FC0-U71 CompTIA Tech+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

A keyboard allows a user to enter data into a system:

“Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals to the computer; keyboards are primary examples.”

Storage saves data, output displays data, and processing handles data operations.

A byte consists of exactly 8 bits. Bits (binary digits) are the smallest unit of data, and eight of them grouped together form one byte, which is used to represent characters and numbers in digital systems.

“A byte is made up of 8 bits and is the standard unit of data used to represent information such as characters in computing.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), one of the five critical steps when configuring a wireless router is to change the administrator username and password:

“The Wi-Fi Alliance lists five critical keys to setting up a secured wireless router:

Change the router’s SSID.

Change the administrator username and password. Make sure that it’s a strong password.

Enable WPA3 or WPA2 Personal.

Choose a strong security passphrase.

Connect clients using the same security mode.”

This ensures unauthorized users cannot log in to the router’s settings.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Setting Up a Small Wireless Network” (pp. 463–467).

E-readers (especially those using e-ink displays) are specifically designed for reading in bright environments. E-ink mimics the appearance of ink on paper, offering excellent visibility in sunlight with minimal glare and very low power consumption.

“E-readers use e-ink technology which makes the screen easily readable in bright environments like sunlight. This makes them ideal for reading documentation outdoors.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

Laptops, tablets, and smartphones may suffer from glare or screen dimming in direct sunlight.

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Remote support software allows technicians to connect to a user’s computer from another location, troubleshoot issues, install applications, and perform updates without physically being at the same site.”

Additionally, the review question section confirms:

“You are setting up a technical support help desk for a new app. What type of software should you get to help the technicians fix problems more effectively?

Answer: Remote support.”

Thus, the technician in another state uses remote support software to perform the installation.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Remote Support Software” (pp. 347–348).

Output devices display or present data to users:

“A Smart TV displays visual and audio output, qualifying it as an output device.”

Web cameras, keyboards, and microphones are input devices that capture data rather than display or present it.

Interference or poor signal strength is a common issue in Wi-Fi networks, especially in distant or obstructed locations like basements.

“Physical obstructions and electronic interference can weaken wireless signals, leading to connectivity issues in areas like basements.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the SFP (Small Form-Factor Pluggable) connector is directly associated with fiber-optic networking. The guide lists:

“SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors are commonly used in fiber-optic connections to allow hot-swappable transceivers for different types of fiber cables.”

Additionally, the same guide’s chapter on Networking Concepts and Technologies explains:

“Fiber-optic around 2 Gbps – Incredibly fast and more expensive than DSL or cable.”

Therefore, fiber Internet is the only service type that uses SFP connectors for data transmission over optical cables.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “External network connections” and “Common Internet connection types and speeds” (pp. 429–435).

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “SFP (small form-factor pluggable) connectors” (pp. 97–98).

The largest unit is determined by converting all values to the same unit:

2TB = 2,000GB

100GB = 100GB

4,000MB = 4GB

50KB = 0.00005GB

Thus, 2TB is the largest. As described in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Study Guide:

“Data storage capacity is measured using standard units such as KB, MB, GB, and TB, where 1TB = 1,000GB.”

The correct answer is A. Remove unnecessary software. Removing software that is not needed is a device-hardening step. Unnecessary applications can increase the attack surface of a laptop, so removing them helps reduce vulnerabilities. Installing drivers may be required for hardware functionality, but it is not the best security improvement. Configuring backups helps with recovery, but it does not directly harden the device. Benchmark testing measures performance, not security.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that device hardening makes a device harder to exploit and includes “removing or disabling unused software and services.” The guide’s Chapter 11 lab also lists the task “Remove unwanted, unnecessary, or malicious software.”

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide clearly defines:

“To talk to the hardware, operating systems use specialized programs called device drivers, or drivers for short. A driver tells the OS how to talk to the specific piece of hardware and how to use its features. If there is no driver for that OS, then the hardware will not be compatible with it.”

Hence, drivers are the software components that control and enable communication between the OS and hardware devices.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Coordinating Users and Hardware” (pp. 208–209).

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide:

“Changing Default Usernames and Passwords — The first thing a potential hacker will try to use is the default username or password for a device. Always change them.”

It also emphasizes:

“Enabling passwords and changing default usernames and passwords are essential password management best practices.”

Therefore, the correct action after server setup is to change the default usernames and passwords to secure the system.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Managing Passwords” (pp. 594–595).

