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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A patient presents for a right inguinal herniorrhaphy in ambulatory surgery and is placed in observation status postoperatively. Provider documentation states: “Observation related to the post procedural urinary retention likely related to benign prostatic hyperplasia or adverse reaction to anesthesia.” From this documentation, which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Urinary retention

B.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

C.

Adverse reaction to anesthetic

D.

Right inguinal hernia

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Questions 5

Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Concern for streptococcal pneumonia

B.

Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic

C.

Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia

D.

Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia

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Questions 6

Which of the following is a provider benefit of a prospective query?

Options:

A.

Instructs the provider to the best diagnosis to use

B.

Guarantees risk adjusted diagnosis capture

C.

Addresses the query topic during the actual patient encounter

D.

Defines the purpose of the encounter

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Questions 7

PCP notes describe the presence of atrial fibrillation for 10 days. Atenolol, sotalol and rivaroxaban are ordered. Possible ablation is discussed. Identify the type of atrial fibrillation described in this clinical scenario.

Options:

A.

Paroxysmal

B.

Persistent

C.

Chronic

D.

Permanent

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Questions 8

How does accurate documentation impact APC assignment in outpatient services?

Options:

A.

It has no effect

B.

It delays reimbursement

C.

It ensures appropriate APC assignment, impacting reimbursement

D.

It reduces coding accuracy

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Questions 9

Which of the following is the MOST compliant provider query?

Options:

A.

“Noted that this patient is being referred for a colonoscopy. She has no documented GI symptoms and has a family history of colon cancer. When this patient is seen, please clarify whether this is a screening colonoscopy or diagnostic colonoscopy.”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of CAD, HF, and COPD. Please document these conditions during the encounter today if they are still being treated.”

C.

“According to a visit last year, this patient has a history of alcohol use; quit two years ago; previously drank 6-9 beers daily, 10-12 beers on weekend. Patient now attends AA meetings. Is the patient’s alcohol use now in remission?”

D.

“Noted that the patient has skin that is ‘warm and dry with no rashes or lesions’; however, nursing documentation describes a ‘stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer’ requiring wet-to-dry dressing changes. Please add the pressure ulcer to your ED assessment note if appropriate.”

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Questions 10

The primary purpose of clinical documentation improvement (CDI) is to:

Options:

A.

Increase hospital reimbursement

B.

Ensure accurate and complete documentation reflecting patient severity and care provided

C.

Simplify the physician’s workflow

D.

Reduce coding workload

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Questions 11

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Questions 12

Which of the following section(s) of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are applicable to outpatient settings?

Options:

A.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines, and Chapter Specific Guidelines

B.

Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

C.

Section III, Reporting Additional Diagnoses; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

D.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines and Chapter Specific Guidelines; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

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Questions 13

Symbicort® is used to treat which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Degenerative osteoarthritis

B.

Persistent asthma

C.

Diabetic neuropathy

D.

Congestive heart failure

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Questions 14

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

Options:

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Questions 15

Provider documentation states: “Patient is here for follow-up for multiple chronic conditions, including COPD, HTN, DM, and alcohol abuse. She admits to drinking more than she has in the past, starting in the early morning and consumes at least a pint a day. Her BP today is elevated at 165/89. Discussed medications and diet. As she continues to be dependent on alcohol, several treatment options were offered. She stated she would think about it.” Which of the following groups of diagnoses is supported by the clinical indicators described?

Options:

A.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol abuse

B.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, HTN, alcohol use

C.

DM Type 2 without complications, HTN, alcohol dependence

D.

DM Type 2 with complications, COPD, alcohol dependence

E.

F.

G.

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Questions 16

In which of the following situations would a yes/no query format be considered compliant?

Options:

A.

Clarifying acuity of disease process

B.

Obtaining a new (previously undocumented) diagnosis

C.

Obtaining a specification of a contributing organism to an infection

D.

