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CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A company's primary performance objective Is flexibility. Which of the following measurements is most important?

Options:

A.

Labor productivity

B.

Schedule adherence

C.

Machine changeover time

D.

Cycle time

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Questions 5

During a security incident investigation, a security analyst discovered an unauthorized module was compiled into an application package as part of the application assembly phase. This incident occurred immediately prior to being digitally signed and deployed using a deployment pipeline.

Which of the following security controls would BEST prevent this type of incident in the future?

Options:

A.

Invoke code repository vulnerability scanning on a regularly scheduled basis.

B.

Implement Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) in each component of the deployment pipeline.

C.

Encrypt the application package after being digitally signed.

D.

Implement a software Bill of Materials (BOM) for each application package.

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Questions 6

Which of the following statements is an advantage of a fourth-party logistics (4PL) provider?

Options:

A.

It coordinates between the client and multiple logistics suppliers.

B.

It focuses primarily on last-mile delivery.

C.

It allows the client to concentrate on operating its own warehouse.

D.

It provides a logistics specialist who manages some of the logistics operation.

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Questions 7

Under which of the following conditions is excess capacity most likely a good substitute for safety stock?

Options:

A.

The cost of excess capacity is less than the cost of an additional unit of safety stock in the same period.

B.

The cost to maintain one unit in inventory for a year is less than the direct labor cost.

C.

The service level with safety stock is more than the service level with excess capacity.

D.

Lead time for the product is longer than customers are willing to wait.

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Questions 8

A cloud-based web application requires the use of cryptographic keys to encrypt user-uploaded files at rest. Where is the safest place to store these cryptographic keys?

Options:

A.

Keys are stored in a password protected zip file.

B.

Keys are stored with source code in a revision control system.

C.

Keys are stored in a cloud-based file storage system.

D.

Keys are stored in a central, internal key management system.

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Questions 9

Which of the following concepts MOST accurately refers to an organization's ability to fully understand the health of the data in its system at every stage of the lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Data observability

B.

Data portability

C.

Data discovery

D.

Data analytics

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Questions 10

A work center has 3 machines that are all run at the same time with a single worker. The work center has an efficiency of 75% and a utilization of 100%. What is the work center's capacity in standard hours for an 8-hour shift?

Options:

A.

6 hours

B.

8 hours

C.

18 hours

D.

24 hours

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Questions 11

An attacker wants to decrypt a message and has no knowledge of what may have been in the original message. The attacker chooses to use an attack that will exhaust the keyspace in order to decrypt the message. What type of cryptanalytic attack is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Ciphertext only

B.

Chosen ciphertext

C.

Brute force

D.

Known plaintext

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Questions 12

Marketing has requested a significant change in the mix for a product family. The requested change falls between the demand and the planning time fences. The most appropriate action by the master scheduler is to:

Options:

A.

reject the request.

B.

accept the request.

C.

forward the request to senior management.

D.

check the availability of required material.

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Questions 13

Which security audit phase is MOST important to ensure correct controls are applied to classified data in a production environment?

Options:

A.

Data gathering

B.

Data analysis

C.

Planning and research

D.

Audit reporting and follow-up

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Questions 14

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

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Questions 15

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:

Options:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

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Questions 16

A house of quality (HOQ) chart aligns which pair of functions?

Options:

A.

Customer requirements with costing

B.

Engineering with operations

C.

Customer purchasing with supplier shipping

D.

Competitive analysis with product design

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Questions 17

A systems engineer has been tasked by management to provide a recommendation with a prioritized, focused set of actions to help the organization stop high-risk cyber attacks and ensure data security. What should the systems engineer recommend the organization use to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

Center for Internet Security critical security controls

B.

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)

C.

Inventory baseline controls

D.

Security content automation protocol controls

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Questions 18

Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

Options:

A.

using a pull system.

B.

linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

C.

designed to be responsive.

