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CC CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which access control model is best suited for a large organization with many departments and varied access needs?

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

RBAC

C.

MAC

D.

RuBAC

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Questions 5

255.255.255.0 represents:

Options:

A.

Broadcast address

B.

Unicast address

C.

Subnet mask

D.

Global address

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Questions 6

Exhibit.

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a web application firewall (WAF)?

Options:

A.

To protect the web server from DDoS attacks

B.

To monitor network traffic for intrusions

C.

To filter and block malicious web traffic and requests

D.

To manage SSL certificates

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Questions 7

Which is NOT a component of a Business Continuity (BC) plan?

Options:

A.

Immediate response procedures

B.

Notification systems

C.

Management authority guidance

D.

Management

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Questions 8

Which threat is directly associated with malware?

Options:

A.

APT

B.

Ransomware

C.

Trojan

D.

DDoS

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Questions 9

Which OSI layer does a VPN primarily operate at?

Options:

A.

Layer 5

B.

Layer 6

C.

Layer 1

D.

Layer 3

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Questions 10

Ensuring a process cannot be completed by a single person is known as:

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Least privilege

C.

Privileged account

D.

Rule-based access control

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Questions 11

What is the main purpose of digital signatures?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data

B.

Verify sender identity and ensure message integrity

C.

Prevent network access

D.

Compress data

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Questions 12

During an ISC2 CC exam, you observe another candidate cheating. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Yell at them

B.

Do nothing

C.

Report the candidate to ISC2

D.

Call law enforcement

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Questions 13

To avoid bodily injury claims, a company decides not to offer high-risk services. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Risk Acceptance

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

Risk Avoidance

D.

Risk Control

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Questions 14

The prevention of authorized access to resources or delaying time-critical operations is known as:

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Availability

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Questions 15

The primary goal of a risk assessment is to:

Options:

A.

Avoid risk

B.

Estimate and prioritize risk

C.

Ignore risk

D.

Evaluate only the impact

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Questions 16

Which access control model can grant access to a given object based on complex rules?

Options:

A.

ABAC

B.

DAC

C.

MAC

D.

RBAC

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Questions 17

Which is very likely to be used in a Disaster Recovery effort?

Options:

A.

Guard dogs

B.

Contract personnel

C.

Data backups

D.

Anti-malware solutions

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Questions 18

Shaun is planning to protect data in all states (at rest, in motion, and in use), defending against data leakage. What is the BEST solution to implement?

Options:

A.

End-to-end encryption

B.

Hashing

C.

DLP

D.

Threat modeling

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Questions 19

What is remanence?

Options:

A.

The ability of retaining magnetization in a storage disk after deletion

B.

Files or pieces of files get scattered throughout your disks

C.

Data corruption due to disk failure

D.

All

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Questions 20

Which of the following is NOT a social engineering technique?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Baiting

C.

Quid pro quo

D.

Double dealing

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Questions 21

The process of how an organization is managed and how decisions are made is called:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Governance

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Questions 22

Port scanning attacks target which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Layer 4

B.

Layer 3

C.

Layer 5

D.

Layer 6

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Questions 23

An organization’s security system that prevents, detects, analyzes, and responds to cybersecurity incidents is called:

Options:

A.

Business continuity team

B.

Disaster recovery team

C.

Incident response team

D.

Security Operations Center

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Questions 24

What goal of security is enhanced by a strong business continuity program?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Availability

C.

Confidentiality

D.

Integrity

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Questions 25

David's team recently implemented a new system that gathers information from a variety of different log sources, analyzes that information, and then triggers automated playbooks in response to security events. What term BEST describes this technology?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

Log Repository

C.

IPS

D.

SOAR

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Questions 26

IDS can be described in terms of what fundamental functional components?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Information sources

C.

Analysis

D.

All of the choices

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Questions 27

What is knowledge-based authentication?

Options:

A.

Authentication based on a passphrase or secret code

B.

Authentication based on a token or smart card

C.

Authentication based on biometrics

D.

Authentication based on behavior

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Questions 28

Load balancing primarily safeguards which CIA triad element?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Integrity

D.

All

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Questions 29

An attacker places themselves between two communicating devices is known as:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Spoofing

C.

On-Path attack

D.

All

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Questions 30

What is the purpose of the CIA triad?

Options:

A.

Make security understandable

B.

Describe security concepts

C.

Define the purpose of security

D.

All

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Questions 31

What is the recommended fire suppression system for server rooms?

Options:

A.

Foam-based

B.

Water-based

C.

Powder-based

D.

Clean-agent gas systems (e.g., FM-200 / Inergen)

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Questions 32

A company wants to prevent employees from bringing unauthorized electronic devices into the workspace. Which physical control is best?

Options:

A.

Metal detectors

B.

Security guards

C.

RFID scanners

D.

