DS0-001 CompTIA DataSys+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

The two database instances that are created by default when SQL Server is installed are master and model. Master is a system database that contains the information and settings of the SQL Server instance, such as the configuration, logins, endpoints, databases, etc. Master is essential for the operation and management of the SQL Server instance, and it should be backed up regularly. Model is a system database that serves as a template for creating new user databases. Model contains the default settings and objects, such as tables, views, procedures, etc., that will be inherited by the new user databases. Model can be modified to customize the new user databases according to specific needs or preferences. The other options are either not database instances or not created by default when SQL Server is installed. For example, root is not a database instance, but a term that refers to the highest level of access or privilege in a system; log is not a database instance, but a file that records the changes made by transactions on a database; view is not a database instance, but an object that represents a subset or a combination of data from one or more tables; index is not a database instance, but a data structure that stores the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.3 Given a scenario, update database systems.

A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users’ personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

The purpose of a snapshot is to create an image of a database. A snapshot is a copy of the state and content of a database at a specific point in time. A snapshot can be used for various purposes, such as backup and recovery, testing and development, reporting and analysis, etc. A snapshot can be created using various techniques, such as full copy, incremental copy, differential copy, etc. A snapshot can also be created using various tools or commands provided by the database system or software. The other options are either incorrect or irrelevant for this question. For example, dynamic data replication is a process that copies and synchronizes data from one database server (the source) to one or more database servers (the target) in real time; a synonym is an alias or an alternative name for an object in a database; C is an incomplete option. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.

A reason to create a stored procedure is to improve performance. A stored procedure is a set of SQL statements or commands that are stored and compiled in the database server, and can be executed by name or by a trigger. A stored procedure can improve performance by reducing the network traffic between the client and the server, as only the name or the parameters of the stored procedure need to be sent, rather than the entire SQL code. A stored procedure can also improve performance by reusing the same execution plan, as the stored procedure is compiled only once and cached in the server memory. The other options are either not true or not relevant for this purpose. For example, a stored procedure does not necessarily minimize storage space, as it still occupies space in the database server; a stored procedure does not bypass case sensitivity requirements, as it still follows the rules of the database system; a stored procedure does not give control of the query logic to the user, as it is defined and maintained by the database administrator or developer. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is A. Implement a virtual private network (VPN). CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes secure remote access as a critical requirement for modern database environments, especially when users need to connect from untrusted networks such as home internet connections. A VPN provides a secure, encrypted tunnel between the user’s device and the organization’s internal network, allowing remote users to access database resources as if they were physically on-site.

By using strong encryption and authentication mechanisms, a VPN ensures that data transmitted over public networks cannot be intercepted, read, or altered by unauthorized parties. DataSys+ highlights VPNs as a best practice for protecting data-in-transit and preventing exposure of sensitive database services directly to the internet. VPNs also allow administrators to enforce centralized access controls, logging, and monitoring, further strengthening security.

Option B, implementing strong password policies, is an important security measure but does not by itself enable secure remote connectivity. Password policies address authentication strength, not secure network transport. Option C, configuring and deploying a firewall, is essential for controlling traffic flow, but a firewall alone does not provide secure remote access for home users. It typically blocks or allows connections rather than securely tunneling them. Option D, implementing a perimeter network (DMZ), is designed to host internet-facing services while isolating internal systems. Exposing databases through a perimeter network increases risk and is not recommended for direct user access to internal data.

CompTIA DataSys+ stresses the principle of minimizing attack surface. A VPN supports this principle by avoiding direct exposure of database services while still enabling authorized remote access. It also integrates well with multifactor authentication and identity management systems.

Therefore, the most secure and appropriate method to enable remote access without compromising stored data is to implement a virtual private network, making option A the correct and fully verified answer.

The computer service that associates IP network addresses with text-based names in order to facilitate identification and connectivity is IDNS. IDNS, or Internet Domain Name System (DNS), is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Domain names are human-readable names that identify websites or devices on the internet, such as www.comptia.org or www.google.com. IP addresses are numerical identifiers that locate websites or devices on the internet, such as 104.18.26.46 or 142.250.72.238. IDNS helps users to access websites or devices using domain names instead of IP addresses, which are easier to remember and type. IDNS also helps administrators to manage websites or devices using domain names instead of IP addresses, which are more flexible and scalable. The other options are either different computer services or not related to IP network addresses or text-based names at all. For example, LDAP, or Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a service that provides access to directory information such as users, groups, or devices on a network; NTP, or Network Time Protocol, is a service that synchronizes the clocks of computers or devices on a network; DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is a service that assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to computers or devices on a network. References:  CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, select an appropriate database deployment method.