D.

positioning inventory close to the consumer.

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Questions 19

After a recent cybersecurity incident, a manufacturing organization is interested in further hardening its Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution. Knowing that the organization limits the use of personal devices in the facility, which could BEST be implemented to enhance the manufacturing organization's IAM solution?

Options:

A.

Enhanced background checks

B.

Mobile Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) application

C.

Biometric system

D.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

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Questions 20

Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine:

Options:

A.

the proper level of service for a customer segment.

B.

the source of a quality-of-service issue.

C.

differences in the performance of employees.

D.

the decomposition of customer return rates with seasonality.

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Questions 21

In the context of mobile device security, which of the following BEST describes why a walled garden should be implemented?

Options:

A.

To track user actions and activity

B.

To prevent the installation of untrusted software

C.

To restrict a user's ability to change device settings

D.

To limit web access to only approved sites

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Questions 22

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Questions 23

Based on the above table, calculate the mean absolute deviation (MAD).

Options:

A.

-25

B.

6.25

C.

18.75

D.

20

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Questions 24

When assessing a new vendor as a possible business partner, what would BEST demonstrate that the vendor has a proactive approach to data security compliance?

Options:

A.

The vendor provides documented safeguards in handling confidential data.

B.

The vendor provides a copy of their externally performed risk assessment.

C.

The vendor has a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) in place before work begins.

D.

The vendor has a signed contract in place before work with data begins.

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Questions 25

Typically, rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP) in a job shop environment would review which of the following work centers to determine the ability to execute the plan?

Options:

A.

Critical work centers only

B.

Gateway work centers only

C.

Final assembly work centers only

D.

All work centers

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Questions 26

Which specification enables organizations to ensure penetration test results are documented using open, machine-readable standards?

Options:

A.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

B.

Security Orchestration, Automation And Response (SOAR)

C.

Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE)

D.

Common Vulnerability Reporting Framework (CVRF)

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Questions 27

The production plan defines which of the following targets?

Options:

A.

Sales forecast

B.

Quantities of each product to be produced

C.

Level of output to be produced

D.

Business plans for the company

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Questions 28

Which of the following attributes describes a company with a global strategy?

Options:

A.

Ituses the same basic competitive style worldwide and focuses efforts on building global brands.

B.

Itcustomizes the basic competitive style to fit markets but focuses efforts on building global brands.

C.

Itcoordinates major strategic decisions worldwide but gives country managers wide strategy-making latitude.

D.

Itoperates plants in many host countries and uses decentralized distribution.

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Questions 29

An agency has the requirement to establish a direct data connection with another organization for the purpose of exchanging data between the agency and organization systems. There is a requirement for a formal agreement between the agency and organization. Which source of standards can the system owners use to define the roles and responsibilities along with details for the technical and security requirements?

Options:

A.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO)

B.

European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization

C.

Caribbean Community Regional Organization for Standards and Quality

D.

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

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Questions 30

Which of the following presents the GREATEST benefit to an organization's security posture when a change management process is implemented?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of Key Risk Indicators (KRI) reported to senior management

B.

Ensure the integrity of the organization's assets

C.

Backups being completed in a timely manner

D.

Accuracy of Key Performance Indicators (KPI) reported to senior management

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Questions 31

Which of the following is typically used to control physical access to highly secure facilities?

Options:

A.

Surveillance

B.

Mantrap

C.

Dual control

D.

Door locks

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Questions 32

Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in planned production that is greater than the total demand over the sales and operations planning (S&OP) horizon for a product family that is

made to stock?

Options:

A.

An increase in the customer service level is planned for the product family.

B.

New models are being added to the product family.

C.

Planned ending inventory for the product family is less than the beginning inventory.

D.

There is a long-term upward trend in demand for the product family.

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Questions 33

Which of the following is MOST accurate when comparing patch management and vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

Patch management manages the security lifecycle from discovery to remediation.

B.