Resolving conflicting documentation from multiple providers

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Questions 17

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

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Questions 18

A patient is seen in the office for a persistent cough. Provider documentation states: “History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, asthma, and hypertension. Hypertension treated with Enalapril. Cough an adverse effect of the ACE inhibitor; discontinue Enalapril. COPD stable. Instructed to continue meds for COPD/asthma.” Which of the following diagnoses should be reported for this encounter?

Options:

A.

COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

B.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; hypertension

C.

COPD, unspecified; hypertension

D.

Cough; adverse effect of an ACE inhibitor; COPD, unspecified; asthma, unspecified, uncomplicated; hypertension

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Questions 19

A patient receives treatment for diabetes during a primary care visit. He has a glucose level of 240 and A1C of 7.9. The patient is prescribed Gabapentin 100mg TID. Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

Options:

A.

Diabetes with chronic kidney disease

B.

Diabetes with macular degeneration

C.

Diabetes with ketoacidosis

D.

Diabetes with peripheral neuropathy

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Questions 20

Which of the following BEST describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer?

Options:

A.

Pre-ulcer skin changes limited to persistent focal edema

B.

Full thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue

C.

Necrosis of soft tissues through to underlying muscle, tendon, or bone

D.

Abrasion, blister, partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis and/or dermis

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Questions 21

Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with the medication sertraline?

Options:

A.

Schizophrenia

B.

Asthma

C.

Depression

D.

Heart failure

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Questions 22

A patient is seen at the clinic for a fever, and the provider documents possible Zika virus. A CDI specialist reviews the record and notes that a positive serology test indicates the Zika virus. Which of the following should the CDI specialist do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Code the Zika virus as the reason for the visit.

B.

Query the provider to code the result of the serology test.

C.

Query the provider to confirm the diagnosis of Zika.

D.

Code the fever as the first-listed diagnosis and Zika virus as secondary.

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Questions 23

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

Options:

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Questions 24

A patient is seen by an endocrinologist to manage his poorly controlled diabetes with peripheral neuropathy and claudication. The patient has had several toes amputated in prior years and currently has a non-healing ulcer on the left foot. The patient’s additional chronic conditions consist of the following: HF, CAD, COPD, history of prostate cancer, arthritis, depression, and sleep apnea. Which of the following chronic conditions should the CDI specialist consider for future education regarding RAF impact with the endocrinologist?

Options:

A.

Sleep apnea, depression, and HF

B.

Diabetes, amputation, and skin ulcer

C.

CAD, diabetes, and COPD

D.

History of prostate cancer, arthritis, and A1C

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Questions 25

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

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Questions 26

What stage of pressure ulcer describes necrosis of soft tissue through the underlying muscle?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

5

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Questions 27

A CDI specialist reviews the record of a patient with a history of CHF and DM Type 2 who was seen in the clinic earlier that day for possible bronchitis, fever, congestion, dyspnea, and cough. A chest x-ray indicated LLL infiltrate, and a nebulizer treatment was administered while in the office. Levofloxacin and albuterol were prescribed. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to query?

Options:

A.

Presence of pneumonia

B.

Diabetic complications

C.

Acuity of bronchitis

D.

Specificity of heart failure

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Questions 28

When evaluating a CDI specialist's performance, which of the following expectations is held to the same standard for both inpatient and outpatient initiatives?

Options:

A.

Review productivity

B.

Query opportunities

C.

Revenue impact

D.

Query compliance

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Questions 29

Which performance metric is MOST appropriate for an outpatient program to share with providers?

Options:

A.

APC payment rates

B.

RAF scores

C.

HCC per member per month payments

D.

Major complication comorbidity (MCC) rates

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Questions 30

A patient with stage 3 CKD presents to the clinic for evaluation. Upon review of labs, an elevated iPTH and a normal phosphorus level are noted. Which of the following diagnoses may be appropriately queried based upon these lab values?

Options:

A.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin

B.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

C.

