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SPLK-5001 Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the main difference between hypothesis-driven and data-driven Threat Hunting?

Options:

A.

Data-driven hunts always require more data to search through than hypothesis-driven hunts.

B.

Data-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, hypothesis-driven hunting begins with a potential activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

C.

Hypothesis-driven hunts are typically executed on newly ingested data sources, while data-driven hunts are not.

D.

Hypothesis-driven hunting tries to uncover activity within an existing data set, data-driven hunting begins with an activity that the hunter thinks may be happening.

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Questions 5

What Splunk feature would enable enriching public IP addresses with ASN and owner information?

Options:

A.

Using rex to extract this information at search time.

B.

Using lookup to include relevant information.

C.

Using oval commands to calculate the ASM.

D.

Using makersanita to add the ASMs to the search.

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Questions 6

Which of the following use cases is best suited to be a Splunk SOAR Playbook?

Options:

A.

Forming hypothesis for Threat Hunting

B.

Visualizing complex datasets.

C.

Creating persistent field extractions.

D.

Taking containment action on a compromised host

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a best practice for searching in Splunk?

Options:

A.

Streaming commands run before aggregating commands in the Search pipeline.

B.

Raw word searches should contain multiple wildcards to ensure all edge cases are covered.

C.

Limit fields returned from the search utilizing the cable command.

D.

Searching over All Time ensures that all relevant data is returned.

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Questions 8

Which argument searches only accelerated data in the Network Traffic Data Model with tstats?

Options:

A.

accelerate=true

B.

dataset=accelerated

C.

summariesonly=true

D.

datamodel=accelerated

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Questions 9

Which of the following use cases is best suited to be a Splunk SOAR Playbook?

Options:

A.

Forming hypothesis for Threat Hunting.

B.

Taking containment action on a compromised host.

C.

Creating persistent field extractions.

D.

Visualizing complex datasets.

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Questions 10

A Risk Notable Event has been triggered in Splunk Enterprise Security, an analyst investigates the alert, and determines it is a false positive. What metric would be used to define the time between alert creation and close of the event?

Options:

A.

MTTR (Mean Time to Respond)

B.

MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)

C.

MTTA (Mean Time to Acknowledge)

D.

MTTD (Mean Time to Detect)

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Questions 11

A threat hunter generates a report containing the list of users who have logged in to a particular database during the last 6 months, along with the number of times they have each authenticated. They sort this list and remove any user names who have logged in more than 6 times. The remaining names represent the users who rarely log in, as their activity is more suspicious. The hunter examines each of these rare logins in detail.

This is an example of what type of threat-hunting technique?

Options:

A.

Least Frequency of Occurrence Analysis

B.

Co-Occurrence Analysis

C.

Time Series Analysis

D.

Outlier Frequency Analysis

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Questions 12

Which of the following is not a component of the Splunk Security Content library (ESCU, SSE)?

Options:

A.

Dashboards

B.

Reports

C.

Correlation searches

D.

Validated architectures

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Questions 13

Enterprise Security has been configured to generate a Notable Event when a user has quickly authenticated from multiple locations between which travel would be impossible. This would be considered what kind of an anomaly?

Options:

A.

Access Anomaly

B.

Identity Anomaly

C.

Endpoint Anomaly

D.

Threat Anomaly

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Questions 14

An analyst would like to visualize threat objects across their environment and chronological risk events for a Risk Object in Incident Review. Where would they find this?

Options:

A.

Running the Risk Analysis Adaptive Response action within the Notable Event.

B.

Via a workflow action for the Risk Investigation dashboard.

C.

Via the Risk Analysis dashboard under the Security Intelligence tab in Enterprise Security.

D.

Clicking the risk event count to open the Risk Event Timeline.

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Questions 15

A threat hunter is analyzing incoming emails during the past 30 days, looking for spam or phishing campaigns targeting many users. This involves finding large numbers of similar, but not necessarily identical, emails. The hunter extracts key datapoints from each email record, including the sender's address, recipient's address, subject, embedded URLs, and names of any attachments. Using the Splunk App for Data Science and Deep Learning, they then visualize each of these messages as points on a graph, looking for large numbers of points that occur close together. This is an example of what type of threat-hunting technique?

Options:

A.

Clustering

B.

Least Frequency of Occurrence Analysis

C.

Time Series Analysis

D.

Most Frequency of Occurrence Analysis

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Questions 16

An analyst notices that one of their servers is sending an unusually large amount of traffic, gigabytes more than normal, to a single system on the Internet. There doesn’t seem to be any associated increase in incoming traffic.

