Spring Sale 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: clap70

200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B.

Tampered images are used in the security investigation process

C.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

D.

Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process

E.

The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match

Buy Now
Questions 5

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC analyst is examining the Windows security logs of one of the endpoints. What is the possible reason for this event log?

Options:

A.

Brute force attack

B.

Windows failed to audit logs

C.

Malware Attack

D.

System maintenance logs

Buy Now
Questions 6

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

Buy Now
Questions 7

Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

Options:

A.

false negative

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false positive

Buy Now
Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

cross-site scripting

C.

cross-site request forgery

D.

command injection

Buy Now
Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit A penetration tester runs the Nmap scan against the company server to uncover possible vulnerabilities and exploit them Which two elements can the penetration tester identity from the scan results? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UIDs and group identifiers

B.

number of concurrent connections the server can handle

C.

running services and applications

D.

server uptime and internal clock

E.

server purpose and functionality

Buy Now
Questions 10

The SOC team detected an ongoing port scan. After investigation, the team concluded that the scan was targeting the company servers. According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, which step must be assigned to this type of event?

Options:

A.

actions on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

Buy Now
Questions 11

Which element is included in an incident response plan as stated m NIST SP800-617

Options:

A.

security of sensitive information

B.

individual approach to incident response

C.

approval of senior management

D.

consistent threat identification

Buy Now
Questions 12

What is rule-based detection when compared to statistical detection?

Options:

A.

proof of a user's identity

B.

proof of a user's action

C.

likelihood of user's action

D.

falsification of a user's identity

Buy Now
Questions 13

What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

It lowers maintenance costs

B.

It provides a centralized platform

C.

It collects and detects all traffic locally

D.

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

Buy Now
Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit. A security analyst examines Apache web server logs and notices the entries. Which security concern is occurring?

Options:

A.

Someone is attempting to exploit a vulnerability in XMLRPC functionality

B.

An attacker potentially gained shell access to the web server

C.

The web server is experiencing a denial-of-service attack

D.

A brute-force attack is being attempted against common administrative login pages

Buy Now
Questions 15

One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?

Options:

A.

confidentiality, identity, and authorization

B.

confidentiality, integrity, and authorization

C.

confidentiality, identity, and availability

D.

confidentiality, integrity, and availability

Buy Now
Questions 16

Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

load balancing

C.

NAT/PAT

D.

tunneling

Buy Now
Questions 17

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the sender’s address. What does this incident describe?

Options:

A.

brute-force attack

B.

insider attack

C.

shoulder surfing

D.

social engineering

Buy Now
Questions 18

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Base64 encoding

B.

TLS encryption

C.

SHA-256 hashing

D.

ROT13 encryption

Buy Now
Questions 19

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 20

How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?

Options:

A.

Agentless can access the data via API. While agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.

B.

Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs

C.

Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.

D.

Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization

Buy Now
Questions 21

Which technology assures that the information transferred from point A to point B is unaltered and authentic?

Options:

A.

Subject Alternative Name

B.

Trust anchor

C.

Digital certificates

D.

EMV signatures

Buy Now
Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

Which tool was used to generate this data?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

dnstools

C.

firewall

D.

tcpdump

Buy Now
Questions 23

What is the role of indicator of compromise in an investigation?

Options:

A.

It helps answer the question of why the attack took place.

B.

It identifies potentially malicious activity on a system or network.

C.

It is nonforensic data, which is easy to detect.

D.

It describes what and why something happened.

Buy Now
Questions 24

An employee of a company receives an email with an attachment. They notice that this email is from a suspicious source, and they decide not to open the attached file. After further investigation, a security analyst concludes that this file is malware. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does this event belong?

Options:

A.

Weaponization

B.

Installation

C.

Exploitation

D.

Delivery

Buy Now
Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit

An engineer is analyzing DNS response packets that are larger than expected The engineer looks closer and notices a lack of appropriate DNS queries What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijack attack

B.

