220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution”.

This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett’s All-in-One Guide:

“Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report”.

The Local Users and Groups Manager (lusrmgr.msc) is the utility for managing user accounts, including renaming the default Administrator.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide :

“The lusrmgr.msc snap-in allows renaming and managing local user accounts, including the default administrator.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Zero-day vulnerability refers to a security flaw in software or hardware that is unknown to the vendor or has not yet been patched. If this vulnerability is exploited before the vendor has issued a fix or patch, it becomes a Zero-day exploit. These attacks are highly dangerous because they take advantage of the absence of defenses due to the lack of awareness or mitigation options.

A. Spoofing is a form of impersonation, not necessarily tied to unpatched vulnerabilities.

B. Brute-force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials and are not related to software flaws.

C. DoS (Denial of Service) attacks are meant to overwhelm systems and don ' t necessarily exploit unknown vulnerabilities.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Credential managers or password vaults (e.g., Windows Credential Manager, KeePass, or LastPass) store passwords securely. The integrity of such tools heavily depends on the strength of the master password protecting the vault. If compromised, all saved credentials could be exposed. Therefore, setting a secure master password is crucial.

A. Login time restrictions are general user account settings, not specific to credential managers.

C. TPM is used more commonly for full disk encryption, not specifically required for password managers.

D. The lock screen protects general access but does not protect stored credentials alone.

To prevent unauthorized physical access to a mobile device, the company must ensure the device locks quickly and requires an authentication factor before anyone can use it. PIN authentication directly blocks access by requiring a passcode to unlock the device—Quentin Docter lists PIN lock as one of the primary “screen lock” methods used to secure mobile devices, explaining it as the most common unlock method (typically 4–6 digits, sometimes alphanumeric).

Screen timeout (auto-lock) reduces the window in which an unattended phone remains usable; the All-in-One guide notes that systems can be set to an automatic timeout and screen lock, requiring credentials after a short period of inactivity. Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual reinforces that you should “protect your data from access by putting a good screen lock on the device,” and that these locks commonly require a password/PIN/pattern/biometric to regain access after locking.

Hotspots, VPN, antivirus, and location services are valuable, but they do not primarily stop someone holding the device from opening it and accessing data.

The correct answers are D. Use PIN authentication and F. Enable screen timeout , because both controls directly protect a mobile device from unauthorized physical access . Physical access controls are designed to prevent someone from using a device if it is lost, stolen, or left unattended.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , mobile device security begins with lock-screen controls , such as PINs, passwords, biometrics, and automatic locking mechanisms. A PIN authentication requirement ensures that even if an attacker physically possesses the device, they cannot access its contents without the correct credentials.

The guide further explains that screen timeout (automatic locking after inactivity) is a critical security feature. Without it, a device left unattended—even briefly—could be accessed by unauthorized individuals. Enabling a short timeout greatly reduces this risk.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide reinforces that VPNs and antivirus software protect data in transit and against malware , not physical access. Likewise, disabling hotspots and enabling location services are management or tracking features, not access prevention mechanisms.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual emphasizes that physical security controls focus on preventing interaction with the device itself , making PIN authentication and automatic screen locking the most effective measures.

Therefore, D and F are the correct answers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) is software that a user may not have knowingly installed. It often gets bundled with legitimate software and installs without full disclosure. PUPs can affect performance, change system settings, or display unwanted ads but are not necessarily malicious like viruses or ransomware.

A. Viruses replicate and spread; they are generally more harmful and not " bundled " in the same way.

B. Ransomware encrypts files for payment and is deliberately malicious.

D. A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to perform malicious actions but is not typically pre-bundled by legitimate publishers.

Antivirus/antimalware detection depends heavily on its definitions/signatures . If those are outdated, new malware variants may not be recognized. Quentin Docter explains that the “definitions database” is a core antivirus component and that its effectiveness depends on “the frequency of updates and the comprehensiveness of the database signatures.” He adds that new signatures are discovered frequently and added to the database, meaning stale definitions leave gaps.

Docter is also explicit that security software “is not perfect” and that malware may get around it, “especially a new threat (and especially if you haven’t updated your definitions lately).” That statement directly matches this scenario: the software exists, but it failed to detect the infection—most likely because the detection data wasn’t current.

The other answers don’t fit as well: folder permissions and user permissions can limit what malware can change, but they don’t explain why security software didn’t detect it . Port security relates to network access control, not local signature detection. Therefore, Outdated definitions (B) is the best explanation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Authenticator apps (e.g., Microsoft Authenticator, Google Authenticator, Duo) often support push notifications. When the user logs in, the app sends a push to their mobile device, prompting the user to approve or deny the authentication request — a common and user-friendly form of multi-factor authentication (MFA).

A. Phone call verification is a separate method involving voice-based confirmation.

C. Hardware tokens generate one-time codes but do not send push notifications.

D. SMS sends a text message with a code — again, no push mechanism.

The correct answer is C. Listen to the customer’s concerns and acknowledge their frustrations , because effective communication and empathy are critical components of professional help desk interactions—especially when customers are upset.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , technicians should always demonstrate active listening, empathy, and professionalism. Acknowledging a user’s frustration helps de-escalate tense situations and builds trust.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that users who feel unheard are less cooperative and more dissatisfied. Before troubleshooting or escalation, technicians should validate the customer’s experience and reassure them that the issue will be addressed.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that blaming previous technicians or immediately escalating without communication can worsen the situation. Asking technical questions too early may come across as dismissive.