What type of threat actor activity might this represent?

Options:

A.

Data exfiltration

B.

Network reconnaissance

C.

Data infiltration

D.

Lateral movement

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Questions 17

Which metric would track improvements in analyst efficiency after dashboard customization?

Options:

A.

Mean Time to Detect

B.

Mean Time to Respond

C.

Recovery Time

D.

Dwell Time

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Questions 18

An adversary uses "LoudWiner" to hijack resources for crypto mining. What does this represent in a TTP framework?

Options:

A.

Procedure

B.

Tactic

C.

Problem

D.

Technique

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Questions 19

When searching in Splunk, which of the following SPL commands can be used to run a subsearch across every field in a wildcard field list?

Options:

A.

foreach

B.

rex

C.

makeresults

D.

transaction

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Questions 20

Which Splunk Enterprise Security framework provides a way to identify incidents from events and then manage the ownership, triage process, and state of those incidents?

Options:

A.

Asset and Identity

B.

Investigation Management

C.

Notable Event

D.

Adaptive Response

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Questions 21

After discovering some events that were missed in an initial investigation, an analyst determines this is because some events have an empty src field. Instead, the required data is often captured in another field called machine_name.

What SPL could they use to find all relevant events across either field until the field extraction is fixed?

Options:

A.

| eval src = coalesce(src,machine_name)

B.

| eval src = src + machine_name

C.

| eval src = src . machine_name

D.

| eval src = tostring(machine_name)

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Questions 22

An analysis of an organization’s security posture determined that a particular asset is at risk and a new process or solution should be implemented to protect it. Typically, who would be in charge of implementing the new process or solution that was selected?

Options:

A.

Security Architect

B.

SOC Manager

C.

Security Engineer

D.

Security Analyst

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Questions 23

In which phase of the Continuous Monitoring cycle are suggestions and improvements typically made?

Options:

A.

Define and Predict

B.

Establish and Architect

C.

Analyze and Report

D.

Implement and Collect

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Questions 24

How are Notable Events configured in Splunk Enterprise Security?

Options:

A.

During an investigation.

B.

As part of an audit.

C.

Via an Adaptive Response Action in a regular search.

D.

Via an Adaptive Response Action in a correlation search.

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Questions 25

A threat hunter executed a hunt based on the following hypothesis:

As an actor, I want to plant rundll32 for proxy execution of malicious code and leverage Cobalt Strike for Command and Control.

Relevant logs and artifacts such as Sysmon, netflow, IDS alerts, and EDR logs were searched, and the hunter is confident in the conclusion that Cobalt Strike is not present in the company’s environment.

Which of the following best describes the outcome of this threat hunt?

Options:

A.

The threat hunt was successful because the hypothesis was not proven.

B.

The threat hunt failed because the hypothesis was not proven.

C.

The threat hunt failed because no malicious activity was identified.

D.

The threat hunt was successful in providing strong evidence that the tactic and tool is not present in the environment.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is a best practice when creating performant searches within Splunk?

Options:

A.

Utilize the transaction command to aggregate data for faster analysis.

B.

Utilize Aggregating commands to ensure all data is available prior to Streaming commands.

C.

Utilize specific fields to return only the data that is required.

D.

Utilize multiple wildcards across fields to ensure returned data is complete and available.

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Questions 27

Which stage of continuous monitoring involves adding data, creating detections, and building drilldowns?

Options:

A.

Implement and Collect

B.

Establish and Architect

C.

Respond and Review

D.

Analyze and Report

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Questions 28

Splunk SOAR uses what feature to automate security workflows so that analysts can spend more time performing analysis and investigation?

Options:

A.

Workbooks

B.

Analytic Stories

C.

Adaptive Actions

D.

Playbooks

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Questions 29

During their shift, an analyst receives an alert about an executable being run from C:\Windows\Temp. Why should this be investigated further?

Options:

A.

Temp directories aren't owned by any particular user, making it difficult to track the process owner when files are executed.

B.

Temp directories are flagged as non-executable, meaning that no files stored within can be executed, and this executable was run from that directory.

C.

Temp directories contain the system page file and the virtual memory file, meaning the attacker can use their malware to read the in memory values of running programs.

D.

Temp directories are world writable thus allowing attackers a place to drop, stage, and execute malware on a system without needing to worry about file permissions.

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Exam Code: SPLK-5001
Exam Name: Splunk Certified Cybersecurity Defense Analyst
Last Update: Aug 17, 2025
Questions: 99
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