from assigning certain IPs; not part of configuring a static IP on a device.

Reasoning: Projectors have air filters that prevent dust from entering the internal components. A clogged filter can cause the projector to overheat, resulting in shutdowns and even strange smells due to overheating components. Cleaning the filter is a standard troubleshooting step when projectors exhibit overheating symptoms.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Replace the bulb:

While a failing bulb may eventually cause issues, it would not typically result in a strange smell or repeated shutdowns after a fixed period. Bulb issues usually manifest as dim or flickering images.

B. Check the projector configuration:

Configuration settings, such as resolution or input options, would not cause overheating or shutdowns. This option does not address the described symptoms.

D. Adjust the gamma settings:

Gamma settings affect display brightness and contrast but have no impact on overheating or strange smells.

Practical Example:

Dust accumulation in projectors is a common issue, especially in environments with poor air circulation. A clogged filter causes restricted airflow, leading to overheating and automatic shutdowns to protect internal components. Cleaning the filter typically resolves this issue.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.5: Troubleshoot common video, projector, and display issues.

Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.

Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.

Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.

Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.6, audio troubleshooting​.

A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.

For a device to communicate on a network, it must have a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway configured.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network configuration:

“A valid IP address, subnet mask, and gateway are required for network connectivity and communication outside the local network.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Configuration

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes VoIP traffic on the network, reducing jitter, latency, and packet loss to improve call quality.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Network troubleshooting:

“Enabling QoS in the router ensures time-sensitive traffic, like VoIP, receives network priority, reducing dropped or lagging calls.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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An NVMe port, typically implemented through an M.2 slot, is designed specifically for NVMe-based solid-state drives (SSDs). CompTIA A+ explains that NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol that communicates directly with the CPU over PCIe lanes, offering significantly faster read/write speeds compared to SATA-based SSDs.

SATA drives (A) connect via SATA ports, not NVMe/M.2 PCIe slots. SAS drives (C) are enterprise-level storage devices requiring SAS controllers and are incompatible with consumer desktop motherboards. Optical drives (D) use SATA or USB interfaces and cannot be installed in an NVMe slot.

Thus, the only device designed for and compatible with an NVMe slot is a solid-state drive (SSD) using the NVMe protocol.

If users canaccess local network resourcesbut not theinternet, the most likely culprit is amisconfigured or missing default gateway. The default gateway routes traffic from the local network to external networks (i.e., the internet). If it’s not properly set or was altered during a firewall update, internet traffic won’t be forwarded correctly.

Option A:Static IPs could cause conflict, but wouldn't affect only external access if configured correctly.

Option C:An incorrect subnet mask could isolate devices, but local communication would likely be impacted too.

Option D:VLANs segment networks; while misconfigured VLANs could cause access issues, they’d more likely isolate local traffic as well.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.

Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (From CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Concepts):

A consistent Wi-Fi SSID across all APs allows users to roam throughout the office while maintaining access to local resources without reconnecting manually.

CompTIA Core 1 Study Guide Concept Reference:

Wireless networking configuration

SSID broadcast and roaming

WLAN infrastructure

The study guide explains that a common SSID enables seamless roaming and uninterrupted access to network resources.

If a laptop shuts down when undocked and remains powered off even with a new charging cable, the internal battery is likely faulty and cannot hold a charge. Replacing the battery is the next troubleshooting step.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

"If a laptop only works when docked or connected to AC power, and a replacement cable does not resolve the issue, the internal battery may need to be replaced."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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CompTIA A+ strongly emphasizes that virtual machines (VMs) are ideal for testing potentially unsafe software, malware samples, or experimental code because they isolate the environment from the host system. VMs allow snapshots, cloning, and rollback functionality, which makes them essential in development, QA, and cybersecurity environments where code might be unstable or harmful.

Hybrid cloud refers to infrastructure strategy, not code execution isolation. Load balancers distribute production traffic but have no testing or sandboxing purpose. Application gateways filter traffic but do not provide execution environments.