The administrator should use peer-to-peer replication to achieve this objective. Peer-to-peer replication is a type of replication that allows data to be distributed across multiple database instances that are equal partners, or peers. Each peer can read and write data that will be synchronized across all peers. This provides high availability, scalability, and load balancing for the application. The other options are either not suitable for this scenario or do not support bidirectional data synchronization. For example, failover clustering provides high availability but does not distribute the workload across multiple instances; log shipping provides disaster recovery but does not allow writing data to secondary instances; availability groups provide high availability and read-only access to secondary replicas but do not support peer-to-peer replication. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.

The correct answer is B. 40%. CompTIA DataSys+ explains that Resource Governor is used to manage and allocate CPU and memory resources among multiple workloads or resource pools within a database system. When configuring resource pools, administrators must ensure that the total allocation of minimum resources does not exceed 100%, as all resource pools share the same finite system resources.

In this scenario, the first resource pool has a minimum CPU and memory allocation of 25%, and the second resource pool has a minimum allocation of 35%. Together, these minimum guarantees account for 60% of total available resources. Resource Governor enforces these minimums to ensure that critical workloads always receive their reserved share of system resources, even under heavy load.

The remaining resources are calculated by subtracting the total minimum allocation from 100%.

100% − 60% = 40%

This remaining 40% represents the maximum CPU and memory that can be safely assigned to the third resource pool without violating Resource Governor rules. Assigning a higher value would exceed the total available system resources and would not be permitted under proper configuration guidelines emphasized in DataSys+.

Option A (20%) underutilizes available resources and is unnecessarily restrictive. Option C (60%) and D (100%) are invalid because they would cause the combined minimum allocations to exceed system capacity, leading to misconfiguration or enforcement failures. DataSys+ stresses careful capacity planning when using Resource Governor to balance performance, fairness, and system stability.

Resource Governor is especially useful in multi-tenant or mixed-workload environments, where critical applications must be protected from resource starvation. Proper calculation of minimums and maximums ensures predictable performance and prevents one workload from monopolizing system resources.

Therefore, the correct maximum allocation for the third resource pool is 40%, making option B the correct and fully verified answer aligned with CompTIA DataSys+ guidance.

The factor that must be considered to ensure data integrity during transmission is encryption. Encryption is a process that transforms data into an unreadable or scrambled form using an algorithm and a key. Encryption helps protect data integrity during transmission by preventing unauthorized access or modification of data by third parties, such as hackers, eavesdroppers, or interceptors. Encryption also helps verify the identity and authenticity of the source and destination of the data using digital signatures or certificates. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, bandwidth is the amount of data that can be transmitted over a network in a given time; redundancy is the duplication of data or components to provide backup or alternative sources in case of failure; masking is a technique that replaces sensitive data with fictitious but realistic data to protect its confidentiality or compliance. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The statement that the administrator should use to remove inactive customers from a database is option A. This statement uses the DELETE command to delete all the rows from the customer table where the status column is equal to 'inactive'. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect commands, or do not specify the condition correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The option that is part of logical database infrastructure security is perimeter network. Perimeter network, also known as DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is a network segment that lies between an internal network and an external network, such as the internet. Perimeter network provides an additional layer of security for the internal network by isolating and protecting the servers or services that are exposed to the external network, such as web servers, email servers, database servers, etc. Perimeter network also helps prevent unauthorized access or attacks from the external network to the internal network by using firewalls, routers, proxies, etc. The other options are either part of physical database infrastructure security or not related to database infrastructure security at all. For example, surveillance is a method of monitoring and recording physical activities or events in a location or resource; biometric access is a device that uses biological characteristics to control access to a physical location or resource; cooling system is a device or system that regulates the temperature and humidity of a location or resource. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, implement database infrastructure security.

The correct answer is B. INTEGER. According to CompTIA DataSys+ objectives, choosing the appropriate data type is a fundamental database design decision that directly affects storage efficiency, performance, and data integrity. Product quantities represent whole numbers, such as the count of items in inventory, units sold, or stock remaining. Because these values do not require decimal precision, an integer-based data type is the most appropriate and storage-efficient choice.