Patch management identifies, acquires, tests, and installs code changes on a specific computing device.

C.

Vulnerability management is a process executed in specialized software to address security issues or add new features.

D.

Vulnerability management plugs security holes and remediates risk by upgrading software to the most recent versions.

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Questions 34

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

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Questions 35

Which of the following does a federated Identity Provider (IDP) need in order to grant access to identity information?

Options:

A.

The end system and the middleware system must trust each other.

B.

The end system authenticates and verifies the user.

C.

The end system application needs to verify the user’s identity.

D.

The application or system needs to trust the user.

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Questions 36

An organization processes healthcare data, stores credit card data, and must provide audited financial statements, each of which is controlled by a separate compliance standard. To support compliance against multiple standards and the testing of the greatest number of controls with a limited budget, how would the internal audit team BEST audit the organization?

Options:

A.

Conduct an integrated audit against the most stringent security controls.

B.

Combine the systems into a single audit and implement security controls per applicable standard.

C.

Combine the systems into a single audit against all of the associated security controls.

D.

Audit each system individually and implement the applicable standard specific security controls.

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Questions 37

An organization is working to secure its Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) system, Which monitors water supply to the city. What type of security should the organization ensure FIRST?

Options:

A.

Endpoint security

B.

Network security

C.

Cyber physical security

D.

Cloud security

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Questions 38

Which of the following is a document that will be obtained at the end of an asset’s lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Asset registry

B.

Bill of lading

C.

Certificate of disposal

D.

Master data record

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Questions 39

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

Options:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

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Questions 40

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial service organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

B.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

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Questions 41

An organization’s external auditors have issued a management letter identifying significant deficiencies related to the effectiveness of the previous year’s global access certification. The organization wants to move from a department-based access control system to a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) system. In addition to quickly and securely provisioning users by granting membership into predefined and approved roles, which of these presents the BEST reason to do so?

Options:

A.

The organization can implement both mandatory and dynamic access controls, except where they would be in conflict.

B.

The organization can clone roles, saving time and granting broad access to persons within the same department.

C.

The organization can give a person holding multiple roles the appropriate levels of access to specific data for each role.

D.

The organization can implement both static and dynamic access controls, adjusting them to fit any individual’s access needs.

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Questions 42

Exhibit:

A company has prioritized customers A, B, and C, filling orders in that sequence. What are the impacts to customer service levels for customers B and C?

Options:

A.

100% service levels for B and C

B.

Customer B has higher service level

C.

Customer C has higher service level

D.

Customer B and C have same service level

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Questions 43

Which of the following mechanisms should a practitioner focus on for the MOST effective information security continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Implementing automated methods for data collection and reporting where possible

B.

Updating security plans, security assessment reports, hardware, and software inventories

C.

Defining specific methods for monitoring that will maintain or improve security posture

D.

Collecting risk metrics from teams, such as business, testing, QA, development, and operations with security controls

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Questions 44

A large organization that processes protected data issues preconfigured laptops to workers who then access systems and data based on their role. As their technology ages, these laptops are replaced with newer devices. What is the BEST solution to mitigate risk associated with these devices?

Options:

A.

Establish a device recycle process.

B.

Establish a process preventing credential storage on devices.

C.

Establish a physical destruction process for the storage medium.

D.

Establish a process for check in and check out of devices.

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Questions 45

What are the FIRST two steps an organization should conduct to classify its assets?

Options:

A.

Define user requirements and collate existing inventories

B.

Categorize assets and set minimum security controls

C.

Conduct an inventory of assets and determine the owners

D.

Obtain senior management buy-in and conduct a risk assessment

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Questions 46

An organization is migrating some of its applications to the cloud. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is concerned about the accuracy of the reports showing which application should be migrated and how many applications reside on each server. As a result, the CISO is looking to establish asset management requirements. Which of these elements should be considered part of asset management requirements?

Options:

A.