DNS amplification attack

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

DNS cache poisoning

Buy Now
Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

What should be interpreted from this packet capture?

Options:

A.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using UDP protocol.

B.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using TCP protocol.

C.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using UDP protocol.

D.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using TCP UDP protocol.

Buy Now
Questions 27

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

Buy Now
Questions 28

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst is investigating unusual activity from an unknown IP address Which type of evidence is this file1?

Options:

A.

indirect evidence

B.

best evidence

C.

corroborative evidence

D.

direct evidence

Buy Now
Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer received an event log file to review. Which technology generated the log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

proxy

C.

firewall

D.

IDS/IPS

Buy Now
Questions 31

What technology should be used for the verified and secure exchange of public keys between entities Tom3350050239 and Dan0932353050?

Options:

A.

Initial Key Sharing

B.

Password-Authenticated Key Exchange

C.

Encrypted Key Exchange

D.

Key Encapsulation Mechanism

Buy Now
Questions 32

What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?

Options:

A.

additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients

B.

unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic

C.

deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network

D.

attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network

Buy Now
Questions 33

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.

The ACK flag validates the receipt of the previous packet in the stream, and the same session is being closed by the RST flag.

B.

The ACK flag validates the next packets to be sent to a destination, and the RST flag is what the RST returns to indicate that the destination is reachable.

C.

The RST flag identifies the connection as reliable and trustworthy within the handshake process, and the ACK flag prepares a response by opening a session between the source and destination.

D.

The RST flag establishes the communication, and the ACK flag cancels spontaneous connections that were not specifically sent to the expecting host.

Buy Now
Questions 34

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

Options:

A.

data availability

B.

data normalization

C.

data signature

D.

data protection

Buy Now
Questions 35

At a company party a guest asks questions about the company’s user account format and password complexity. How is this type of conversation classified?

Options:

A.

Phishing attack

B.

Password Revelation Strategy

C.

Piggybacking

D.

Social Engineering

Buy Now
Questions 36

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

Options:

A.

evidence collection order

B.

data integrity

C.

data preservation

D.

volatile data collection

Buy Now
Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit. A communication issue exists between hosts 192.168.0.11 and 34.253.101.190. What is a description of the initial TCP connection?

Options:

A.

Handshake has been established

B.

Fin flag is not set

C.

Reset flag is not set

D.

Acknowledge is not set

Buy Now
Questions 38

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

Options:

A.

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

Buy Now
Questions 39

A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port scanning activity to main HR database servers from one of the HR endpoints via Cisco StealthWatch. What are the two next steps of the SOC team according to the NISTSP800-61 incident handling process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Isolate affected endpoints and take disk images for analysis

B.

Provide security awareness training to HR managers and employees

C.

Block connection to this C&C server on the perimeter next-generation firewall

D.

Update antivirus signature databases on affected endpoints to block connections to C&C

E.

Detect the attack vector and analyze C&C connections

Buy Now
Questions 40

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

any potential danger to an asset

B.

the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment

C.

an exploitable weakness in a system or its design

D.

the individuals who perform an attack

Buy Now
Questions 41

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must map these events to the source technology that generated the event logs. To which technology do the generated logs belong?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

antivirus

C.

IPS

D.

firewall

Buy Now
Questions 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

NetFlow

C.

IDS

D.

sys

Buy Now
Questions 43

Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?

Options:

A.

Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels.

B.

Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation.

C.

Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU.

D.

Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.

Buy Now
Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit.

In which Linux log file is this output found?

Options:

A.

/var/log/authorization.log

B.

/var/log/dmesg

C.

var/log/var.log

D.

/var/log/auth.log

Buy Now
Questions 45

A member of the SOC team is checking the dashboard provided by the Cisco Firepower Manager for further Isolation actions. According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of incident response is this action?

Options:

A.

Cost-incident activity phase

B.

Preparation phase

C.

Selection and analyze phase

D.

The radiation and recovery phase

Buy Now
Questions 46

Which items is an end-point application greylist used?

