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4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the purpose of the Data Link Layer in the OSI model?

Options:

A.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into a frame for transmission on the transmission media.

B.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for encapsulating the packet into an IP header and routing the packet.

C.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for formatting the packet for applications such as JPEG format.

D.

The Data Link Layer is responsible for timing of the signals on the transmission media

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Questions 5

Which of the following best describes a repeater?

Options:

A.

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. It does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

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Questions 6

Which is the public AS in the diagram?

Options:

A.

65001

B.

65003

C.

2002

D.

All of the above.

E.

None of the above.

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Questions 7

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 8

Which of the following fields is not a field in the TCP header used for the establishment and termination of a TCP connection?

Options:

A.

TTL

B.

ACK

C.

FIN

D.

SYN

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Questions 9

Which of the following is NOT a function of the control plane?

Options:

A.

Building routing tables using dynamic routing protocols.

B.

Building forwarding tables for the IOMs.

C.

Handling router configuration and management functions.

D.

Processing and forwarding user application traffic.

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Questions 10

On what type of device is a Service Access Point (SAP) defined?

Options:

A.

On the CE device.

B.

On the PE device.

C.

On the P device.

D.

On both CE and PE devices.

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Questions 11

What problem was Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) primarily designed to solve?

Options:

A.

Broadcast storms caused by redundancy in Layer 2 networks.

B.

Missing protocol field in the Ethernet header.

C.

Missing sequence number in the Ethernet header.

D.

Unreliable data transfer in Layer 2 networks.

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Questions 12

Which of the following is part of the IP forwarding process?

Options:

A.

The router does a longest prefix match lookup.

B.

The router checks the source address in the MAC FDB.

C.

The router assigns a cost to each of its interfaces.

D.

The router advertises routes to its neighbors.

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Questions 13

What types of addresses are part of encapsulation at the transport layer?

Options:

A.

Source and destination MAC addresses

B.

Source and destination IP addresses

C.

Source and destination port numbers

D.

Source and destination email addresses

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Questions 14

Which of the following describes an IP filter on the Nokia 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

An IP filter is used to discard packets with checksum errors.

B.

An IP filter can allow IP packets into a network or deny IP packets from entering a network.

C.

Multiple ingress and egress filter policies can be applied to a network interface.

D.

Once an IP filter is applied, it cannot be modified.

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Questions 15

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

Options:

A.

There is no broadcast address on the network.

B.

The address is only used as a loopback address.

C.

This specifies a single host address.

D.

The address is only used for router IDs.

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Questions 16

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.2.0/24 installed in router 1's routing table?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

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Questions 17

Which of the following best describes a hub?

Options:

A.

A device used to connect cables with signal amplification.

B.

A device that receives and replicates data without Layer 2 header inspection.

C.

A device that receives and forwards data based on the MAC destination address.

D.

A device that receives and forwards data based on the Layer 3 destination address.

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Questions 18

Which of the MPLS routers is responsible for pushing new labels for LSP A and LSP B?

Options:

A.

Router R1 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP B.

B.

Router R4 pushes labels for both LSP A and LSP B.

C.

Router R1 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R4 pushes labels for LSP B.

D.

Router R4 pushes labels for LSP A, while router R1 pushes labels for LSP B.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is a characteristic of Link State protocols?

Options:

A.

Routers send a copy of their entire routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers send frequent periodic updates to the entire network.

C.

Routers know the entire network topology.

D.

Routers use hop-count to calculate their routing tables.

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements about IP address subnetting is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Subnetting adds a layer of hierarchy in the addressing structure.

B.

Subnetting helps routers make faster forwarding decisions.

C.

Subnetting increases routing advertisement stability.

D.

Subnetting reduces the number of route entries advertised by the router.

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Questions 21

Which of the following statements about router R3 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R3 is the iLER for LSP B.

B.

Router R3 is the eLER for LSP A.

C.

Router R is an LSR for both LSP A and LSP B.

D.

Router R3 is LSR for LSP A and an LER for LSP B.

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Questions 22

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system IP address?

Options:

A.

It is used as a L3 broadcast address.

B.

It is a logical interface address.

C.

It can have any prefix value.

D.

It is used for layer-2 forwarding.

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Questions 23

Which tier of Internet service providers provides transit services to other ISPs?

Options:

A.

Tier 1 and Tier 2 ISPs

B.

Tier 1 and Tier 3 ISPs

C.

Tier 2 and Tier 3 ISPs

D.

Tier 3 ISP

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Questions 24

Which of the following describes a default route?

Options:

A.

It is used when forwarding control plane data to the local CPM.

B.

It is used when there is no other known route for a given packet’s destination.

C.

It matches a specific /32 host address with the least cost to the destination.

D.

It is used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

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Questions 25

Which statement describes the primary purpose of TCP?

Options:

A.

To establish reliable communication for the application services layer.

B.

To provide low overhead communication for the application services layer.

C.

To route IP packets for the application services layer.

D.

To transmit packets over the physical infrastructure.

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Questions 26

Which of the following egress interfaces is used to forward a packet with destination IP address 140.10.0.110?

Options:

A.

System interface

B.

Interface “toC1”

C.

Interface “toP1”

D.

Interface “toP2”

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Questions 27

Which two protocols are used for the dynamic signaling of MPLS labels (Choose two.)?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE

B.

CSPF

C.

PNNI

D.

LDP

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Questions 28

Which device is responsible for removing the MPLS label before the packet reaches the CE device?

Options:

A.

The CE device removes the MPLS label.

