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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Questions 5

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

Options:

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

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Questions 6

When does a TLS handshake occur?

Options:

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

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Questions 7

What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

Options:

A.

They are dynamically scalable.

B.

They possess unlimited throughput capability.

C.

They are able to prevent evasive threats.

D.

They have failover capability.

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Questions 8

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

Options:

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

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Questions 9

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

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Questions 10

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

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Questions 11

Which option is a Prisma Access security service?

Options:

A.

Compute Security

B.

Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

C.

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)

D.

Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)

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Questions 12

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

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Questions 13

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Questions 14

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 15

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Hardware procurement

B.

Log normalization

C.

Initial security team training

D.

Incident response

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Questions 16

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

Options:

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

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Questions 17

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 18

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

Options:

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

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Questions 19

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Questions 20

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

Options:

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

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Questions 21

What does SIEM stand for?

Options:

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

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Questions 22

What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?

Options:

A.

Real-time data rich inventory

B.

Static inventory of assets

C.

Periodic manual monitoring

D.

Isolation of assets by default

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Questions 23

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Questions 24

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 25

Which two statements are true about servers in a demilitarized zone (DMZ)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They can be accessed by traffic from the internet.

B.

They are located in the internal network.

C.

They can expose servers in the internal network to attacks.

D.

They are isolated from the internal network.

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Questions 26

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

Options:

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

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Questions 27

What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Preventing specific changes from being affected in the system

B.

Determining system health using unaltered system data

C.

Detecting micro-services in a default configuration

D.

Using probes to establish potential load issues

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Questions 28

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

Options:

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

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Questions 29

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

Options:

A.

Data decompression

B.

Registered certificates

C.

Morphing code

D.

Low traffic volumes

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Questions 30

Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?

Options:

A.

Workload security

B.

Data security

C.

Asset inventory

D.

Configuration assessment

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Questions 31

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

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Questions 32

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

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Questions 33

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 34

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

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Questions 35

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 36

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Questions 37

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

Options:

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

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Questions 38

Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

API-based coverage of apps

B.

Automated security actions

C.

Protection of data at rest

D.

Real-time web filtering

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Questions 39

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 40

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Options:

A.

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

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Questions 41

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

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Questions 42

Which capability of a Zero Trust network security architecture leverages the combination of application, user, and content identification to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat protection

B.

Inspection of all traffic

C.

Least privileges access control

D.

Network segmentation

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Questions 43

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

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Questions 44

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

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Questions 45

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

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Questions 46

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

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Questions 47

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

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Questions 48

What type of address translation does a NAT perform?

Options:

A.

Private to public

B.

Logical to physical

C.

Physical Io logical

D.

Public to private

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Options:

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

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Questions 50

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

Options:

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

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Questions 51

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

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Questions 52

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

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Questions 53

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

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Questions 54

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Questions 55

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

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Questions 56

Which technology grants enhanced visibility and threat prevention locally on a device?

Options:

A.

EDR

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

DLP

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Questions 57

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

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Questions 58

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

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Questions 59

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Options:

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

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Questions 60

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Questions 61

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Questions 62

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

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Questions 63

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Questions 64

Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

Options:

A.

Correlating

B.

Active monitoring

C.

Archiving

D.

sandboxing

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Questions 65

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Questions 66

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Options:

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Questions 67

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

Options:

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

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Questions 68

Which statement describes DevOps?

Options:

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 227
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