Options:

A.

Items that have been established as malicious

B.

Items that have been established as authorized

C.

Items that have been installed with a baseline

D.

Items before being established as harmful or malicious

Buy Now
Questions 47

What is the purpose of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

to make files inaccessible by encrypting the data

B.

to decrypt encrypted data and disks

C.

to send keystrokes to a threat actor

D.

to escalate privileges

Buy Now
Questions 48

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

Options:

A.

known-plaintext

B.

replay

C.

dictionary

D.

man-in-the-middle

Buy Now
Questions 49

Which vulnerability type is used to read, write, or erase information from a database?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

cross-site request forgery

C.

buffer overflow

D.

SQL injection

Buy Now
Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst wraps up the shift and passed open ticket notes to the night shift SOC team analyst. The ticket name in question is "Investigating suspicious activity on a Windows Server’’. Which operating system components must the analyst prioritize to uncover the attacker's persistence mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Review the Windows Defender setup and failed login attempts in Event Viewer

B.

Investigate the Task Scheduler entries and Windows Defender settings.

C.

Analyze the Windows Registry changes and Task Scheduler tasks.

D.

Focus on the user account log-ins and delete newly added Run keys in the registry

Buy Now
Questions 51

What is the advantage of agent-based protection compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

easier to manage due to the centralized platform

B.

monitors and detects traffic locally

C.

manages unlimited devices simultaneously

D.

lower resource requirements during implementation

Buy Now
Questions 52

When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

pivoting

C.

encryption

D.

stenography

Buy Now
Questions 53

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.

Which testing method did the intruder use?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

eavesdropping

C.

piggybacking

D.

tailgating

Buy Now
Questions 54

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Buy Now
Questions 55

Which statement describes threat hunting?

Options:

A.

It is an activity by an entity to deliberately bring down critical internal servers.

B.

It is a prevention activity to detect signs of intrusion, compromise, data theft, abnormalities, or malicious activity.

C.

It includes any activity that might go after competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their systems.

D.

It is a vulnerability assessment conducted by cyber professionals.

Buy Now
Questions 56

Which attack method is being used when an attacker tries to compromise a network with an authentication system that uses only 4-digit numeric passwords and no username?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

dictionary

C.

replay

D.

cross-site scripting

Buy Now
Questions 57

What are two differences and benefits of packet filtering, stateful firewalling, and deep packet inspections? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packet filtering is capable of UDP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can provide monitoring of TCP sessions.

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and packet filtering is not.

C.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not.

D.

Deep packet inspection operates up to Layer 7, and packet filtering operates on Layer 3 and 4 of OSI model.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet inspection checks only TCP source and destination ports.

Buy Now
Questions 58

What is a key difference between a tampered and an untampered disk image during a forensic investigation?

Options:

A.

An untampered image is encrypted, and a tampered one is not encrypted.

B.

A tampered image has a different hash value, and an untampered image has an unchanged hash value.

C.

A tampered image is accessible only by administrators, and an untampered one is accessible by all users.

D.

An untampered image is compressed, and a tampered one is left uncompressed.

Buy Now
Questions 59

What describes the public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Options:

A.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

B.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

C.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

D.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

Buy Now
Questions 60

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

Options:

A.

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server

B.

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

C.

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

D.

Scan open services and ports on a server.

Buy Now
Questions 61

Refer to the exhibit. What occurred on this system based on this output?

Options:

A.

A user connected to the system using remote access VPN.

B.

A user created a new HTTP session using the SHA256 hashing algorithm.

C.

A user connected to the system after 450 attempts.

D.

A user connected to the system using SSH using source port 55796.

Buy Now
Questions 62

A compliance analyst receives a complaint from a customer regarding personal data being unlawfully retained despite a deletion request. The company is based in Europe and must comply with GDPR. The only data collected is the email address 0524l9i75@gmail.com. How should the compliance analyst act?

Options:

A.