Baggage X-ray machines

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Questions 33

A centralized organizational function that monitors, detects, and analyzes security events to prevent disruptions is called:

Options:

A.

IRP

B.

BCP

C.

SOC

D.

DRP

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Questions 34

An attack in which a user authenticated to a server unknowingly invokes unwanted actions after visiting a malicious website is known as:

Options:

A.

XSS

B.

CSRF

C.

Spoofing

D.

ALL

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Questions 35

System capabilities designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of information are known as:

Options:

A.

SOC

B.

SIEM solutions

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cryptography

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Questions 36

Faking the sender address of a transmission to gain illegal entry is called:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

ARP

C.

Spoofing

D.

All

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Questions 37

Which type of control is used to restore systems or processes to their normal state after an attack?

Options:

A.

Compensatory control

B.

Recovery control

C.

Detective control

D.

Corrective control

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Questions 38

What is the primary factor in the reliability of information and systems?

Options:

A.

Authenticity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Integrity

D.

Availability

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Questions 39

What is privacy in the context of Information Security?

Options:

A.

Protecting data from unauthorized access

B.

Ensuring data is accurate and unchanged

C.

Making sure data is always accessible when needed

D.

Disclosed without their consent

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Questions 40

Exhibit.

What kind of vulnerability is typically not identifiable through a standard vulnerability assessment?

Options:

A.

File permissions

B.

Buffer overflow

C.

Zero-day vulnerability

D.

Cross-site scripting

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Questions 41

The mitigation of violations of security policies and recommended practices is known as:

Options:

A.

Disaster recovery

B.

Incident response

C.

Threat hunting

D.

Incident response

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Questions 42

What is an IP address?

Options:

A.

A physical address

B.

A vendor identifier

C.

A logical address associated with a network interface

D.

A hardware address

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Questions 43

The evaluation of security controls to determine whether they are implemented correctly and operating as intended is known as:

Options:

A.

Security assessment

B.

Risk assessment

C.

DRP

D.

IRP

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Questions 44

The means by which a threat actor carries out their objectives.

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Threat Vector

C.

Exploit

D.

Intrusion

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Questions 45

A method for risk analysis that is based on the assignment of a descriptor such as low, medium, or high.

Options:

A.

Quantitative Risk Analysis

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

Risk Mitigation

D.

Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 46

What is the primary goal of Identity and Access Management (IAM) in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

To ensure 100% security against all threats

B.

To provide secure and controlled access to resources

C.

To eliminate the need for user authentication

D.

To monitor network traffic for performance optimization

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Questions 47

A prolonged, targeted cyberattack where an intruder remains undetected for an extended period is called:

Options:

A.

Spoofing

B.

Phishing

C.

DoS

D.

Advanced Persistent Threat

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Questions 48

The practice of sending fraudulent communications that appear to come from a reputable source is known as:

Options:

A.

DoS

B.

Virus

C.

Spoofing

D.

Phishing

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Questions 49

What is the primary goal of a risk management process in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all risks

B.

Transfer all risks

C.

Identify, assess, and mitigate risks to an acceptable level

D.

Ignore risks

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Questions 50

A company’s governing board decides that only legal services may review third-party contracts. They create a document stating that no other department has permission to do so. This document is a:

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Policy

C.

Standard

D.

Law

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Questions 51

An authorized simulated attack to evaluate security is called:

Options:

A.

Penetration test

B.

Security testing

C.

Automated testing

D.

Regression testing

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Questions 52

Which OSI layer is the primary target of a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

Layer 7

B.

Layer 3

C.

Layer 5

D.

Layer 4

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Questions 53

Port used by DNS.

Options:

A.

53

B.

80

C.

45

D.

54

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Questions 54

An entity that exploits system vulnerabilities is known as a:

Options:

A.

Attacker

B.

Threat vector

C.

Threat

D.

Threat actor

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Questions 55

TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Session

B.

Transport

C.

Data Link

D.

Presentation

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Questions 56

Exhibit.

IPSec works in which layer of OSI Model

Options:

A.

Layer 2

B.

Layer 5

C.

Layer 3

D.

Layer 7

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Questions 57

Which prevents threats?

Options:

A.

Antivirus

B.

IDS

C.

SIEM

D.

HIDS

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Questions 58

What is the primary goal of incident management?

Options:

A.

To protect life, health, and safety

B.

To reduce the impact of an incident

C.

To prepare for any incident

D.

To resume interrupted operations as soon as possible

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Questions 59

An unusual occurrence in a system or network is best described as:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Exploit

C.

Event

D.

Intrusion

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Questions 60

Which attack attempts to gain information by observing a device’s power consumption?

Options:

A.

DoS

B.

Side-channel attack

C.

XSS

D.

CSRF

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Questions 61

In incident terminology, a zero-day is:

Options:

A.

