220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Questions and Answers

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Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

End-user education is crucial after malware removal to prevent recurrence. Teaching safe browsing habits and security awareness completes the remediation cycle.

Mark Soper – Mike Meyers' Lab Manualstates:

“Educating the user after malware remediation is part of the CompTIA malware response methodology. This includes training on phishing and safe practices.”

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To allow Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) access, the firewall must be configured to allow inbound connections on TCP port 3389. If the Windows Firewall blocks RDP, users will not be able to connect remotely even if the feature is enabled in system settings.

B. Computer Management allows configuration of services and local users, but not network access.

C. User Accounts is for account setup and control, but enabling remote access requires firewall configuration.

D. Ease of Access is unrelated to remote connectivity—it’s for accessibility features.

The correct answer is D. cp, which is a core Linux command used to copy files and directories. File management in Linux is performed primarily through command-line utilities, and cp is one of the most fundamental commands for this purpose.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Linux administrators frequently use commands such as cp, mv, rm, and ls to manage files. The cp command allows users to copy files between directories or locations and supports options for recursive copying and permission preservation.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide highlights that Linux file management commands differ significantly from Windows equivalents. While Windows uses robocopy and xcopy, Linux relies on simpler, built-in commands like cp.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further explains that curl is used for transferring data over network protocols, not for managing local files. Commands such as robocopy and xcopy are Windows-specific and not available in standard Linux environments.

Because the question asks specifically about managing files in Linux, and cp is a native Linux file-management command, D is the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Remote wipeis a mobile device management (MDM) feature that allows administrators to erase data remotely if a device is lost or stolen, preventing unauthorized access to corporate or personal information.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Remote wipe features enable a device to be cleared of all sensitive data if it is lost or stolen. This is one of the most effective ways to prevent unauthorized access to corporate resources.”

The correct answer is A. .app, because macOS applications packaged as .app files are typically self-contained application bundles. This means that all required application files are stored within a single directory that appears as one file in Finder. When the .app file is moved to the Trash, the application is effectively removed from the system.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, macOS applications are commonly distributed as .app bundles, allowing for simple installation and removal. This design contrasts with Windows, where applications often install files across multiple directories and require uninstallers.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that dragging a .app file to the Trash is generally sufficient to uninstall the software, although some applications may leave behind preference files or caches. However, from an exam perspective, .app is the only option that supports this uninstall behavior.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that .msi and .exe are Windows formats, .rpm is used by Linux package managers, and .pkg installers often install system-wide components that require a formal uninstallation process.

Because .app files support simple drag-to-trash uninstallation, A is the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. Reinstalling the application, because the issue appears to be application-specific rather than system-wide. The problem only affects one game, the operating system is fully updated, and there are no storage constraints. These indicators strongly suggest corrupted application data or a faulty app installation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, when a single application crashes repeatedly, the first recommended troubleshooting step is to remove and reinstall the app. This clears corrupted files, resets application settings, and ensures the latest compatible version is installed.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that factory resets should only be used as a last resort, as they are disruptive and erase user data. Disabling background applications may help performance issues but does not typically resolve persistent crashes tied to one specific app.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that date and time misconfiguration usually affects authentication or certificate validation, not game stability.

Because the symptoms are isolated to a single application and basic system factors have already been ruled out, reinstalling the application is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step, making A the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) apps, especially time-based one-time password (TOTP) apps (e.g., Google Authenticator, Authy), rely on accurate time synchronization between the device and the authentication server. If the user recently traveled internationally, the device may have incorrect date/time settings due to time zone changes or failed synchronization, leading to MFA failure.

The most logical and non-intrusive first step is to verify and correct the date and time settings. This aligns with basic troubleshooting principles—start with the simplest and most likely cause before taking more drastic action.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Older tablets may not support newer app versions due toincompatible or unsupported operating systems. App developers often drop support for outdated OS versions.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“When an app won't install on an older device, check the OS version. Most apps require a minimum OS level for compatibility and security.”

The correct answer is D. Hide extensions, because Windows File Explorer hides known file extensions by default, which can cause confusion when renaming files. When extensions are hidden, a user may unknowingly change only the visible filename and not the actual file extension.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that Windows uses file extensions to determine file type associations. If file extensions are hidden, renaming a file from Document.txt to Document.xml may actually result in Document.xml.txt, even though only Document.xml is displayed.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide states that to properly change a file’s extension, users must enable “File name extensions” in File Explorer. This allows the user to see and modify the true extension, ensuring the operating system recognizes the correct file type.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that options such as indexing, personalization, or formatting do not affect how Windows interprets file types. Only visibility of file extensions allows accurate renaming.

Therefore, disabling the “Hide extensions for known file types” setting is required to correctly change the file type, making D the correct answer.