Do not delete the data — the email address is not considered PII

B.

Delete the data regardless of where the customer is from

C.

Delete the data if the customer is from the EU

D.

Notify the legal team about a data compliance breach

Buy Now
Questions 63

In digital communications, which method is recommended for securely exchanging public keys between users T0n2262144790 and D4n4126220794?

Options:

A.

Hardware Security Module

B.

Automated Certificate Management Environment

C.

Pretty Good Privacy

D.

Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

Buy Now
Questions 64

Which type of attack involves sending input commands to a web server to access data?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

Denial of service

C.

Cross-site scripting

D.

DNS poisoning

Buy Now
Questions 65

Refer to the exhibit.

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

Buy Now
Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

The mail client is communicating on port 465.

B.

The Seq and Ack numbers are altered

C.

Mail communication is not encrypted.

D.

The SMTP relay service is running.

Buy Now
Questions 67

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?

Options:

A.

sequence numbers

B.

IP identifier

C.

5-tuple

D.

timestamps

Buy Now
Questions 68

What is session data used for in network security?

Options:

A.

It is the transaction log between monitoring software.

B.

It contains the set of parameters used for fetching logs.

C.

It is the summary of the transmission between two network devices.

D.

It tracks cookies within each session initiated from a user.

Buy Now
Questions 69

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

Buy Now
Questions 70

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

Buy Now
Questions 71

Drag and drop the data source from the left onto the data type on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 72

A vulnerability analyst is performing the monthly scan data review Output data is very big and getting bigger each month The analyst decides to create a more efficient process to complete the task on time All false positives and true positives are excluded from the results The remaining findings will be assigned to a technical team for further remediation What is the result of such activity?

Options:

A.

False negatives must also be excluded from the data

B.

Data is filtered property and contains only valid results

C.

Exclusion is not needed and all data must be remediated

D.

Analysis is not performed correctly, and it is missing correct data

Buy Now
Questions 73

Which tool gives the ability to see session data in real time?

Options:

A.

tcpdstat

B.

trafdump

C.

tcptrace

D.

trafshow

Buy Now
Questions 74

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?

Options:

A.

ransomware communicating after infection

B.

users downloading copyrighted content

C.

data exfiltration

D.

user circumvention of the firewall

Buy Now
Questions 75

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

Options:

A.

sandbox

B.

application allow list

C.

application block list

D.

host-based firewall

Buy Now
Questions 76

An engineer received a ticket to investigate a potentially malicious file detected by a malware scanner that was trying to execute multiple commands. During the initial review, the engineer discovered that the file was created two days prior. Further analyses show that the file was downloaded from a known malicious domain after a successful phishing attempt on an asset owner. At which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain was this attack mitigated?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

exploitation

C.

installation

D.

delivery

Buy Now
Questions 77

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.

examination

B.

investigation

C.

collection

D.

reporting

Buy Now
Questions 78

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

Buy Now
Questions 79

Which option describes indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

spam emails on an employee workstation

B.

virus detection by the AV software

C.

blocked phishing attempt on a company

D.

malware reinfection within a few minutes of removal

Buy Now
Questions 80

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?

Options:

A.

action on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

exploitation

D.

installation

Buy Now
Questions 81

Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests for a specific file?

Options:

A.

destination IP address

B.

TCP ACK

C.

HTTP status code

D.

URI

Buy Now
Questions 82

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

Options:

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

Buy Now
Questions 83

A user received a malicious attachment but did not run it. Which category classifies the intrusion?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

installation

D.

delivery

Buy Now
Questions 84

An organization's security team detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning. How must the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host?

Options:

A.

Based on the protocols used

B.

Based on the most used applications

C.

By most used ports

D.

By most active source IP

Buy Now
Questions 85

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

Options:

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

Buy Now
Questions 86

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

Options:

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

organizational separation

C.

separation of duties

D.

need to know principle

Buy Now
Questions 87

Which technique obtains information about how the system works without knowing it's design details?