An INTEGER data type is specifically designed to store whole numbers and consumes significantly less storage than floating-point or double-precision data types. DataSys+ emphasizes that database administrators should always select the smallest data type that accurately represents the data, as this reduces disk usage, improves cache efficiency, and enhances query performance—especially in large tables with millions of rows.

Option A, DOUBLE, and option D, FLOAT, are floating-point data types intended for values that require decimal precision, such as scientific measurements or financial calculations involving fractions. These data types consume more storage and can introduce rounding errors, making them unsuitable for storing simple quantity counts. Using floating-point types for inventory quantities would be inefficient and unnecessary.

Option C, COUNT, is not a data type at all. COUNT is an aggregate SQL function used in queries to calculate the number of rows or non-null values in a result set. It cannot be used to define a column in a table schema.

CompTIA DataSys+ highlights that efficient schema design includes proper data typing to minimize resource consumption while maintaining accuracy. By using INTEGER for product quantities, administrators ensure optimal storage utilization, faster indexing, and predictable arithmetic operations.

Therefore, to store product quantities accurately while consuming the minimal amount of storage, INTEGER is the best and most appropriate choice, making option B the correct and fully verified answer.

The correct answers are E. MongoDB and F. Cosmos. CompTIA DataSys+ clearly differentiates between relational databases, which require predefined schemas, and non-relational (NoSQL) databases, which support flexible or schema-less data models. A schema-less database allows data to be stored without enforcing a fixed table structure, making it ideal for rapidly changing data requirements, unstructured data, or applications with evolving schemas.

MongoDB is a document-oriented NoSQL database that stores data in flexible, JSON-like documents. Each document in a MongoDB collection can have a different structure, allowing developers to add or remove fields without modifying a predefined schema. DataSys+ highlights document stores like MongoDB as well-suited for modern applications that require agility, scalability, and the ability to handle semi-structured or unstructured data.

Cosmos (commonly referring to Azure Cosmos DB) is a globally distributed NoSQL database service that supports multiple data models, including core (SQL) API, MongoDB API, and other non-relational models. It is designed for high availability, horizontal scalability, and schema flexibility. DataSys+ includes cloud-based NoSQL platforms such as Cosmos as examples of databases that do not enforce rigid schemas.

Options A, B, C, and D—PostgreSQL, MariaDB, MySQL, and SQL Server—are all relational database management systems (RDBMS). These systems require predefined schemas with fixed table definitions, column data types, and constraints before data can be stored. While some relational systems support limited JSON storage, they are still fundamentally schema-based and do not meet the requirement described in the question.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes selecting database technologies based on data structure and application needs. When schema flexibility is required, NoSQL solutions are preferred. Therefore, the tools best suited for creating a database without a predefined schema are MongoDB and Cosmos, making options E and F the correct and fully verified answers.

The ORM snippet that would return the ID, state, and country of all customers with the newest customers appearing first is option C. This snippet uses the select method to specify the columns to be returned, the order method to sort the results by ID in descending order, and the all method to fetch all the records. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect methods, or do not sort the results correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The first task that the administrator should perform is to create a new service account exclusively for the business intelligence application. This will ensure that the application has the appropriate permissions and credentials to access the company’s transactional data. The other options are either unnecessary, inefficient, or insecure. For example, building a separate data warehouse would require additional resources and time, setting up a nightly FTP data transfer would expose the data to potential breaches, sending the TNS names file would not guarantee that the application can connect to the database, and opening a new port on the database server would create a vulnerability for attackers. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, install and configure database software and tools.

The option that the administrator should implement to ensure high availability of the database is replication. Replication is a process that copies and synchronizes data from one database server (the primary or source) to one or more database servers (the secondary or target). Replication helps ensure high availability of the database by providing redundancy, fault tolerance, and load balancing. If the primary server fails, the secondary server can take over and continue to serve the data without interruption or data loss. The other options are either not related or not suitable for this purpose. For example, ETL is a process that extracts, transforms, and loads data from one source to another for analysis or reporting purposes; database dumping is a process that exports the entire content of a database to a file for backup or migration purposes; backup and restore is a process that copies and recovers data from a backup device or media in case of a disaster or corruption. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.

