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PMI-002 Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is not a part of the Earned Value calculations?

Options:

A.

Unknown Unknowns

B.

Project Budget

C.

Known Unknowns

D.

Amount of work completed

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Questions 5

Which is the Estimate Costs technique used most frequently in the early stages of a project.

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Life-cycle costing

C.

Parametric modeling

D.

Bottom up estimating

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Questions 6

A Change Control Board should be _______?

Options:

A.

flexible

B.

Include the project manager

C.

appropriate authority

D.

al1 of the above

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Questions 7

Adjusting Leads and Lags is a technique for:

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 8

A Project Scope Management includes :

Options:

A.

Initiation

B.

Project Plan Execution

C.

Overall Change Control

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 9

Which of the following is an output of the Define Scope process?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Change Requests

C.

Project document updates.

D.

Project scope statement

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Questions 10

Which of the following is an output of the Control Scope process ?

Options:

A.

Scope statement

B.

Change Requests

C.

Formal acceptance

D.

Work breakdown structure

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Questions 11

A document which describes how project scope will be managed and how scope changes will be integrated into the project is: (choose the best answer)

Options:

A.

A project plan

B.

A risk analysis

C.

A scope management plan

D.

A scope statement

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Questions 12

The amount of time that an activity can be delayed from its early start without delaying the project end date is called:

Options:

A.

Negative Float

B.

Total Float

C.

Float

D.

c and b

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Questions 13

The Project Procurement Management includes:

Options:

A.

Procurement planning

B.

Solicitation planning

C.

Solicitation

D.

All of the above

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Questions 14

Project Managers have maximum authority in which type of organization?

Options:

A.

Weak Matrix organization

B.

Strong Matrix

C.

Balanced Matrix organization

D.

None

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Questions 15

An input of the Collect Requirements process is a/an:

Options:

A.

Project Charter

B.

Project schedule

C.

Strategic plan

D.

Historical information

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Questions 16

Which is not included in Performance improvements :

Options:

A.

Improvements in amount of overtime worked

B.

Improvements in individual skills

C.

Improvements in team behaviours

D.

Improvements in team capabilities

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Questions 17

A Project Cost Management plan is created as a part of:

Develop Project Management Plan process

Control Costs process

Determine Budget process

Estimate Costs process

Options:

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Questions 18

Inputs of Develop Project Team include all EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Project staff

B.

Reward and recognition systems

C.

Resource calendars

D.

Project plan

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Questions 19

What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no slack?

Options:

A.

Lots of free float

B.

Idle resources

C.

Negative float

D.

Positive float

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Questions 20

Which of the following is NOT output of Qualitative Risk Analysis ?

Options:

A.

R'sk Register updates

B.

Root Cause Analysis

C.

R'sk Urgency Assessment

D.

Risk Categorization

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Questions 21

Change requests are made against the ____________?

Options:

A.

Project baseline

B.

SOW

C.

Charter

D.

Executive summary

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Questions 22

Which of the following is a common characteristic of most project life cycle descriptions?

Options:

A.

Cost and staffing are low at the start, higher towards the end. and drop rapidly as the project nears completion.

B.

The probability of successfully completing the project is highest at the start of the project.

C.

Stakeholders have the most influence on the final characteristics of the product at the end of the project.

D.

a and b

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Questions 23

A period of time in work weeks which includes non-working days is called:

Options:

A.

Elapsed Time

B.

Duration

C.

Effort

D.

Earned Time

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Questions 24

A tool which is used to illustrate links between work packages or activities and team members is called _______.

Options:

A.

Define Scope Matrix

B.

Responsibility Assignment Matrix

C.

Roles Assignment Matrix

D.

Project Scope and Roles Matrix

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Questions 25

As part of the quality audit, the scope statement is checked against the work results to ensure the conformance to the customer requirements. The results should be documented and used for which of the following:

Options:

A.

Estimating future projects

B.

Changing the project scope

C.

Defining future project tasks

D.

Validating the quality process

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Questions 26

In project communications, the sender is responsible for _____________.

Options:

A.

Making the information clear, unambiguous, and complete so that the receiver can receive it correctly

B.

Ensuring information conveyed is accurate, clear, and timely so that it is useful to the receiver

C.

Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly

D.