CKD stage 3 with hypoparathyroidism

D.

Hyperparathyroidism secondary to hypophosphatemia

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Questions 31

The table below provides data indicating the use of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) diagnosis code assignment for years 1 and 2 of an ambulatory CDI program. Based on the data and if the HCC value assigned to MDD was 0.299, which of the following should be inferred?

Options:

A.

The number of patients increased with an equal increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

B.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and a decrease in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

C.

The number of patients increased with the difference between MDD specified and MDD, unspecified insignificant, not impacting future cost benchmarking.

D.

The number of patients increased with an increase in use of MDD specified and an increase in MDD, unspecified, impacting future cost benchmarking.

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Questions 32

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Questions 33

Along with history and examination, which of the following is considered a key component in reporting evaluation and management services?

Options:

A.

Nature of presenting problem

B.

Medical decision making

C.

Review of systems

D.

Coordination of care

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Questions 34

Which of the following encounters is billed as an outpatient encounter?

Options:

A.

ED visit that leads to inpatient admission

B.

ED visit that leads to observation stay

C.

Ambulatory surgery encounter for scheduled sigmoid resection

D.

Admission for COPD exacerbation with length of stay less than two midnights

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Questions 35

Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are similar to Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) in which of the following ways?

Options:

A.

Multiple APCs can be assigned for a given encounter.

B.

APC assignment is dependent on diagnoses codes.

C.

APCs classify payment identifying similar resource use.

D.

Only one APC can be assigned for a given encounter.

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Questions 36

Which of the following BEST represents performance metrics important to an outpatient CDI program?

Options:

A.

Medicare Case Mix Index, aggregate RAF scores, and clinical denial rate

B.

HCC capture rate, unspecified code utilization rate, and query response rate

C.

Severity of illness, HCC capture rate, and Medicare Case Mix Index

D.

Number of secondary diagnoses per claim, aggregate RAF score, and quality indicators

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Questions 37

Which of the following diabetic complications requires the assignment of a combination code plus the code for the specific complication?

Options:

A.

Nephropathy

B.

Retinopathy

C.

Dermatitis

D.

Osteomyelitis

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Questions 38

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the impact of a CDI program on Clinic A using the table below?

Options:

A.

Providers are more engaged in 2023 than in 2022.

B.

Treated a more complex population than any of the other clinics in 2023.

C.

Served a sicker population in 2023 than in 2022.

D.

Consistently captured a higher RAF percentage each month in 2023 than in 2022.

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Questions 39

Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider’s attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

Options:

A.

Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn’s disease

B.

Chronic obstructive lung disease, T3 compression fracture, and s/p kidney transplant

C.

Family history of lung cancer, atrial fibrillation, and sickle cell

D.

Diabetes mellitus, syncopal episode, and pharyngitis

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Questions 40

Documentation states: “Patient with history of STEMI five weeks ago. Returning to office for follow-up. Problem list includes CAD, hypertension, heart failure, leukemia, malnutrition, and atrial fibrillation, all were relevant to the encounter. CBC and WBC reviewed and referred to oncologist. Follow-up with dietitian to further evaluate nutritional status.” Which of the following is the MOST impactful risk adjusted query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status (remission, or relapse) and acuity of leukemia

B.

Type (diastolic, systolic, combined) and acuity of heart failure

C.

Differentiation of atrial fibrillation (paroxysmal, persistent, permanent)

D.

Severity of the malnutrition (mild, moderate, severe)

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Questions 41

A 62-year-old female with history of HTN, CAD, chronic cough and obesity is seen by her PCP. Which of the following treatment plans may result in a query?

Options:

A.

Diagnostic chest x-ray

B.

A visit with a nutrition specialist

C.

Order placed for hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)

D.

Prescription written for the ACE inhibitor captopril

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Questions 42

Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Options:

A.

HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38

B.

HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35

C.

HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38

D.

HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35

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Exam Code: CCDS-O
Exam Name: Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 140
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