Options:

A.

DDOS attack

B.

reverse engineering

C.

DNS spoofing

D.

malware analysis

Buy Now
Questions 88

A company is using several network applications that require high availability and responsiveness, such that milliseconds of latency on network traffic is not acceptable. An engineer needs to analyze the network and identify ways to improve traffic movement to minimize delays. Which information must the engineer obtain for this analysis?

Options:

A.

total throughput on the interface of the router and NetFlow records

B.

output of routing protocol authentication failures and ports used

C.

running processes on the applications and their total network usage

D.

deep packet captures of each application flow and duration

Buy Now
Questions 89

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

Options:

A.

central key management server

B.

web of trust

C.

trusted certificate authorities

D.

registration authority data

Buy Now
Questions 90

Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

B.

Divide the network into parts

C.

Split packets into pieces.

D.

Reduce the load on network devices.

E.

Implement the patch management process

Buy Now
Questions 91

Refer to the exhibit.

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

Options:

A.

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Buy Now
Questions 92

What is data encapsulation?

Options:

A.

Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

B.

The protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.

C.

Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.

D.

Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.

Buy Now
Questions 93

Refer to the exhibit. An employee received an email from an unknown sender with an attachment and reported it as a phishing attempt. An engineer uploaded the file to Cuckoo for further analysis. What should an engineer interpret from the provided Cuckoo report?

Options:

A.

Win32.polip.a.exe is an executable file and should be flagged as malicious.

B.

The file is clean and does not represent a risk.

C.

Cuckoo cleaned the malicious file and prepared it for usage.

D.

MD5 of the file was not identified as malicious.

Buy Now
Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.

There are two active data exfiltration alerts.

D.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Buy Now
Questions 95

A security analyst received a ticket about suspicious traffic from one of the workstations. During the investigation, the analyst discovered that the workstation was communicating with an external IP. The analyst could not investigate further and escalated the case to a T2 security analyst. What are the two data visibility challenges that the security analyst should identify? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A default user agent is present in the headers.

B.

Traffic is not encrypted.

C.

HTTP requests and responses are sent in plaintext.

D.

POST requests have a "Microsoft-IIS/7.5" server header.

E.

Encrypted data is being transmitted.

Buy Now
Questions 96

A company recently encountered a breach. Critical services went through a disturbance and the integrity of the data was altered. An engineer is investigating the issue and searching through the logs in the SIEM. Which phase of the incident response is an engineer working on?

Options:

A.

post-incident and lessons learned

B.

recovery and restoration

C.

detection and analysis

D.

containment and eradication

Buy Now
Questions 97

An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is stored in CDFS format. What type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

B.

data from a CD copied using Linux system

C.

data from a DVD copied using Windows system

D.

data from a CD copied using Windows

Buy Now
Questions 98

What is the impact of encryption?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B.

Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C.

Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D.

Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

Buy Now
Questions 99

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

Buy Now
Questions 100

Which artifact is used to uniquely identify a detected file?

Options:

A.

file timestamp

B.

file extension

C.

file size

D.

file hash

Buy Now
Questions 101

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7.

B.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.

C.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4.

Buy Now
Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

What does this Cuckoo sandbox report indicate?

Options:

A.

The file is spyware.

B.

The file will open unsecure ports when executed.

C.

The file will open a command interpreter when executed.

D.

The file is ransomware.

Buy Now
Questions 103

An organization that develops high-end technology is going through an internal audit The organization uses two databases The main database stores patent information and a secondary database stores employee names and contact information A compliance team is asked to analyze the infrastructure and identify protected data Which two types of protected data should be identified? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Personally Identifiable Information (Pll)

B.

Payment Card Industry (PCI)

C.

Protected Hearth Information (PHI)

D.

Intellectual Property (IP)

E.

Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)

Buy Now
Questions 104

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must use a 5-tuple approach to isolate a compromised host in a grouped set of logs.

Which data must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

66

B.

b4:2a0ef227 83

C.