The best tool for the database administrator to document and explain the relationships between data in an organization’s database is a UML editor. A UML editor is a software application that allows users to create, edit, and visualize diagrams using the Unified Modeling Language (UML). UML is a standard language for modeling software systems and their components, such as classes, objects, relationships, behaviors, etc. UML can also be used to document and explain the relationships between data in an organization’s database by creating entity relationship diagrams (ERDs), which are graphical representations of the entities (tables), attributes (columns), and relationships (constraints) in a database. A UML editor can help the administrator to document and explain the relationships between data by providing features such as drag-and-drop, templates, symbols, validation, etc. The other options are either not suitable or not optimal for this task. For example, a text editor is a software application that allows users to create and edit plain text files; a word processor is a software application that allows users to create and edit text documents; an SQL query is a statement that performs an operation on a database using Structured Query Language (SQL). References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.

The correct answer is C. Index optimization. CompTIA DataSys+ identifies index management and optimization as a critical database maintenance activity that can be CPU-intensive but significantly improves query performance and information retrieval. Index optimization involves reorganizing, rebuilding, or analyzing database indexes to ensure they are structured efficiently and aligned with query usage patterns.

Indexes act as data access paths that allow the database engine to locate rows quickly without scanning entire tables. Over time, as data is inserted, updated, or deleted, indexes can become fragmented, inefficient, or poorly aligned with current workloads. Index optimization processes use CPU resources to analyze index statistics, rebalance tree structures, and rebuild index pages. While these operations temporarily consume CPU cycles, they result in faster query execution, reduced I/O operations, and improved overall system performance.

Option A, database compression, can reduce storage usage and I/O, but it primarily trades CPU for disk savings and does not directly optimize query access paths. Option B, patch management, involves applying software updates and security fixes and does not improve data retrieval performance. Option D, data corruption checks, are integrity and validation operations designed to detect or prevent data loss, not to enhance query performance.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that performance tuning often involves deliberate resource trade-offs. Index optimization is a prime example: it consumes CPU during maintenance windows to deliver long-term performance benefits during normal database operations. Well-optimized indexes reduce query latency, improve response times, and enhance user experience, especially in read-heavy or reporting environments.

DataSys+ also highlights best practices such as scheduling index maintenance during low-usage periods and monitoring CPU impact to avoid service disruptions. When implemented correctly, index optimization is one of the most effective ways to improve database performance and information retrieval.

Therefore, the CPU-intensive operation that improves database performance and information retrieval is index optimization, making option C the correct and fully verified answer.

The option that sets the age requirement for data that should be recovered after a major disaster is RPO. RPO, or Recovery Point Objective, is a metric that defines the maximum amount of data that can be lost or acceptable data loss in the event of a disaster or disruption. RPO indicates how frequently the data should be backed up or replicated to minimize the risk of data loss. RPO also sets the age requirement for data that should be recovered after a major disaster, as it determines how far back in time the recovery process should go. For example, if the RPO is one hour, then the data should be backed up or replicated every hour, and the recovery process should restore the data to the state it was in one hour before the disaster. The other options are either different metrics or not related to data recovery at all. For example, MTBF, or Mean Time Between Failures, is a metric that measures the average time that a system or component operates without failure; RTO, or Recovery Time Objective, is a metric that defines the maximum amount of time that can be taken to restore a system or service after a disaster or disruption; MTTF, or Mean Time To Failure, is a metric that measures the average time that a system or component operates until it fails. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of data.

The query that the administrator should use to create the table is option B. This query uses the CREATE TABLE statement to define a new table named XYZ with three columns: ID, Name, and Age. Each column has a data type and a constraint, such as NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY, or CHECK. The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect keywords, or do not specify the table name or columns correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

The two options that have data manipulation and procedural scripting power are PL/SQL and T-SQL. PL/SQL, or Procedural Language/Structured Query Language, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Oracle databases. PL/SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, packages, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. PL/SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. T-SQL, or Transact-SQL, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Microsoft SQL Server databases. T-SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. T-SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. The other options are either not related or not having both data manipulation and procedural scripting power. For example, PQL, or Power Query Language, is a data analysis and transformation language for Microsoft Power BI and Excel; Advanced SQL is a term that refers to the advanced features or techniques of SQL, such as subqueries, joins, aggregations, etc.; SQL, or Structured Query Language, is a standard language for manipulating and querying data in relational databases, but it does not have procedural features. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The first thing that the database administrator should examine to troubleshoot the issue is the event log. The event log is a file that records the events and activities that occur on a system, such as database backups, errors, warnings, or failures. By examining the event log, the administrator can identify the cause and time of the backup failure, and also check for any other issues or anomalies that may affect the backup process or the backup quality. The other options are either not relevant or not the first priority for this task. For example, CPU usage, disk space, and OS performance may affect the performance or availability of the system, but not necessarily cause the backup failure; moreover, these factors can be checked after reviewing the event log for more information. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.

