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Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Refer to Exhibit.
The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used
Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?
Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.
Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?
Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wireless network running WPA3-Personal mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Refer to the exhibit.
Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
B. 
C. 
D. 
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP address of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.
Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table
How does the switch handle the frame?
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4's LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to me exhibit.
Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
Refer to the exhibit.
To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.
Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer just installed network 10.120.10.0/24. Which configuration must be applied to the R14 router to add the new network to its OSPF routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?
A)
B)
C)
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.
An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)
Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?
Refer to the exhibit. Company A wants to use a RADIUS server to service all user and device authentication attempts with a more secure and granular authentication approach. Not all client devices support dot1x authentication. Which two configuration changes must be made to accomplish the task? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 172.16.32 254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?
Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?
object
value
NO: 346
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?
Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?
A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.
Refer to the exhibit.
What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Exhibit.
The switches are connected via a Cat5 Ethernet cable that was successfully tested. The Interfaces are configured as access ports and are both in a 'down" status. What is the cause of this issue?
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination address of 10.10.10.147?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?
What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?
What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied, the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?
Refer to the exhibit.
How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve.
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the Lo2 interface on the New York router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?
Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.
Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.
Which two practices are recommended for an acceptable security posture in a network? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Refer to the exhibit.
The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)
Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode?
Refer to the exhibit.
What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)
Which group of channels in the 802.11b/g/n/ax 2.4 GHz frequency bands are non-overlapping channels?
Refer to the exhibit. The My_WLAN wireless LAN was configured with WPA2 Layer 2 PSK security. Which additional configuration must the administrator perform to allow users to connect to this WKAN on a different subnet called Data?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
Refer to the exhibit. How will the device handle a packet destined to IP address 100.100.100.100?
Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
TESTED 20 Nov 2025
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).