Pseudocode represents logic written in plain, human-readable language that resembles programming structure but isn’t actual code:

“Pseudocode allows programmers to design algorithms using readable statements before translating them into actual code.”

Branch and sequence refer to control flow structures, and object-oriented refers to a programming paradigm.

Browsers store previously loaded pages in their cache to improve performance. If outdated content is cached, clearing the cache forces the browser to load the latest version from the server.

“Clearing the browser cache removes stored versions of web pages and resolves display issues caused by outdated content.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: C

A primary key is a unique identifier for each record in a database table. It must be unique and not null across all rows. In this table, the field ID is the only column that uniquely identifies each row and does not repeat.

“A primary key is a field (or a set of fields) that uniquely identifies a record in a table. It ensures that each record can be uniquely retrieved.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Analysis of other options:

Month, Day, Year, and Name can have duplicate values across multiple records and therefore do not serve as unique identifiers.

Correct answer: A

The ID field contains unique values for each record and is typically used as a primary key in a database. A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table.

Month, Day, Year, and Name may have duplicates and do not guarantee uniqueness.

RAM (Random Access Memory) in smartphones and computers is most commonly measured in gigabytes (GB) today. Typical smartphone RAM ranges from 2GB to 16GB depending on performance and price.

“Memory capacity in modern devices like smartphones is measured in gigabytes (GB), reflecting their need to support multitasking and app usage.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Resources

Other options:

KB and MB were used in earlier computing generations.

TB is used for storage, not RAM.

Correct answer: A

An open-source license allows users to access, modify, and redistribute the software’s source code. It supports user customization and community contributions.

“Open-source software provides access to the source code, allowing users to inspect, modify, and enhance the software.” — CompTIA ITF+ Licensing and Software Concepts

Correct answer: C

This scenario describes a policy where the system enforces password expiration, prompting users to update passwords after a defined period.

“Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to reset their passwords periodically—commonly 30, 60, or 90 days—to mitigate the risk of compromised credentials.” — CompTIA ITF+ Objectives

Password privacy refers to keeping the password confidential.

Password history restricts reuse of old passwords.

Password complexity enforces character rules (e.g., uppercase, numbers, symbols).

Correct answer: D

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Firewalls filter network traffic. Firewalls filter inbound and outbound network traffic based on rules defined by the administrator. That list of rules is called an access control list (ACL). By default, most firewalls are configured as default deny, which means that all traffic is blocked unless specifically authorized by the administrator.”

Therefore, a firewall is the network security device that primarily permits and restricts traffic based on predefined rules.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Software Firewalls” (pp. 316–317).

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Firewalls” (pp. 447–448).

The requirement to change passwords every 60 days is a policy known as password expiration. It is part of enforcing secure authentication by limiting the amount of time a password is valid.

“Password expiration is a security measure that requires users to change their passwords after a specific period, such as every 60 or 90 days, to reduce the risk of compromised credentials being used over time.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Password complexity refers to rules about what characters are required.

Password management refers to overall policies and tools for handling passwords.

Password privacy relates to confidentiality but not periodic resets.

Thus, the correct choice is C.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly defines Platform as a Service (PaaS) as the most appropriate for developers seeking a managed coding environment:

“Platform as a Service (PaaS) adds a layer to IaaS that includes software development tools such as runtime environments. Because of this, it can be very helpful to software developers; the vendor manages the various hardware platforms. This frees up the software developer to focus on building their application and scaling it.”

It also provides examples:

“Examples of PaaS include Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Red Hat OpenShift, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Engine Yard, and Heroku.”

This clearly shows that PaaS allows developers to focus on writing code without managing the underlying infrastructure—exactly what the question describes.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 9: Cloud Computing and Artificial Intelligence — Section “Cloud Services” and Table 9.1 (pp. 494–496).

Anti-malware software is specifically designed to detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software from a system. It is the most appropriate tool for protecting a computer after a suspicious or infected file is downloaded.

“Anti-malware software scans downloaded files and running processes to identify and remove malicious software, providing real-time protection against viruses, trojans, and spyware.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Firewall – Prevents unauthorized access but doesn’t clean infections

C. Patching – Prevents exploitation of known vulnerabilities, not infection removal

D. Permissions – Limit access but do not remove malware

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) defines hexadecimal as follows:

“The hexadecimal notational system, or base-16… In hex, the numbers 0 to 9 are used, just like in decimal. However, the letters A to F are used to represent decimal numbers 10 through 15.”