The firewall type that allows an administrator to control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as connection information and data flow communications is stateful. A stateful firewall is a type of firewall that tracks the state of each connection and packet that passes through it, and applies rules or policies based on the context and content of the traffic. A stateful firewall can control traffic and make decisions based on factors such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, session status, application layer data, etc. The other options are either different types of firewalls or not related to firewalls at all. For example, a circuit-level firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and validates the establishment of TCP or UDP connections; a proxy firewall is a type of firewall that acts as an intermediary between the source and destination of the traffic; a packet firewall is a type of firewall that filters packets based on their header information. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The command that the database administrator should use for this task is CREATE USER. The CREATE USER command is a SQL statement that creates a new user account in a database and assigns it a username and a password. The CREATE USER command also allows the database administrator to specify other options or attributes for the user account, such as default tablespace, quota, profile, role, etc. The CREATE USER command is the first step to enable a user to authenticate to a database. The other options are either invalid or not suitable for this task. For example, INSERT USER is not a valid SQL command; ALLOW USER is not a SQL command, but a keyword used in some database systems to grant permissions to users; ALTER USER is a SQL command that modifies an existing user account, but does not create a new one. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

The correct answer is D. Password policies. CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes that password policies are a core component of authentication and security controls within database systems and enterprise environments. When new users are required to change their credentials for the first time, the system typically enforces predefined password rules. If the new credentials do not meet these rules, the system will reject them automatically.

Password policies define specific requirements such as minimum password length, complexity (use of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters), password history, expiration intervals, and restrictions against using previously compromised or common passwords. In many environments, first-time password changes are subject to the strictest enforcement of these rules to ensure strong baseline security from the start of a user’s lifecycle.

Option A, identity management, focuses on the creation, provisioning, and lifecycle management of user identities across systems. While identity management systems initiate the credential change process, they do not usually enforce the detailed rules that cause a password to be rejected. Option B, access controls, govern what resources a user can access after authentication, not whether a password itself is valid. Option C, service accounts, are non-interactive accounts used by applications or services and are unrelated to new end-user credential changes.

DataSys+ documentation highlights that authentication failures during credential updates are most commonly tied to policy enforcement, not permissions or account type. This includes scenarios where users unknowingly violate complexity rules or reuse default or temporary passwords that are explicitly disallowed.

Therefore, the rejection of new credentials during a first-time password change is best explained by password policies, making option D the most accurate and verified answer according to CompTIA DataSys+ principles.

Option D is the only snippet that demonstrates a valid trigger timing and event pairing as commonly tested for DataSys+ objectives around database automation and enforcing data integrity. In mainstream relational databases that support row-level triggers (for example, MySQL/MariaDB-style syntax), triggers are typically defined to fire BEFORE or AFTER a DML event such as INSERT, UPDATE, or DELETE. Option D uses BEFORE UPDATE, which is a recognized pattern: it runs automatically prior to an update operation, allowing the database to enforce business rules or modify values consistently and centrally.

By contrast, ALTER and DROP are DDL operations and are not generally supported as row-level trigger events in common SQL implementations; they are handled through DDL auditing features, event triggers (in specific platforms), or administrative logging—not through FOR EACH ROW triggers. Therefore, options A and C are incorrect for typical trigger usage patterns expected in DataSys+ scenarios. Option B is also invalid because DURING is not a standard trigger timing keyword; the standard model is BEFORE/AFTER (and in some platforms, INSTEAD OF for views).

One typing/logic note: many platforms require referencing the row being modified (for example, NEW.column and OLD.column) rather than bare column names, and trigger bodies often use BEGIN ... END plus statement terminators. Still, among the provided choices, D correctly illustrates the concept DataSys+ emphasizes: using triggers to automate consistent rule enforcement on DML changes.

The best action for the administrator to take is to delete all the backup files that are not required by the backup retention policy. This will free up disk space on the server and also comply with the best practices for data backup and recovery. The backup retention policy defines how long the backup files should be kept and when they should be deleted or archived. The other options are either risky, inefficient, or impractical. For example, moving all the backup files to external disks would require additional hardware and time, deleting all the backup files containing data that is rated as classified would compromise data security and compliance, and deleting all the backup files except for the most recent one would limit the recovery options in case of a disaster. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.