The correct answer is B. SSID configuration, because controlling SSID visibility and behavior directly affects which wireless networks devices can see and attempt to join. In shared office environments, multiple Wi-Fi networks may be present, increasing the risk of users accidentally connecting to the wrong network.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSIDs define how wireless networks are advertised and discovered. By modifying SSID settings—such as disabling broadcast or restricting auto-join behavior—technicians can prevent devices from attempting to connect to unauthorized or unintended networks.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that MDM solutions often preconfigure approved wireless profiles. Adjusting SSID configuration ensures devices only recognize and connect to sanctioned networks, reducing accidental associations and security risks.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that IP filtering, content filtering, and port forwarding are network traffic control mechanisms. They do not prevent a device from seeing or attempting to connect to nearby Wi-Fi networks.

Because the goal is to prevent accidental Wi-Fi access, not filter traffic after connection, modifying SSID configuration is the correct and most effective solution.

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Linux is an open-source operating system that is freely available and does not require traditional licensing fees. It is highly versatile and scalable, making it suitable for both workstations and servers. Many enterprise environments use Linux to reduce software costs and benefit from robust server features.

B. Windows requires per-device or per-user licensing for both workstation and server editions.

C. macOS is proprietary and limited to Apple hardware with licensing restrictions.

D. Chrome OS is designed for lightweight devices and lacks server functionality.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Most public Wi-Fi networks requireinteraction with a captive portal(e.g., terms of use or login). Dismissing it prevents the user from gaining internet access. Reconnecting and completing the portal page is essential.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Many public hotspots require user acknowledgment or login via a captive portal. Skipping this step results in no internet access.”

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An "OS Not Found" error typically indicates that the computer is attempting to boot from a drive that doesn't contain a valid operating system or bootable partition. The presence of a USB drive might be confusing the boot order. Therefore, the first step a technician should take is to verify and adjust the boot sequence in the system’s firmware (BIOS or UEFI). It's possible that the USB drive is being prioritized over the internal hard drive, which may cause the system to miss the OS entirely.

A. Running data recovery tools is premature before confirming boot order.

B. Repartitioning the disk would destroy existing data—this should not be done until confirmed the OS is actually missing.

D. Switching between UEFI and BIOS (legacy mode) might help in rare cases, but it is not the first step in standard OS boot issue troubleshooting.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A Potentially Unwanted Program (PUP) is software that a user may not have knowingly installed. It often gets bundled with legitimate software and installs without full disclosure. PUPs can affect performance, change system settings, or display unwanted ads but are not necessarily malicious like viruses or ransomware.

A. Viruses replicate and spread; they are generally more harmful and not "bundled" in the same way.

B. Ransomware encrypts files for payment and is deliberately malicious.

D. A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software to perform malicious actions but is not typically pre-bundled by legitimate publishers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Whalingis a form of phishing that targets high-profile individuals or involves pretending to be them (e.g., CEOs) to trick lower-level employees into transferring funds or sensitive data.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Whaling is a phishing tactic targeting executives or masquerading as one. The attacker crafts emails that exploit authority and urgency to manipulate recipients.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

At large events such as music festivals, cellular towers may become congested due to the high volume of users attempting to connect simultaneously. This congestion causes slow or failed data connections, which explains the email application being unable to sync or connect. This is a common real-world mobile connectivity issue in crowded areas.

A. Lack of storage would prevent saving attachments, not prevent connection attempts.

B. Company firewalls usually don’t affect mobile access unless specific device restrictions are enforced.

D. Organizers do not have the ability to block the internet signal; only carriers manage mobile bandwidth.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows 11 features a“Do Not Disturb”mode under Notification settings, which is designed to suppress interruptions during tasks like videoconferencing.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Windows 11 introduces Do Not Disturb and Focus Assist under notification settings, enabling users to mute alerts during presentations or calls.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Windows Helloprovides alternative sign-in options including facial recognition, fingerprint scans, and PINs, reducing dependence on passwords.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“Windows Hello offers a range of biometric and PIN-based login methods designed to simplify access while enhancing security.”

“It can be used in place of a password, ideal for users who frequently forget credentials.”

The correct answer is B. The SATA HDD power cable is disconnected, because RAM upgrades require opening the case, which can easily result in accidentally loosening or disconnecting internal cables. If the system cannot detect the boot drive, it will display a “No boot device found” error.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, one of the first troubleshooting steps after hardware changes is to verify that all internal cables—especially SATA data and power cables—are securely connected. A disconnected drive will not be detected by the BIOS or UEFI firmware.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that boot order changes are less likely unless the technician explicitly modified BIOS settings. Similarly, reformatting a drive would not occur during a RAM upgrade.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that physical connection issues are among the most common causes of boot failures following hardware maintenance. A disconnected power cable prevents the hard drive from spinning up, making it invisible to the system.