This directly confirms that hexadecimal uses digits 0–9 and letters A–F.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Notational Systems” (pp. 357–359).

Encryption protects files by converting them into unreadable formats unless the correct decryption key is provided. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

" Encryption is the process of converting data into a secure format that cannot be read without a decryption key. Only users with the proper key can access the original data. "

File permissions control user access based on OS-level rules, but encryption specifically ensures that only those with the key can read the file even if they access the file storage.

Hidden folders merely conceal files but don’t protect content. Compression reduces file size but doesn’t protect access.

To extract specific information from a database, especially recently updated entries, a query is used. Queries filter and retrieve data based on conditions like dates, fields, or status.

“A query is a request for data or information from a database table or combination of tables.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Management

Correct answer: B

The question asks how the value 9 can be represented using only ones and zeros, which is the definition of binary. In binary, the decimal number 9 is represented as 1001.

“Binary is a base-2 numeral system that represents numeric values using only two symbols: 0 and 1. Computers use binary to process and store all data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide discusses social engineering prevention:

“Social engineering relies on manipulating people rather than technology. The best protection against social engineering is user awareness and verifying identity before sharing information.”

Verifying a user’s identity via a phone call before taking any action (such as password reset or data access) is an essential safeguard against impersonation attempts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks” (pp. 586–588).

Although basic scanner functionality may work with default drivers, full functionality (like programmable buttons) often requires the manufacturer ' s software suite. Installing the correct software from the vendor ensures that all features are supported.

“Peripheral devices may require manufacturer-specific drivers and utilities to enable full feature support. Downloading from the vendor’s website ensures compatibility.” — CompTIA ITF+

As per the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“Some companies’ IT policies require that you change or reset your password at regular intervals, such as every 90 days. The rationale for having a password expiration policy is that the longer you keep a password, the more likely it is that someone has seen it or written it down.”

The guide further notes:

“Many companies have password policies in place that enforce strict requirements… The policy can also make users reset their password every so often, such as 90 days.”

This describes password expiration, which ensures that passwords are periodically updated to reduce security risks.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Password Changes” (pp. 596–598).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide provides a conversion table for storage units:

“1 bit = 1 bit, a single 0 or 1.

8 bits = 1 byte (one text character).

1,000 bytes = 1 kilobyte (KB).”

Thus, 8 bits equals 1 byte.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components — Table 1.2 “Bit and Byte Conversions” (p. 36).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Nearly every program running on a computer is run as a process. This includes system operations, background tasks, and applications… The Task Manager utility helps you see everything that’s running on a computer… If I have an app that’s taking up too much memory, I can click it and then click End Task to shut it down. This is also known as killing the process.”

Thus, process management is the OS function that allows users to stop (terminate) running applications.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Process Management” (pp. 238–240).

Pop-up blockers prevent new windows or tabs from opening, which can block reports that open in pop-up windows:

“If a web page uses pop-up windows to present information, a pop-up blocker may prevent the new content from loading.”

Cache clearing, accessibility options, or private browsing don’t directly affect hyperlink behavior.

In object-oriented programming, methods are functions or procedures associated with an object that perform actions such as retrieving data:

“Methods are actions that an object can perform. They typically manipulate or retrieve data stored within the object.”

Variables store data, attributes define properties, and loops control repetition but do not directly handle data retrieval within objects.

An e-reader is designed specifically for reading digital books in a portable, lightweight format:

“E-readers are mobile devices optimized for reading electronic books, offering portability, long battery life, and digital storage of thousands of titles.”

Servers, external drives, and workstations are either not portable or not designed for reading books.

A char (character) represents a single letter, number, or symbol. It differs from a string, which is a sequence of characters.

“The char data type stores a single alphanumeric character or symbol.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

The correct answer is C. 192.168.1.10. A valid IPv4 address is written in dotted-decimal notation, using four decimal numbers separated by periods. Option A is formatted like a MAC address, not an IP address. Option B has no dotted-decimal separation. Option D uses colons, which is not the standard IPv4 dotted-decimal format.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that an IP address is “typically written in dotted-decimal notation,” such as 192.168.10.55, and explains that each number represents an octet. The guide also distinguishes IP addresses from MAC addresses, noting that an IP address is logical and a MAC address is physical.