The SQL command that the administrator should use to ensure that records from the two tables are not duplicated is option A. This command uses the UNION clause to combine the records from the legacy table and the newer table into a single result set. The UNION clause also eliminates any duplicate records that may exist in both tables, and sorts the result by default. The other options either do not produce the desired result or have syntax errors. For example, option B would join the records from the two tables based on a common column, but not remove any duplicates; option C would return only the records that are common to both tables, but not the ones that are unique to each table; option D would produce a Cartesian product of the records from the two tables, which would increase the number of duplicates. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

The property that addresses this concern is durability. Durability is one of the four properties (ACID) that ensure reliable transactions in a database system. Durability means that once a transaction has been committed, its effects are permanent and will not be lost in case of system failure, power outage, crash, etc. Durability can be achieved by using techniques such as write-ahead logging, checkpoints, backup and recovery, etc. The other options are either not related or not specific to this concern. For example, isolation means that concurrent transactions do not interfere with each other and produce consistent results; atomicity means that a transaction is either executed as a whole or not at all; consistency means that a transaction preserves the validity and integrity of the data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario, identify common database issues.

The attack that is being performed is brute-force. A brute-force attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a password or a key by systematically trying all possible combinations of characters or values until the correct one is found. A brute-force attack can use common passwords, such as “123456”, “password”, or “qwerty”, as well as dictionaries, word lists, or patterns to speed up the process. A brute-force attack can target a remote system, such as a web server, an email account, or a network device, and gain unauthorized access to its data or resources. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to password guessing. For example, a DoS, or Denial-of-Service, attack is a type of attack that floods a system with requests or traffic to overwhelm its capacity and prevent legitimate users from accessing it; an SQL injection attack is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; a phishing attack is a type of attack that sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source to trick users into revealing their personal or financial information. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

The correct answers are C. Entity Framework and E. Hibernate. CompTIA DataSys+ defines Object-Relational Mapping (ORM) tools as software frameworks that allow developers to interact with relational databases using object-oriented programming concepts instead of writing raw SQL queries. ORM tools map database tables to application objects, rows to object instances, and columns to object attributes, simplifying database access and improving developer productivity.

Entity Framework is a widely used ORM tool in the Microsoft ecosystem, commonly paired with .NET applications. It enables developers to define data models in code and allows the framework to automatically generate SQL queries, manage relationships, and handle CRUD (Create, Read, Update, Delete) operations. DataSys+ highlights ORM tools like Entity Framework as a way to reduce repetitive SQL coding while maintaining consistency and abstraction between application logic and the database layer.

Hibernate is a popular ORM framework used primarily in Java-based applications. Similar to Entity Framework, Hibernate manages database interactions by mapping Java objects to relational database structures. It handles SQL generation, transaction management, and caching, making it a core example of an ORM solution referenced in DataSys+ learning objectives.

Option A, PL/SQL, and option D, T-SQL, are procedural SQL languages, not ORM tools. They are used to write stored procedures, functions, and scripts that execute directly within the database. Option B, XML, is a data format used for data representation and exchange, not for object-relational mapping. Option F, PHP, is a general-purpose programming language that can use ORM tools but is not itself an ORM framework.

CompTIA DataSys+ emphasizes understanding the distinction between database languages, programming languages, and abstraction frameworks like ORMs. Entity Framework and Hibernate clearly fit the definition of ORM tools by bridging object-oriented applications and relational databases.

Therefore, the correct and fully verified answers are C and E.

The constraint that is used to enforce referential integrity is foreign key. A foreign key is a column or a set of columns in a table that references the primary key of another table. A primary key is a column or a set of columns in a table that uniquely identifies each row in the table. Referential integrity is a rule that ensures that the values in the foreign key column match the values in the primary key column of the referenced table. Referential integrity helps maintain the consistency and accuracy of the data across related tables. The other options are either different types of constraints or not related to referential integrity at all. For example, a surrogate key is a column that is artificially generated to serve as a primary key, such as an auto-increment number or a GUID (Globally Unique Identifier); a unique key is a column or a set of columns in a table that uniquely identifies each row in the table, but it can have null values unlike a primary key; there is no such constraint as TID. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.