Virtual machines create a safe sandbox where failure, infection, or corruption is contained. This is covered in the Virtualization and Cloud Computing domain of the CompTIA A+ exam, making VMs the correct tool for executing unauthorized code safely.

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Types of RAM:

“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

The CompTIA A+ wireless networking section describes key differences between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz Wi-Fi frequencies.

2.4 GHz provides:

Better range

Better wall penetration

Better performance through structures and obstacles

This means less interference from physical structures, which is the primary advantage of 2.4 GHz over 5 GHz.

This maps directly to:

✔ C. Minimized structural interference

Why the other options are incorrect

A. Communication without external power

Not related to Wi-Fi frequencies.

B. Security for close-proximity connections

No Wi-Fi frequency provides inherent security advantages.

D. Increased channel options

5 GHz has more channels, not 2.4 GHz.

If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.

Why Not A (Replace the hard drive's USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections or errors, not just slower speeds.

Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.

Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of the slow backups.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting​.

RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.

RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.

When a technician encounters a burning smell, it is a critical safety issue. The first response must be to immediately power down and disconnect the device from all power sources to prevent electric shock, fire, or further hardware damage.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

"Signs of electrical issues such as burning smells, smoke, or sparks require an immediate shutdown of the system and disconnection from any power source."

After ensuring safety, the technician should inspect the hardware for visible signs of damage:

From the same Objective (4.1):

"Inspect for foreign objects, liquid damage, or burnt components. These can cause short circuits or thermal events that may damage the motherboard or other internal components."

These steps are standard practice in the industry to ensure safe and accurate diagnosis of faulty devices. Trying a different adapter (Option F) may make the problem worse, and contacting vendors (Option D) comes after initial safety and inspection.

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Hardware Problems

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA A+ teaches that S.M.A.R.T. warnings indicate imminent drive failure. Even if the RAID controller reports the array as “healthy,” a S.M.A.R.T. alert means the drive should be replaced immediately.

RAID 5 provides redundancy for one drive failure, but technicians should replace the degrading drive before it fails fully, ensuring the rebuild happens proactively.

Running chkdsk affects file systems, not drive health. Disabling write caching is unrelated. Rebuilding the array should only occur after replacing the faulty drive.

Replacing the drive prevents a catastrophic dual-drive failure scenario, which RAID 5 cannot survive.

This approach aligns with CompTIA troubleshooting guidelines for RAID maintenance and S.M.A.R.T. diagnostics.

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.

Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.

Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.

Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.10, email security controls​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.

SSH (Secure Shell) encrypts data communications for secure remote login and management of network devices, ensuring all console connections are encrypted.

Why Not B (LDAP): LDAP is used for directory services and does not encrypt by default.

Why Not C (FTPS): FTPS encrypts file transfers, not console communications.

Why Not D (SMTP): SMTP is used for email transmission, not for securing login sessions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network security protocols​.

Portable devices such as laptops, small-form-factor computers, and mini-PCs use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM) memory modules. CompTIA A+ explains that SODIMMs are physically smaller and consume less power than standard DIMMs, making them ideal for mobile systems where space and energy efficiency are critical. Unlike ECC memory, which is primarily used in servers, or RAID which is a storage redundancy methodology rather than a memory type SODIMM is specifically designed for compact computing devices. SATA is a storage interface, not a memory form factor.

The A+ study guide clearly lists SODIMM as the standard laptop memory type because of its compact footprint and compatibility with mobile motherboard layouts. This makes SODIMM the most widely implemented memory technology in portable devices.

Laptop display assemblies typically include not only the LCD panel but also the webcam, microphone, display cable, and critically, the Wi-Fi antennas. In most laptops, Wi-Fi antennas are built into the display bezel, because the elevated position allows for stronger wireless signal reception. When replacing the entire display assembly, the antennas must be carefully disconnected and reconnected during reinstallation.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes proper cable routing and antenna reattachment as essential steps in laptop hardware disassembly and reassembly. Failing to reconnect these antennas results in weak or nonfunctional wireless connectivity, even though the display replacement itself may be successful.