In the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), an array is described as:

“An array is a data structure that stores multiple values of the same data type under a single variable name. Each value in the array can be accessed using an index or key. Arrays are commonly used to organize related sets of data such as names, numbers, or records that share a common context.”

The guide illustrates how arrays can hold tabular data, similar to a spreadsheet or database table:

“Arrays let programmers store data in a table-like format, using rows and columns to represent related values, such as months and corresponding totals. This makes it easier to manage and manipulate structured data programmatically.”

In contrast:

A constant is a fixed value that cannot change during program execution.

A function performs an operation or returns a value based on parameters.

A variable holds a single value that can change.

Since the dataset represents multiple related values (Food and Drinks) across months in a table structure, it is an array.

Verified Reference from CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide, Exam FC0-U71 (3rd Edition, 2025):

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Data Types and Structures” section (pages 371–372).

Exam Objective 6.2 — Recognize basic programming structures such as arrays and variables.

A console or command-line interface (CLI) allows users to input text-based commands that the computer can execute.

“The console (or command prompt or terminal) allows direct command input to control an operating system or application without using a graphical interface.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

Services are background processes.

Attributes define properties of objects or elements.

Processes are executing programs but are not used for inputting commands.

Correct answer: D

Task management tools such as Task Manager in Windows or Activity Monitor in macOS allow users to monitor running applications and processes. They also provide the functionality to force-close (end) applications that are not responding.

“Task Manager provides a way to close applications that are unresponsive and manage running processes.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Guide

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“For a table in a database to be relational, it must have a primary key. In fact, its creation is mandatory when a table is created. A primary key is one or more fields whose data is used to identify a record uniquely.”

It further adds:

“Primary keys for tables are stored in an index, which enforces the uniqueness requirement.”

Hence, the unique identifier for records in a relational database is the primary key.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Primary Key” (pp. 394–395).

Process management in an operating system is responsible for controlling the execution of applications, assigning CPU time, and prioritizing active processes to optimize performance.

“Process management allocates resources, prioritizes applications, and ensures multitasking is efficiently handled by the OS.” — CompTIA ITF+ Operating Systems Guide

Correct answer: B

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) explains:

“Inside the BIOS, you can make system configuration selections such as changing the system time, selecting a preferred boot device, or enabling/disabling features.”

Additionally, it details:

“The CMOS chip must have power constantly or it will lose its information (just like RAM does when your computer is powered off). To prevent CMOS from losing its rather important information, motherboard manufacturers include a small battery called the CMOS battery to power the CMOS memory.”

If the system time resets or becomes incorrect after power off, it indicates a BIOS or CMOS battery issue. Configuring or replacing the BIOS/CMOS settings resolves it.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components — “BIOS and CMOS” (pp. 20–21).

Disk management is the OS feature used to create, delete, format, or partition storage devices. It allows users to manage drives and volumes locally.

“Disk management tools are used to manage and configure storage devices, including creating and formatting partitions and volumes.” — CompTIA ITF+ Operating System Features

Correct answer: D

The correct answer is C. Assembly. Assembly language is the lowest-level language listed and is closest to machine code. It allows developers to write instructions that are translated into executable machine code. Scripting languages automate or run interpreted tasks, markup languages structure content such as web pages, and query languages are used to interact with databases.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that “assembly language is the lowest level of code in which people can write” and that it “allows the developer to provide instructions directly to the hardware.” It also states that assembly is translated into executable machine code by an assembler.

RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory, meaning its contents are erased when power is removed. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

“RAM is volatile storage, which means that it requires constant power to maintain the stored information. When power is turned off, all data in RAM is lost.”

BIOS (firmware), NIC (hardware interface), and CPU (hardware processor) remain unaffected by shutdowns regarding stored information.

The correct answer is D. Variable. In the pseudocode, Q receives input from the user and then prints that input. Since the value of Q can change each time the program loops back to line 10, Q is a variable. It is not a constant because constants do not change. It is not a function because it is not a reusable block of code. It is not an array because it does not represent a list of values.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that a “constant” is a predefined number that does not change, while “a variable” means the value can change. It also states that variables can change throughout a program based on input.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“A compiled programming language is one that requires the use of a compiler to translate it into machine code. Creating and using a program using a compiled language consists of three steps:

Write the source code.

Use a compiler to translate the source code into machine code.

Execute the program file, which usually has an .exe extension.”

Compiled languages package programs into executable files.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Compiled Languages” (pp. 361–363).

Changing the router ' s password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C