7c:5c:f8:9f:d1:fc

D.

57813

Buy Now
Questions 105

A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages. When an engineer examines traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, they notice that many SYNs have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but they have different payloads. What is causing this situation?

Options:

A.

TCP injection

B.

misconfiguration of a web filter

C.

Failure of the full packet capture solution

D.

insufficient network resources

Buy Now
Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the message indicate?

Options:

A.

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

Buy Now
Questions 107

What is data tunneling?

Options:

A.

Encrypted information is returned to its original format.

B.

Data is split into packets and transported to the destination.

C.

Packets are transformed into bytes and assembled by a receiver.

D.

Malicious data is hidden within legitimate system processes.

Buy Now
Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 109

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

Options:

A.

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B.

categorizing critical assets within the organization

C.

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

D.

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

Buy Now
Questions 110

What is a difference between SI EM and SOAR security systems?

Options:

A.

SOAR ingests numerous types of logs and event data infrastructure components and SIEM can fetch data from endpoint security software and external threat intelligence feeds

B.

SOAR collects and stores security data at a central point and then converts it into actionable intelligence, and SIEM enables SOC teams to automate and orchestrate manual tasks

C.

SIEM raises alerts in the event of detecting any suspicious activity, and SOAR automates investigation path workflows and reduces time spent on alerts

D.

SIEM combines data collecting, standardization, case management, and analytics for a defense-in-depth concept, and SOAR collects security data antivirus logs, firewall logs, and hashes of downloaded files

Buy Now
Questions 111

Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the phases on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 112

An engineer is working on the implementation of digital certificates for new cntical web applications One of the requirements is that the https connection must be validated and protected against malicious network impersonators The server will be exposed externally from the DMZ network Which certificate must be used?

Options:

A.

SSLv3

B.

TLS 1.1

C.

private CA

D.

X.509

Buy Now
Questions 113

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

Buy Now
Questions 114

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?

Options:

A.

legal

B.

compliance

C.

regulated

D.

contractual

Buy Now
Questions 115

What is a description of "phishing" as a social engineering attack"?

Options:

A.

Someone without the proper authentication follows an authenticated employee into a restricted area The attacker might impersonate a delivery driver and wait outside a building to get things started

B.

A hacker masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link.

C.

The attacker focuses on creating a good pretext or a fabricated scenario that is used to try and steal victims' personal information

D.

Fake Social Security Administration personnel contact random individuals inform them that there has been a computer problem on their end and ask that those individuals confirm their Social Security Number, all for the purpose of committing identity theft.

Buy Now
Questions 116

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.

port scanning

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

Buy Now
Questions 117

Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?

Options:

A.

application-level blacklisting

B.

host-based IPS

C.

application-level whitelisting

D.

antivirus

Buy Now
Questions 118

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC engineer is analyzing Cuckoo Sandbox report for a file that has been identified as suspicious by the endpoint security system. What is the state of the file?

Options:

A.

The file was identified as PE32 executable with a high level of entropy to bypass AV via encryption.

B.

The file was detected as an executable binary file, but no suspicious activity was detected and it is false positive.

C.

The file was detected as executable and was marked by the SSDeep hashing algorithm as suspicious.

D.

The file identified as an executable binary for Microsoft Word with macros creating hidden process via PowerShell.

Buy Now
Questions 119

What is the benefit of processing statistical data for security systems?

Options:

A.

detects suspicious behavior based on traffic baselining trends

B.

uses less CPU and RAM resources than metadata-based monitoring

C.

provides fewer false negative events than full packet capture

D.

provides full visibility based on capture of packet traffic data

Buy Now
Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

Buy Now
Questions 121

Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from two devices separated by a Layer 3 device that performs Network Address Translation?

Options:

A.

IP addresses in the log messages match

B.

Timestamps of the log messages are different.

C.

Log messages contain incorrect information

D.