Identifying the proper choice of media, eliminating communications barriers, and utilizing the appropriate style and tone

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Questions 27

Cost of Quality is a project management concept that includes cost of _________.

Options:

A.

Exceeding requirements

B.

Changes to the requirements

C.

Ensuring conformance to requirements

D.

The quality control requirements

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Questions 28

Risks are accepted when __________.

Options:

A.

You develop a contingency plan to execute in case the risk event occurs.

B.

To eliminate the threat entirely.

C.

You transfer the risk to another party.

D.

Taking early action to reduce probably of risk rather repair the damage after risk has occurred.

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Questions 29

The party that needs the change resulting from the project, and who will be its custodian on completion is the _______.

Options:

A.

Owner

B.

Sponsor

C.

Customer

D.

client

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Questions 30

In which of the following contract types the seller's profit is limited?

Options:

A.

Cost-plus-percentage-cost contract

B.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract

C.

Firm Fixed price contract

D.

Fixed-price-incentive fee contract

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Questions 31

Which of the following techniques is used to control the project schedule?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance measurement

C.

Parametric modelling

D.

Statistical sampling

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Questions 32

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called __________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

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Questions 33

A service or product's reliability and maintenance characteristics are MOST affected by which of the following:

Options:

A.

Function

B.

Design

C.

Cost

D.

Fabrication

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Questions 34

All of the following statements about the project charter are correct except:

Options:

A.

It Is often an internal legal document.

B.

It identifies the project manager's authority and responsibility.

C.

It identifies management and/or customer approved scope of the project.

D.

It usually does not identify cost and time estimates.

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements concerning bottom up estimating is true?

Options:

A.

The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items

B.

Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy

C.

Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy

D.

Both A and B are true

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Questions 36

All of the following are outputs from Report Performance EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Trend analysis

B.

"S" curves, histograms, bar charts, and tables

C.

Performance reports

D.

Change requests

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Questions 37

Which process involves Monitoring, measuring, and taking corrective action?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 38

You are the controller on your project. Your project manager has requested that you provide him with a forecast of project costs for the next 12 months. He needs this information to determine if the budget should be increased or decreased on this major construction project. In addition to the usual information sources, which of the following should you also consider?

Options:

A.

Cost estimates from similar projects

B.

The WBS

C.

Long-range weather forecasts

D.

Existing change requests

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Questions 39

All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT _________.

Options:

A.

Memos

B.

Verbal circulation of a rumour

C.

video conferencing

D.

Inputting data into a spreadsheet

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Questions 40

The adjustment of task schedules in order to deploy human resource more effectively is called resource _______.

Options:

A.

Tracking

B.

Loading

C.

Crashing

D.

Levelling

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Questions 41

During the execution of a software project, the vendor proposes an upgrade of a part of project without a change in the schedule or cost. After the change is approved, where would this change BEST be documented?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Procurement Management plan

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Quality assurance plan

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Questions 42

Technical staffs tend to be particularly responsive to __________.

Options:

A.

Referent power

B.

Formal power

C.

Functional power

D.

Expert power

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Questions 43

On a project, quality should generally be of ________.

Options:

A.

Equal priority with schedule, but higher priority than cost

B.

Higher priority than cost and schedule

C.

Equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule

D.

Equal priority with cost and schedule

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Questions 44

Conflict resolution techniques that may be used on a project include ______________.

Options:

A.

Withdrawing, compromising, controlling, and forcing

B.

Controlling forcing smoothing, and withdrawing

C.

Confronting, compromising, smoothing and directing

D.

Smoothing, confronting, forcing, and withdrawing

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Questions 45

A Strong Matrix is _____.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Power reset with Functional Manager

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Questions 46

The core planning processes include:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements, Sequence Activities, and Plan Communications

B.

Plan Quality, Plan Communications, and Risk Response Development

C.

Define Scope, Estimate Activity Durations, and Determine Budget

D.

Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Estimate Costs, Plan Quality, and Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 47

Which of the following is true regarding the NPV?

Options:

A.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

B.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.

C.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

D.

NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.

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Questions 48

All of the statements regarding control accounts and planning packages are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Control accounts and planning packages are tools and techniques of Develop Schedule process.

B.

A control account is an assigned WBS level used to monitor cost and schedule performance of significant element of work.