B.

The last LSR on the LSP removes the MPLS label.

C.

MPLS labels are not removed until they reach the final destination.

D.

The egress LER removes the MPLS label.

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Questions 29

Which of the following best describes the function of the service label?

Options:

A.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

B.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies which transport tunnel to use.

C.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the egress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

D.

Customer traffic is encapsulated with a service label by the ingress PE. The service label identifies the specific service the data belongs to.

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Questions 30

What is the function of the Routing Table Manager?

Options:

A.

Based on the metrics of the routing protocol, find the best path to the destination network and install it in the routing table.

B.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the operator to configure the dynamic routing protocol on the router.

C.

Based on the routing protocol preference values, chose the route with the lowest preference and install it in the routing table.

D.

Provide a CLI interface to allow the network operator to install static routes in the routing table.

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Questions 31

Which of the following protocols belongs to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OSPF

B.

BGP

C.

X.500

D.

IS-IS

E.

Ethernet

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Questions 32

Which of the following best describes an autonomous system?

Options:

A.

An autonomous system is a network or group of networks operating under one administrative authority.

B.

An autonomous system is another term for the collection of routers that make up the Internet

C.

An autonomous system is a network or group of networks from many organizations running different IGP routing protocols, but all running BGP.

D.

An autonomous system is a loosely defined term that can refer to any organization that has a connection to the Internet.

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Questions 33

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Options:

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.

C.

A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Questions 34

Multiple SAPs may be defined on the same physical port and may be used for different services.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 35

In the diagram, R7 receives a new LSA from R3 and installs it in its link state database. 10 ms. later it receives another copy of the LSA with the same sequence number from R8. What does R7 do with the LSA received from R8?

Options:

A.

R7 silently discards the LSA received from R8.

B.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database and floods a copy to its neighbors.

C.

R7 discards the LSA received from R8 and sends an ACK to R8.

D.

R7 installs the LSA received from R8 in its link state database, sends an ACK to R8 and floods a copy to its neighbors.

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Questions 36

A CE device has a physical connection to which device in the service providers MPLS network?

Options:

A.

CE always connects to a PE router.

B.

CE always connects to a P router.

C.

CE always connects to another CE device.

D.

The CE does not connect to the service provider network.

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Questions 37

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 38

How does LDP select the path used for an LSP?

Options:

A.

LDP monitors the available bandwidth on all links and signals the LSP based on this information.

B.

LDP uses the shortest hop-count between two endpoints for the LSP.

C.

LDP must be configured hop-by-hop by the service provider.

D.

LDP follows the path chosen by the IGP.

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Questions 39

The sequence numbers are used by TCP to ensure that the data receive is provided to the application in the correct order.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 40

Public IP addresses are globally coordinated by which organization?

Options:

A.

Network Solutions INC

B.

IANA

C.

IETF

D.

ITU-T

E.

IEEE

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Questions 41

Which of the following Ethernet rates requires an optical cable to operate?

Options:

A.

10 Mb/s Ethernet.

B.

100 Mb/s Ethernet.

C.

1000 Mb/s Ethernet .

D.

There are copper and optical versions possible for all of these Ethernet data rates.

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Questions 42

Which of the following user interface sessions are accessible through Telnet and Secure Shell (SSH) on the Nokia 7750 SR and 7450 ESS?

Options:

A.

Graphic User Interface (GUI).

B.

Node Management Terminal Interface (NMTI).

C.

Command Line Interface (CLI).

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 43

What information is used to separate VLANs on a VLAN trunk that connects multiple VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN tag.

B.

IP Header.

C.

FCS.

D.

Priority Value.

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Questions 44

The method by which Ethernet frames are associated to a specific VLAN is referred to as:

Options:

A.

Segmenting

B.

Stacking

C.

Routing

D.

Tagging

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Questions 45

Click the Exhibit Button below:

An Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN) consists of the components shown in the diagram below:

How many broadcast and collision domains are on this LAN?

Options:

A.

9 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

B.

3 broadcast domains, 3 collision domains.

C.

3 broadcast domains, 9 collision domains.

D.

1 broadcast domain, 9 collision domains.

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a characteristic of the system address?

Options:

A.

A physical interface address.

B.

A logical address on the router not corresponding to any specific interface.

C.

May have any prefix value.

D.

A management IP address.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Controls distribution of IP addresses.

B.

Simplifies protocol functionality.

C.

Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.

D.

Increases protocol operational efficiencies.

E.

Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

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Questions 48

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 49

Address summarization reduces the routing table size by:

Options:

A.

Allowing a contiguous block of network addresses to be represented by one network prefix.

B.

Increasing the number of addresses in the routing table.

C.

Summarizing addresses in the network into smaller routing tables.

D.

Not advertising directly connected routes.

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Questions 50

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Layer 2 protocol?

Options:

A.

POS

B.

IP

C.

ATM

D.

Frame Relay

E.

Ethernet

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Questions 51

Which of the following is a feature of a VLAN?

Options:

A.

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single broadcast domain.

B.

A VLAN allows multiple Ethernet switches to be connected in a single collision domain.

C.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different broadcast domains.

D.

A VLAN can separate ports on the same switch into different collision domains.

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Questions 52

What happens immediately after an Ethernet switch receives an Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

It records the destination MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

B.

It records the source MAC address and the interface on which it arrived.

C.

It floods the frame out of all its interfaces except the interface on which the frame arrived.

D.

It transmits the frame out of the appropriate interface.

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: May 7, 2024
Questions: 352
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