IP addresses in the log messages do not match

Buy Now
Questions 122

Which type of attack uses a botnet to reflect requests off of an NTP server to overwhelm a target?

Options:

A.

Display

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Distributed denial of service

D.

Denial of service

Buy Now
Questions 123

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B.

Install the latest IIS version.

C.

Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D.

Deploy an intrusion detection system

Buy Now
Questions 124

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

Options:

A.

input validation

B.

hash collision

C.

integer overflow

D.

command injection

Buy Now
Questions 125

Which two attacks are denial-of-service (DoS) attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP flooding

B.

Code Red

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

ping of death

E.

TCP connections

Buy Now
Questions 126

What is a comparison between rule-based and statistical detection?

Options:

A.

Statistical is based on measured data while rule-based uses the evaluated probability approach.

B.

Rule-based Is based on assumptions and statistical uses data Known beforehand.

C.

Rule-based uses data known beforehand and statistical is based on assumptions.

D.

Statistical uses the probability approach while rule-based Is based on measured data.

Buy Now
Questions 127

Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

session hijacking

C.

evasion

D.

phishing

Buy Now
Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

Buy Now
Questions 129

Which event is user interaction?

Options:

A.

gaining root access

B.

executing remote code

C.

reading and writing file permission

D.

opening a malicious file

Buy Now
Questions 130

What is a characteristic of a temporal score in CVSS?

Options:

A.

It can change over time

B.

It depends on the environment

C.

It has a vendor fixed value

D.

It is defined by impacted users

Buy Now
Questions 131

What is a scareware attack?

Options:

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Buy Now
Questions 132

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

Options:

A.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B.

The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D.

The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

Buy Now
Questions 133

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

Buy Now
Questions 134

What are the two characteristics of the full packet captures? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Identifying network loops and collision domains.

B.

Troubleshooting the cause of security and performance issues.

C.

Reassembling fragmented traffic from raw data.

D.

Detecting common hardware faults and identify faulty assets.

E.

Providing a historical record of a network transaction.

Buy Now
Questions 135

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

Options:

A.

Run "ps -ef to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server

C.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map the required processes to find the gap

D.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high-load processes to avoid resource exhaustion

Buy Now
Questions 136

An engineer must analyze a security event from last month. The engineer has access to a .pcap file collected via traffic mirroring and NetFlow data. The engineer must perform checks quickly on a busy network segment without prior knowledge of the incident details. Which source of data should be used for analysis?

Options:

A.

pcap file because it is easy to track all activity for the last month

B.

NetFlow because it has all needed data

C.

both sources, first NetFlow because collection is easy, then pcap

D.

both sources, first .pcap based on a simple query, then NetFlow

Buy Now
Questions 137

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

Options:

A.

internet

B.

transport

C.

application

D.

data link

Buy Now
Questions 138

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

scope

Buy Now
Questions 139

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?

Options:

A.

CD data copy prepared in Windows

B.

CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system

C.

CD data copy prepared in Linux system

D.

CD data copy prepared in Android-based system

Buy Now
Questions 140

A security analyst reviews the firewall and observes the large number of frequent events. The analyst starts the packet capture with the Wireshark and identifies that TCP port reuse was detected incorrectly as a TCP split-handshake attack by the firewall. How must an impact from this event be categorized?

Options:

A.

false positive

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false negative

Buy Now
Questions 141

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited and the risk is the potential for loss or damage

B.

A vulnerability is an attack surface, and the risk is the vector of the attack

C.

A risk is a possible danger that an exploit applies to and a vulnerability represents the threat actor

D.

Risk is the assessment of possible weaknesses and vulnerability is a reconfiguration of an asset

Buy Now
Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

TCP

C.

TLS

D.

HTTP

Buy Now
Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Feb 25, 2026
Questions: 476
200-201 pdf

200-201 PDF

$28.5  $94.99
200-201 Engine

200-201 Testing Engine

$33  $109.99
200-201 PDF + Engine

200-201 PDF + Testing Engine

$43.5  $144.99