C.

Planning packages reflect a future segment of work within a control account that has not yet been decomposed into detailed work packages.

D.

As work becomes more clearly defined, planning packages are converted into work packages.

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Questions 49

You are project manager of a project. A customer requests a scope change in the project . In order to determine the impact of the requested change, you will need a work breakdown structure, change request, scope management plan, and:

Options:

A.

Performance reports.

B.

A responsibility matrix.

C.

A Pareto diagram

D.

A Monte Carlo simulation.

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Questions 50

A response to a risk event that was not defined in advance of is occurrence is called a:

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation response.

B.

Workaround response.

C.

Corrective action response.

D.

Contingency response.

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Questions 51

As a project manager, you know that the most important activity to ensure customer and stakeholder satisfaction is which of the following?

Options:

A.

Documenting and meeting the requirements

B.

Reporting project status regularly and in a timely manner

C.

Documenting and meeting the performance measurements

D.

Reporting changes and updating the project plan and other project documents where appropriate

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Questions 52

A forward and backward pass indicted total float is equal to - 30 days. This indicates that:

Options:

A.

The critical path must be evaluated to determine actual slack time.

B.

The project is estimated to be-20 days ahead of schedule.

C.

Two branches converge on a node.

D.

Duration compression may be required to meet the original project scope.

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Questions 53

Which of the following are NOT tools or techniques of the Activity Definition process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Decomposition, templates

C.

Rolling wave planning

D.

Schedule network templates

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Questions 54

The responsibility assignment matrix is a project management tool used to ________.

Options:

A.

Ensure team members understand their specific roles.

B.

Develop the work breakdown structure based on available resources.

C.

Establish project members availability to work on the project.

D.

Depict the project's organizational structure.

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Questions 55

Overall project performance is measured by the:

Options:

A.

Gantt chart.

B.

Work breakdown structure.

C.

PERT chart.

D.

Earned value chart.

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Questions 56

You are the project manager and at the completion of the project, you MUST:

Options:

A.

Celebrate success with the team.

B.

Evaluate team member performance.

C.

get a sign-off from the customer.

D.

Plan a turnover meeting.

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Questions 57

The peak point of Maslow's hierarchy is called:

Options:

A.

Survival.

B.

Safety.

C.

Physiological satisfaction.

D.

Self-actualization.

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Questions 58

You are project manager and during the course of a project, the number of team members increases from six to ten. How many ADDITIONAL lines of communication channels now exist?

Options:

A.

10

B.

35

C.

30

D.

55

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Questions 59

Which of the following are not the tools and techniques for source selection?

Options:

A.

a weighting system.

B.

Organizational policies

C.

Independent estimates.

D.

A screening system.

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Questions 60

The MOST important selection criterion to select a project manager for a large project in a technical industry is:

Options:

A.

Communication and Integration skills.

B.

Specific technical specialization.

C.

Financial management experience.

D.

Industry and business experience.

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Questions 61

Fast tracking involves:

Options:

A.

Developing workarounds for previous problems.

B.

An increase in project risk.

C.

Getting people to work longer with overtime.

D.

Meeting schedule objectives by adding resources.

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Questions 62

Your upcoming project includes project team members from a foreign country. To make certain that cultural differences do not interfere with team performance, thereby affecting the success of the project, which is your first course of action ?

Options:

A.

Provide diversity training to all the team members.

B.

Collocate the project team.

C.

Inform the team members of the organization's rules and standards.

D.

Perform team building exercises.

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Questions 63

Which of the following is needed to develop a detailed project cost estimate?

Options:

A.

Management plan

B.

Resource requirements

C.

Project character

D.

Cost Plan

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Questions 64

You are the project manager of a large construction project. The project objective is to construct a set of buildings in the city within 18 months from the project start date. Resources are not readily available because they are currently assigned to other projects. Nick, an expert crane operator, is needed for this project two months from today. Which of the following skills will you use to get Nick assigned to your project?

Options:

A.

Negotiation and influencing skills

B.

Communication and organizational skills

C.

Problem solving skills

D.

Communication skills

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Questions 65

Which of the following illustrate a chart with upper or lower limits on which value of some statistical measure for a series of samples are plotted using sample measure measurement, where the mean and standard deviation are determine from the sample selected?