Because the issue appeared immediately after opening the case for a RAM upgrade, the most likely cause is a disconnected SATA power cable, making B the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

The correct answer is C. man, which stands for manual. The man command is used in Linux and UNIX-based operating systems to display the official documentation for commands, configuration files, and system calls. This documentation includes descriptions, syntax, available options, and usage examples.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that Linux relies heavily on built-in documentation accessible from the command line. The man pages are considered the authoritative reference for how a command works and what options it supports. For example, running man cp displays documentation for the file copy command.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that learning to use man is essential for Linux administration and troubleshooting. Unlike graphical help systems, man pages are always available locally and do not require internet access.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that chmod changes file permissions, cat displays file contents, and sudo allows commands to be run with elevated privileges. None of these commands provide documentation about other commands.

Because the question specifically asks about reading another command’s documentation, the Linux command designed for that exact purpose is man, making C the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The user’s issue likely stems from amobile data restriction or cap, especially since uploads work on Wi-Fi but not cellular. Checkingdata usage limitswill help determine if mobile uploads are blocked.

FromAll-in-One Exam Guide:

“When data-intensive functions fail on mobile networks but not on Wi-Fi, it’s often due to data caps or metered connection limits.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An incident report documents key details such as the cause of the outage, steps taken to resolve it, and measures to prevent recurrence. It is a post-mortem analysis often shared with stakeholders to improve future response.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“An incident report provides a summary of an event that disrupted normal operations and includes a timeline of what occurred, how the issue was diagnosed and fixed, and who was involved in the resolution”.

This is reaffirmed in Travis Everett’s All-in-One Guide:

“Documentation after an incident helps technical teams and management review the situation and learn from it. This is formalized in an incident report”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

In Windows, accessibility tools such as speech recognition are found under the Ease of Access settings. This section includes options for users who require assistive technologies, including screen readers, magnifiers, and voice control interfaces like speech recognition. Setting up speech recognition allows users to control the system and input text using voice commands.

A. Time and Language is for setting regional preferences and language packs.

B. Personalization adjusts themes, backgrounds, and colors.

C. System includes display, storage, notifications, and power settings, but not accessibility tools.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Event Viewer is the primary tool used to investigate system-level errors and logs, including BSODs. When a BSOD occurs, Windows logs the error codes and associated system behavior under “System” logs in Event Viewer. This allows the technician to review crash events, identify error codes (e.g., STOP codes), and pinpoint hardware or driver issues.

B. Performance Monitor is used for real-time performance tracking and trend analysis, not crash logs.

C. System Information displays system specs but not crash logs or events.

D. Device Manager shows device status and driver issues but doesn’t retain error logs related to BSODs.

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process, because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability, the required process is chain of custody, making D the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The issue described—“domain cannot be found” despite the ability to ping the server and access the internet—indicates aDNS resolution problem, not a network connectivity issue. The workstation is currently usingpublic DNS servers (8.8.8.8 and 1.1.1.1)whichcannot resolve internal domain names, such as the ones used in Active Directory environments. To resolve this, the technician needs tochange the DNS settings to point to the internal DNS server, which in most domain setups is thedomain controller itself (likely 192.168.1.10 in this case).

Here’s the breakdown of the incorrect options:

B. Assign a static IP address: The IP is already assigned and functioning; the device can ping and reach the network and internet.

C. Configure a subnet mask: The subnet mask is appropriate for the network range (Class C /24).

D. Update the default gateway: The gateway is valid and allows internet access; this is not the issue.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates must know how to troubleshoot OS-based network configurations, includingproper DNS settings in domain environments.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The correct answer isVNC (Virtual Network Computing). VNC is a graphical desktop-sharing system that uses the Remote Frame Buffer protocol (RFB) to remotely control another computer. It is platform-independent and widely supported on Linux, which makes it ideal for providinginteractive remote support for a Linux-based operating system. It allows the technician not only to view the remote desktop session but also tocontrol it, fulfilling the need to see and interact with the user’s session.

A. VPN(Virtual Private Network) creates a secure tunnel to a network but doesnot provide desktop sharing or session controlby itself.

C. SSH(Secure Shell) provides secure command-line access to Unix/Linux systems but does not offergraphical desktop interaction, which is a requirement in this case.

D. RDP(Remote Desktop Protocol) is primarily a Microsoft protocol, and although it can be made to work on Linux, it isnot natively supported on legacy Linux systems, and thusless suitablethan VNC in this scenario.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Core 2 Objective Reference:

Objective 1.8 – Given a scenario, use features and tools of the operating system.

Under this objective, candidates are expected to be familiar with remote access technologies, includingRDP, SSH, and VNC, and understand their appropriate uses and limitations on different platforms such as Windows and Linux.