Because the goal is to communicate professionally and effectively , the technician should first listen and acknowledge the user’s frustration, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) , which is designed to provide holistic security visibility across endpoints, networks, servers, cloud workloads, and email systems . Unlike traditional endpoint-only solutions, XDR correlates data from multiple security layers to detect and respond to advanced threats.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , XDR expands upon EDR by integrating telemetry from network traffic, firewalls, identity systems, and cloud platforms. This enables detection of threats that move laterally or originate outside a single host.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that XDR is specifically designed to detect attacks that bypass endpoint protections by analyzing network-level behavior , command-and-control traffic, and cross-system activity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual contrasts XDR with other options: RADIUS is an authentication protocol, UAC is a local Windows privilege control, and antivirus focuses only on known malware signatures at the host level. None of those provide network-wide visibility and coordinated response.

Because the question explicitly mentions traffic outside the host and at the network level , XDR is the only technology designed to meet that requirement, making C the correct answer.

If the PC can ping the domain controller by IP , basic connectivity exists. Domain join, however, depends heavily on name resolution (finding the domain and locating domain services), so incorrect DNS is the most likely cause. Mike Meyers explains a key diagnostic pattern: when you ping a URL/name and get “could not find host,” the system “can’t get an IP address for that Web site,” which “points to a DNS failure.” This same logic applies to domains: if the client can reach the DC by IP but can’t properly resolve domain names/services, the join fails.

Quentin Docter reinforces that one of the “key things” for TCP/IP to work effectively is that “a hostname must resolve to an IP address—an action usually performed by a DNS server,” and he highlights nslookup as a tool to verify DNS server entries.

Firewall issues could block some traffic, but the clue “ping by IP works” points away from total network blockage. IPv6 enabled is normal, and “not connected” contradicts successful ping. Therefore, DNS settings are incorrect (A) .

The correct answer is A. SOP (Standard Operating Procedure) because SOPs are specifically designed to document roles, responsibilities, workflows, and support expectations for systems and applications within an organization. When deploying a new application, clear documentation is essential to ensure consistent support, escalation, maintenance, and troubleshooting.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide defines SOPs as formal documents that outline who performs specific tasks, how tasks are performed, and when escalation is required . SOPs are commonly used by IT departments to standardize support processes and ensure continuity, especially when multiple technicians or teams are involved.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SOPs are a key component of operational maturity , ensuring that support staff understand their responsibilities and follow approved procedures when responding to incidents or service requests related to an application.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that documents such as NDAs focus on confidentiality, EULAs define usage rights for end users, and DRM is a technical mechanism—not a documentation framework. None of those options describe internal support roles.

Because the scenario explicitly mentions documenting roles and responsibilities , the correct and intended document type is a Standard Operating Procedure , making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Content filtering allows administrators to block or allow access to websites based on categories (e.g., social media, adult content, streaming). On a SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) router, this is often built-in or available via DNS-level filtering, and is the most appropriate method for enforcing browsing policies without needing to touch each individual device.

A. Secure management access protects router admin interfaces but doesn’t control user browsing.

B. Group Policy Editor is a Windows tool, not used on routers.

D. A firewall can block specific IPs or ports, but it doesn ' t categorize web content.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

The correct answer is C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) , because RDP is the default remote access technology for Windows servers . It allows technicians to remotely connect to the graphical desktop environment of a Windows server to verify services, logs, and system status.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , RDP is built into Windows operating systems and is commonly used by administrators to manage Windows servers and workstations. It provides full access to the desktop, making it ideal for checking whether services such as IIS (Internet Information Services) are running properly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while SSH is commonly used for Linux and network devices, Windows servers typically rely on RDP for administrative access. VNC is a third-party remote desktop solution and is not enabled by default on Windows systems.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SPICE is primarily used in virtualized environments and is not a standard Windows remote access tool.

Because the technician needs to verify a Windows web server’s operational status using a built-in method, RDP is the most appropriate and likely technology, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Group Policyis the standard administrative tool for enforcing security and configuration settings across domain-joined systems, including disabling guest accounts.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Disabling guest accounts and applying consistent security policies across multiple machines is best achieved through Group Policy on a Windows domain.”

The correct answers are C. GPT and E. NTFS . The GUID Partition Table (GPT) partitioning scheme is required because it supports more than four primary partitions and disks larger than 2TB. Since the SSD is 4TB and requires at least five primary partitions, MBR is not suitable.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide , MBR is limited to four primary partitions and a maximum disk size of 2TB. GPT removes these limitations and is required for modern systems using UEFI firmware, including Windows 11.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that Windows installations on large disks should use GPT in combination with NTFS, which is the preferred Windows file system due to its support for large files, permissions, encryption, and reliability features.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that FAT16 cannot support large volumes, XFS is a Linux file system, and APFS is designed for Apple systems. None of these are appropriate for a Windows 11 installation.