Options:

A.

Statistical sampling

B.

Gantt chart

C.

Pareto diagram

D.

Control chart

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Questions 66

Project management is a preferred management approach EXCEPT for:

Options:

A.

Product manufacturing environment.

B.

Cross functional tasks.

C.

Unique operations.

D.

Time-constrained deliverables.

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Questions 67

Which process involves formal product acceptance and end of a project?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 68

You are in the process of numerically analyzing the effects of identified risks. Which of the following are NOT tools or techniques you can use in the process?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Modeling and simulation

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Questions 69

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out a plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 70

AOA refers to _____________.

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagramming Method [ADM]

B.

Precedence Diagramming Method [PDM]

C.

Fragment Network

D.

None

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Questions 71

Which of the following is not a tool or technique used during the Risk Quantification Process?

Options:

A.

Expected Monetary Value

B.

Contingency planning

C.

Decision Trees

D.

Statistical sums

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Questions 72

In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses is the process of ________________.

Options:

A.

Receiving

B.

Decoding

C.

Comprehending

D.

Understanding

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Questions 73

A contingency plan is ______________.

Options:

A.

A planned response that defines the steps to be taken if an identified risk event occurs

B.

A workaround

C.

A reserve used to allow for future situations which may be planned for only in part

D.

Both A and c

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Questions 74

Which of the following techniques accounts for path convergence and generally estimates project durations more accurately?

Options:

A.

CPM

B.

PERT

C.

Schedule simulation

D.

Path convergence method

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Questions 75

___________ is a group of processes required to purchase or acquire the products, services, or results needed from outside the project team to perform the work.

Options:

A.

Procurement Management

B.

Planning Management

C.

Scope Management

D.

Control Management

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Questions 76

The process of monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards is called _______________.

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance

B.

Quality Control

C.

plan Quality

D.

Quality Review

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Questions 77

Which of the following relationships is rarely used in PDM (Precedence Diagramming Method)?

Options:

A.

Start-to-Finish

B.

Finish-to-Start

C.

Start-to-Start

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 78

Deflection or transfer of a risk to another party is part of which of the following risk response categories?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Acceptance

C.

Avoidance

D.

Analysis

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Questions 79

A tight matrix is ___________________.

Options:

A.

A balanced matrix organization

B.

Where all team members are brought together in one location

C.

Where functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to both their own departments and to the project manager

D.

Both A and c

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Questions 80

All of the following are communication tools EXCEPT ___________.

Options:

A.

Memos

B.

Verbal circulation of a rumour

C.

videos

D.

Inputting data into a spreadsheet

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Questions 81

Which of the following statements concerning bottom-up estimating is true?

Options:

A.

The cost and accuracy of bottom-up estimating is driven by the size of the individual work items.

B.

Smaller work items increase both cost and accuracy.

C.

Larger work items increase both cost and accuracy.

D.

Both A and B are true

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Questions 82

Which of the following is true regarding NPV?

Options:

A.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the cost of capital.

B.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the prevailing rate.

C.

NPV assumes reinvestment at the NPV rate.

D.

NPV decisions should be made based on the highest value for all the selections.

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Questions 83

Which of the following is true about procurement documents?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents are used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers.

B.

Invitations for Bid and Request for Proposal are two examples of procurement documents.

C.

Procurement documents should be structured to facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellers.

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 84

A leadership style in which the project manager shares problems with team members and formulates solutions as a group is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Autocratic

B.

Consultation In a group

C.

Consensus

D.

One-to-one consultation

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Questions 85

Human resource adininistration is the primary responsibility of the_____________

Options:

A.

Project Management Team

B.

Human Resources Department

C.

Executive Manager

D.

Project Manager

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Questions 86

A unilateral contract under which the seller is paid a preset amount per unit of service is called _________.

Options:

A.

A cost reimbursable contract

B.

A lumP sum contract

C.

A unit price contract

D.

A fixed price contract

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Questions 87

A technique for resolving conflict in which the parties agree to have a neutral third party hear the dispute and make a decision is called ____________.

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Arbitration

C.

Smoothing

D.

Forcing

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Questions 88

Which process involves coordinating people and other resources to carry out plan?

Options:

A.

Executing processes

B.

Planning processes

C.