Days with a cybersecurity incident

B.

A previously unknown system vulnerability

C.

Days without a cybersecurity incident

D.

Days to solve a previously unknown system vulnerability

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Questions 62

What is a threat in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

A system weakness

B.

Something to protect

C.

A method of attack

D.

A person or thing that exploits vulnerabilities

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Questions 63

The highest-level governance documents approved by management are:

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Laws or regulations

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Questions 64

Four main components of Incident Response are:

Options:

A.

Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

B.

Preparation, Detection, Analysis and Containment

C.

Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

D.

All

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Questions 65

Permitting authorized access while preventing improper disclosure.

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Availability

D.

All

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Questions 66

Which document serves as specifications for implementing policy and dictates mandatory requirements?

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

Guideline

C.

Standard

D.

Procedure

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Questions 67

What is the primary purpose of a firewall?

Options:

A.

Encrypt data transmissions

B.

Prevent unauthorized access

C.

Monitor network traffic

D.

Backup critical data

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Questions 68

Which type of attack takes advantage of vulnerabilities in validation?

Options:

A.

ARP spoofing

B.

Pharming attacks

C.

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

D.

DNS poisoning

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Questions 69

A common network device used to filter traffic?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Ethernet

D.

Firewall

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Questions 70

A one-way spinning door or barrier that allows only one person at a time to enter a building or area.

Options:

A.

Turnstile

B.

Mantrap

C.

Bollard

D.

Gate

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Questions 71

A popular way of implementing the principle of least privilege is:

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

DAC

C.

RBAC

D.

ABAC

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Questions 72

A company analyzes system requirements, functions, and interdependencies to prioritize contingency needs. What is this process called?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

DRP

C.

IRP

D.

BIA

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Questions 73

A practitioner needing step-by-step instructions to complete a provisioning task should consult a:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Policy

C.

Procedure

D.

Laws or regulations

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Questions 74

Which aspect of cybersecurity is MOST impacted by Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Integrity

C.

Availability

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 75

Malware that disguises itself as legitimate software is called:

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Trojan

C.

Virus

D.

Ransomware

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Questions 76

What is the range of well-known ports?

Options:

A.

0–1023

B.

1024–49151

C.

49152–65535

D.

None

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Questions 77

Which principle requires that all instances of data be identical?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Consistency

D.

All

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Questions 78

Which layer provides services directly to the user?

Options:

A.

Application Layer

B.

Session Layer

C.

Presentation Layer

D.

Physical Layer

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Questions 79

What are registered ports primarily used for?

Options:

A.

Core TCP/IP protocols

B.

Web servers

C.

In-house applications

D.

Vendor and proprietary applications

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Questions 80

An agreement between a cloud service provider and a customer based on cloud-specific terms is called:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Understanding

B.

Memorandum of Agreement

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

All

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Questions 81

A device that forwards traffic to the port of a known destination device is a:

Options:

A.

Switch

B.

Hub

C.

Router

D.

Ethernet

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Questions 82

Dylan is creating a cloud architecture that requires connections between systems in two different private VPCs. What is the BEST way to enable this access?

Options:

A.

VPN connection

B.

Internet gateway

C.

Public IP address

D.

VPC endpoint

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Questions 83

What is the first component the new security engineer should learn about in the incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Detection and analysis

B.

Preparation

C.

Containment

D.

Eradication

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Questions 84

Flooding a server with traffic to make services unavailable is called:

Options:

A.

Phishing

B.

Virus

C.

Spoofing

D.

DDoS

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Questions 85

What is the best practice to clear SSD storage after use?

Options:

A.

Zero fill

B.

Degaussing

C.

Clearing

D.

Disintegration

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Questions 86

The prevention of authorized access to resources or the delaying of time-critical operations is known as:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Denial-of-Service (DoS)

D.

All

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Questions 87

Which of the following is NOT a protocol of OSI Layer 3?

Options:

A.

IGMP

B.

IP

C.

ICMP

D.

SSH

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Questions 88

Common network device used to connect networks?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Router

D.

Switch

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Questions 89

Ping flood attacks target which OSI layer?

Options:

A.

Layer 4

B.

Layer 3

C.

Layer 5

D.

Layer 6

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Questions 90

What is multi-factor authentication (MFA)?

Options:

A.

A type of authentication that uses only one method

B.

A type of authentication that uses only two methods

C.

A type of authentication that uses more than two methods

D.

A type of authentication that uses only one factor

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Questions 91

Why is a “Red Book” important in Business Continuity Planning?

Options:

A.

To have a hard copy for easy access

B.

Easy to carry and transfer

C.

When disasters disable power and electronic access

D.

All

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Questions 92

When is the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) enacted?

Options:

A.

When there is an event

B.

When there is an incident

C.

When there is a loss of business operations

D.