Because the requirement involves disk size, partition count, and Windows compatibility , the correct combination is GPT for partitioning and NTFS for the file system, making C and E the correct answers.

Removing users from the local admin group prevents them from installing unauthorized software.

From Quentin Docter – Complete Study Guide :

“Local admin privileges allow users to install unauthorized apps. Removing them from this group restricts installations and helps prevent malware.” .

A low-cost home lab for practicing server management and scripting strongly points to Linux because it is widely available at no cost and is designed to support many server-style workloads. The All-in-One guide states plainly: “ Linux is a popular, free, open source operating system ,” and notes that there are many distributions (distros), giving flexibility for different needs. Quentin Docter adds key context about Linux’s purpose: Linus Torvalds created it as “ a completely open source operating system for the world to use… completely free for anyone to use ,” and highlights that many Linux distributions exist today.

From a cost standpoint, Docter’s licensing section defines open source as “ not only… free, but the source code… is also shared ,” and explicitly lists “ OSs such as Linux ” as open source examples. This directly supports “low-cost.”

Finally, Linux is a common target environment for real server administration and scripting practice (shell tools, package repositories, services), making it the best match versus ChromeOS/macOS/Windows for this lab goal.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Disk optimization tools can sometimes corrupt theMaster Boot Record (MBR). If BIOS sees the drive but can ' t boot, repairing the MBR using installation media is the correct next step.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When BIOS recognizes the drive but no OS is found, the issue is often with the boot record. Use installation media to access recovery tools and repair the MBR or boot loader.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

FAT32cannot support files larger than 4GB.NTFSsupports large file sizes and is compatible across Windows systems, making it the correct choice for transferring a 4.57GB file.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTFS is the preferred file system for large file transfers within Windows. FAT32 has a 4GB file size limit, which makes it unsuitable for modern use cases involving large files.”

Before deploying an application update broadly, best practice is to test it in an isolated environment to avoid breaking production systems. The All-in-One guide defines sandbox testing clearly: “a sandbox is a place where you can experiment without messing up the primary system,” typically a virtualized environment, and it “entails checking out new and updated applications without putting the systems and data you depend on at risk.” That directly aligns with rolling out a new application update across the organization.

Mike Meyers’ Lab Manual repeats the same concept: sandbox testing uses an isolated environment and snapshots to test changes safely before production deployment. It’s positioned as a documented business process within change-management best practices, reinforcing why it comes early—before impact spreads.

A backup/rollback plan is important too, but the question asks for the first step when applying a new update to everyone. Testing first helps identify compatibility issues, installation failures, and side effects early—so you don’t deploy a bad update at scale. Therefore, Sandbox testing (C) is correct.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An in-place upgrade is the fastest and most efficient way to upgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 11 while keeping all user data, applications, and settings intact. This method is often used when the hardware meets Windows 11 requirements and no system reconfiguration is necessary.

A. gpupdate is used to refresh Group Policy settings — unrelated to OS upgrades.

B. Image deployment typically replaces the current OS and may not retain user data unless specifically customized.

C. A clean install requires formatting the drive and starting fresh, which removes all data.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Most public Wi-Fi networks requireinteraction with a captive portal(e.g., terms of use or login). Dismissing it prevents the user from gaining internet access. Reconnecting and completing the portal page is essential.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Many public hotspots require user acknowledgment or login via a captive portal. Skipping this step results in no internet access.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Remote wipeis a mobile device management (MDM) feature that allows administrators to erase data remotely if a device is lost or stolen, preventing unauthorized access to corporate or personal information.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Remote wipe features enable a device to be cleared of all sensitive data if it is lost or stolen. This is one of the most effective ways to prevent unauthorized access to corporate resources.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the best tool to analyze the root cause of service failures in Windows. It provides detailed logs from system processes, including errors, warnings, and crash reports related to services and applications. When a service starts and stops unexpectedly, Event Viewer will often record the cause, such as dependency failures or access violations.

B. Task Manager shows active processes but doesn ' t retain logs or causes of failure.

C. Internet Options is used for configuring browser settings, not troubleshooting services.

D. Process Explorer is powerful but more suited for live monitoring and detailed process trees, not post-failure log analysis.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Highmemory usage (97%)suggests the system is overloaded with active processes. The technician should close unneeded applications to free up RAM and improve performance.

FromMike Meyers ' Lab Manual:

“When memory usage is near capacity, close all non-essential programs. This can dramatically improve response time without needing hardware upgrades.”

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

> Select reply: " I am happy to assist you today. "

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

> Select reply: " Is this the first router in your office? "

Third Chat Response:After learning it ' s a replacement router and the user is logged into the router ' s web page:

> Select reply: " The first thing you need to do is change the default password. "

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

> Select reply: " Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character. "

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

> Select reply: " Yes, reboot please. "

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS , which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x )

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“ A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources. ”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease . After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment ( Output.txt ) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x ) and a valid gateway/DNS.

1st CLI Resolution

copy " C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll " " User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32 " /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-

A screenshot of a computer AI-