Controlling Processes

D.

Closing processes

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Questions 89

When a risk should be avoided?

Options:

A.

The risk event has a low probability of occurrence and low impact.

B.

The risk event is unacceptable - generally one with a very high probability of occurrence and high impact.

C.

It can be transferred by purchasing insurance.

D.

A risk event can never be avoided.

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Questions 90

Which of the following is best for handling cross-functional project needs for a large, complex project?

Options:

A.

A strong matrix organization

B.

A project coordinator

C.

A project expediter

D.

Direct executive involvement

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Questions 91

Most schedule simulations are based on some form of which of the following?

Options:

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Questions 92

When a project is being performed under contract, who provides SOW?

Options:

A.

Buyer

B.

Contractor

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Project manager

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Questions 93

You are project manager of a project and you are offering an estimate that you know will be changed after the contract is signed is ___________.

Options:

A.

Bad practice

B.

Unprofessional practice

C.

Bacl f°r both tne buyer and seller

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 94

Which of the following are input of close project process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Contract documentation

C.

Deliverables

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 95

Which of the following statement is true about Strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Strategic planning determines which projects will be choosing in order to achieve the organizational goals

B.

Strategic planning determines which projects will be sponsor in order to achieve the organizational goals

C.

Strategic planning determines these are the projects that get chosen and funded

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 96

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

PBS

B.

Project Scope statement

C.

WBS Template

D.

Constraints

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Questions 97

Which of the following does not provided by scope statement?

Options:

A.

Project justification

B.

Project product

C.

Project manager authority

D.

Project objective

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Questions 98

_______ is the road map for the execution of the project.

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

sow

C.

WBS

D.

Strategic planning

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Questions 99

Collect Requirements process starts in Project Planning Phase and uses the outputs of the __________.

Options:

A.

Initiation Process

B.

Project closer Process

C.

Estimation Process

D.

Closing process

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Questions 100

Lessons learned session should be held at what point in a project?

Options:

A.

At the project conclusion

B.

At key milestones

C.

When risk events occur

D.

When sponsor want

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Questions 101

During the planning phase of your project, your project team members have discovered another way to complete a portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but may cost more for the customer. This is an example of _______.

Options:

A.

Alternative identification

B.

"'s^ assessment

C.

Alternative selection

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 102

Administrative closure is the process that ________.

Options:

A.

Closes all activities pertaining to a specific project

B.

Collects user acceptance of the project product or service

C.

Includes all the activities needed to validate the project products and services

D.

Al1 of the above

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Questions 103

Which of the following is the most important task of the project manager during the Execution and Control phase?

Options:

A.

Information management

B.

Maintain scope statement

C.

Maintain Charter

D.

Maintain Closing document

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Questions 104

______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

Options:

A.

Control Scope system

B.

VeiirV Scope

C.

Scope Charter

D.

Scope Management plan

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Questions 105

ISO Stands for __________.

Options:

A.

International Organization for Standardization

B.

International Standardized Organization

C.

'n Standardized Organization

D.

Indiana Standardized Organization

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Questions 106

If you are project manager for a Project and will need as many inputs to the initiation phase as possible. Of the following, which is the best source of information for your project?

Options:

A.

Historical information

B.

WBS

C.

Business plans

D.

RBS

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Questions 107

The work breakdown structure is ________.

Options:

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Questions 108

In which phase you define the final deliverable?

Options:

A.

Closing

B.

Execution

C.

Planning

D.

Initiation

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Questions 109

If a project with a CPI of 1.2, what you tell?

Options:

A.

The project is consuming fewer resources than anticipated

B.

The project is using fewer resources than anticipated.

C.

The project is falling behind.

D.

The project is running ahead of schedule.

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Questions 110

Create Procurement document is done in _______.

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements

B.

Conduct Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 111

You are the project manager of a project. Project is installing AC to hotel rooms. You have done project cost and time estimates, told the customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the rooms meet the requirements like (wooden coated). This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Assumption

C.

Constraint

D.

Budget

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Questions 112

Which of the following subsidiary plan contains the quality objectives for the project?

Options:

A.

Quality baseline

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Process improvement plan

D.

QA checklist

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Exam Code: PMI-002
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Certification
Last Update: Jul 1, 2025
Questions: 748
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