When there is a natural disaster

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Questions 93

A weighted factor based on the probability that a threat will exploit a vulnerability is called:

Options:

A.

Likelihood of occurrence

B.

Threat vector

C.

Risk

D.

Impact

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Questions 94

David is worried about distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks against his company’s primary web application. Which option will provide the MOST resilience against large-scale DDoS attacks?

Options:

A.

Implement a CDN

B.

Increase the number of servers in the web application cluster

C.

Contract for DDoS mitigation services via the company’s IPS

D.

Increase bandwidth from one or more ISPs

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Questions 95

Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability that has been identified and patched

B.

A vulnerability that has not yet been discovered or publicly disclosed

C.

A vulnerability exploitable only by experts

D.

A vulnerability that affects only legacy systems

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Questions 96

Is defined as the process of identifying, estimating, and prioritizing risks.

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Risk Treatment

C.

Risk Mitigation

D.

Risk Management

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Questions 97

Which approach involves a continuous cycle of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and mitigating cybersecurity risks?

Options:

A.

Security assessment

B.

Incident response

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Risk management

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Questions 98

An attack in which an attacker listens passively to the authentication protocol to capture information that can be used in a subsequent active attack to masquerade as the claimant is known as:

Options:

A.

Eavesdropping attack

B.

CSRF

C.

XSS

D.

ARP spoofing

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Questions 99

After an earthquake disrupts business operations, which document contains the reactive procedures required to return business to normal operations?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Business Impact Plan

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Questions 100

Scans networks to determine connected devices and services:

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Wireshark

C.

Fiddler

D.

Zenmap

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Questions 101

What is the purpose of non-repudiation in information security?

Options:

A.

To ensure data is always accessible when needed

B.

To protect data from unauthorized access

C.

To prevent the sender or recipient of a message from denying having sent or received the message

D.

To ensure data is accurate and unchanged

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Questions 102

Which access control method uses attributes and rules evaluated by a central Policy Decision Point (PDP)?

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

RBAC

C.

MAC

D.

ABAC

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Questions 103

What is the primary purpose of a honeytoken in cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

To lure and detect attackers

B.

To encrypt sensitive data

C.

To enhance network performance

D.

To manage user access

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Questions 104

Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad network access

B.

Rapid elasticity

C.

Measured service

D.

All

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Questions 105

What kind of control is it when we add a backup firewall that takes over if the main one stops working?

Options:

A.

Clustering

B.

High availability (HA)

C.

Load balancing

D.

Component redundancy

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Questions 106

A LAN-based attack involving malicious packets sent to the default gateway:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Ping of death

D.

Trojan

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Questions 107

What is the difference between Business Continuity Planning (BCP) and Disaster Recovery Planning (DRP)?

Options:

A.

BCP restores IT systems, DRP maintains business functions

B.

DRP restores IT and communications, BCP maintains critical business functions

C.

They are the same

D.

BCP only applies before disasters

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Questions 108

Configuration settings or parameters stored as data and managed through a GUI are examples of:

Options:

A.

Logical access control

B.

Physical access control

C.

Administrative access control

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Questions 109

Who should participate in creating a Business Continuity Plan?

Options:

A.

Management only

B.

IT only

C.

Finance only

D.

Members across the organization

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Questions 110

What is the first step in incident response planning?

Options:

A.

Develop a management-approved policy

B.

Identify critical systems

C.

Train staff

D.

Form the IR team

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Questions 111

Example of Type 1 authentication:

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Smart card

C.

Fingerprint

D.

RSA token

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Questions 112

Which of the following is often associated with Disaster Recovery planning?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Antivirus

C.

Firewalls

D.

All

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Questions 113

A measure of an organization’s baseline security performance is a:

Options:

A.

Security assessment

B.

Security audit

C.

Security benchmark

D.

Security management

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Questions 114

Restoring IT and communications after a disruption is the goal of:

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

None

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Questions 115

Which is NOT a possible model for an Incident Response Team (IRT)?

Options:

A.

Leveraged

B.

Dedicated

C.

Hybrid

D.

Outsourced

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Questions 116

In which cloud model does the customer have theleast responsibilityover infrastructure?

Options:

A.

FaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 117

In which access control model can the creator of an object delegate permissions?

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

RBAC

C.

ABAC

D.

DAC

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Questions 118

What is the main purpose of creating a baseline for system integrity?

Options:

A.

To compare baseline with current system state

B.

To protect information

C.

To understand current state

D.

All

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Questions 119

Which cloud service model provides the most suitable environment for customers to build and operate their own software?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

PaaS

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Questions 120

A way to prevent unwanted devices from connecting to a network is:

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

VPN

C.

VLAN

D.

NAC

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Exam Code: CC
Exam Name: CC - Certified in Cybersecurity
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 403
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