Heat sinks and CPU fans are located on the motherboard and are unrelated to display assembly replacement. Resetting BIOS settings is unnecessary unless troubleshooting firmware-related issues, not replacing hardware components like a display. Therefore, the only action that aligns with standard laptop design and CompTIA A+ procedures is ensuring that the wireless antennas are reconnected.

Thus, the correct answer is B.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:

“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

Adocking stationconnects to a laptop’sproprietary port or USB-C/Thunderbolt, providing access tomultiple additional ports(USB, Ethernet, video, audio, etc.). It allows users to transform a laptop into a full desktop workstation.

Option A (NFC adapter):Used for short-range communication, not port expansion.

Option C (Port replicator):Similar to a dock but usually less powerful and often lacks charging or video output.

Option D (USB dongle):Adds a single function (like Wi-Fi or storage), not full port expansion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.

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In a corporate office environment where multiple employees must share a single printer, the most efficient and manageable solution is a print server. A print server centralizes print management, queues print jobs, handles driver distribution, and provides access control. CompTIA A+ highlights print servers as the enterprise-standard method for managing shared printing resources because they ensure reliability, scalability, and better network performance.

Bluetooth printing and Wi-Fi Direct are short-range, peer-to-peer technologies meant for one-to-one or small-scale printing. They lack user authentication management, enterprise security controls, and cannot efficiently support dozens or hundreds of print requests simultaneously. Cloud printing requires internet reliance and external service routing, which introduces latency, potential downtime, and privacy concerns—often unsuitable for corporate networks, especially those with sensitive internal documents.

A print server allows users to connect to the printer through a standard network infrastructure (wired or wireless), and technicians can configure permissions, monitor print loads, and troubleshoot from a central location. It integrates seamlessly with enterprise directory services such as Active Directory, enabling controlled access and auditing. Because of these capabilities, the print server is the best professional-grade solution for corporate-wide printing needs.

A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.

Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.

Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery.

The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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A RAID 1 array uses disk mirroring, meaning all data is written identically to two drives. When one drive fails, the other contains a complete, current copy of the data. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that RAID 1 is designed for fault tolerance, allowing continued operation even after a disk failure.

The correct action is to replace the defective drive and allow the RAID controller to rebuild (sync) the mirror onto the new disk. This restores redundancy and ensures ongoing data protection. The system can typically continue running during the rebuild process.

Option A is incorrect because attempting to repair a failed drive is unreliable and unnecessary—RAID 1 already provides a healthy copy. Option B ignores the importance of restoring redundancy, leaving the system vulnerable to data loss if the remaining drive fails. Option D (restore from backup) is unnecessary because RAID 1 already preserves the data.

Therefore, the best solution is to install a new drive and resynchronize the array, preserving all data with minimal disruption.

An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing dedicated resources and enhanced control.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:

“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.

If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not scanning artifacts.

Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a classic example.

Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).

An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing dedicated resources and enhanced control.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:

“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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When printing on preprinted forms, precise alignment is critical. If print output shifts downward on the page, the first step is to ensure that the correct paper type and form stock are loaded properly. CompTIA A+ emphasizes verifying media type and tray configuration when dealing with alignment issues, especially in environments using specialized or preformatted paper.

Preprinted forms often require thicker media, specialty settings, or exact tray loading orientation to ensure feeding accuracy. If the wrong paper type is selected on the printer or print driver, the printer may adjust feed rate, roller pressure, or margin expectations incorrectly, causing vertical misalignment. Thus, confirming the correct paper type is loaded—and that the printer is configured for that type—is the most fundamental starting point.

Orientation settings (C) could affect sideways alignment but not vertical shifting. Pickup rollers (D) can cause skewing or paper jams, but they generally do not cause consistent downward shifts. PostScript drivers (B) relate to graphic rendering but do not affect form alignment unless dealing with complex images, which is not indicated here.

Therefore, confirming correct paper type and loading aligns with CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology: always check the simplest, most likely physical cause first—especially with form printing.