Threat modelling and discovery

B.

Configuration Management (CM) database

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Integration testing program

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Questions 47

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) of an organization would like to have a network security assessment done by the security team. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the security testing methodology?

Options:

A.

Investigation

B.

Reconnaissance

C.

Fingerprinting

D.

Exploitation

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Questions 48

An information system containing Protected Health Information (PHI) will be accessed by doctors, nurses, and others working in a hospital. The same application will be used by staff in the pharmacy department only for dispensing prescribed medication. Additionally, patients can log in to view medical history. The system owner needs to propose an access control model that considers environment, situation, compliance, and security policies while dynamically granting the required level of access. Which access control model is the MOST suitable?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

C.

Task-based access control

D.

Risk-adaptive access control

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Questions 49

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach. Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Common configuration enumerations

D.

National vulnerabilities database

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Questions 50

If the total part failure rate of a machine is 0.00055 failures per hour, what would be the mean time between failures (MTBF) in hours?

Options:

A.

1,818.2

B.

59.99945

C.

1.98

D.

0.99945

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Questions 51

How much data an organization can afford to lose is determined by the:

Options:

A.

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

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Questions 52

An information security auditor is creating an audit program to assess endpoint security controls for portable storage media movement. Which type of control will MOST likely be part of the program?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Device control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Network control

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Questions 53

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

Options:

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

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Questions 54

Endpoint security needs to be established after an organization procured 1,000 industrial Internet Of Things (IoT) sensors. Which of the following challenges are the security engineers MOST likely to face?

Options:

A.

Identity And Access Management (IAM)

B.

Power and physical security

C.

Configuration Management (CM) and deployment

D.

Installation and connection

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Questions 55

If organizational leadership determines that its required continuous monitoring plan is too costly for the organization, what action should be taken by leadership and the Authorizing Official (AO)?

Options:

A.

Determine if the organization’s risk posture allows the system to operate without the continuous monitoring of the controls in question

B.

Identify and monitor only the technical controls, as they cover the most critical threats to the organization

C.

Ensure that the organization’s Configuration Management (CM) and control processes are documented and executed according to policy

D.

Continue developing the system using a secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) approach and testing, thereby eliminating the need for monitoring the security controls

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Questions 56

A company assembles kits of hand tools after receipt of the order from distributors and uses two-level master scheduling. The appropriate levels of detail for the forecasts that are input to master scheduling would be total number of kits and:

Options:

A.

each unique tool.

B.

percentage of total for each tool.

C.

raw material requirements.

D.

specific kit configurations.

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Questions 57

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

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Questions 58

A company selling seasonal products is preparing their sales and operations plan for the coming year. Their current labor staffing is at the maximum for their production facility and cannot meet the forecasted demand. The business plan shows they do not have the financial capability to add to the production facility. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Uselevel production planning and investigate subcontracting to meet the extra demand.

B.

Usechaseproduction planningand only take the orders that can be produced In the highdemand season.

C.

Usehybridproduction planningto save labor costs and inventory costs in the low demand season.

D.

Usehybridproduction planningand reduce the size of the customer base during the highdemand season.

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Questions 59

An organization suffered a loss to an asset at a frequency that was different than the initially estimated Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). What is the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

Do nothing; the loss validates the ARO.

B.

DO nothing; the loss validates the exposure factor.

C.

Recalculate the value of the safeguard.

D.

Recalculate the cost of the countermeasure.

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Questions 60

What is the MAIN privacy risk raised by federated identity solutions?

Options:

A.

The potential for tracking and profiling an individual's transactions

B.

The potential to break the chain of trust between identity brokers

C.

The potential for exposing an organization's sensitive business information

D.

The potential for unauthorized access to user attributes

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Questions 61

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

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Questions 62

Which protocol is the BEST option to provide authentication, confidentiality, and data integrity between two applications?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

C.

Peer-To-Peer (P2P) communication

D.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

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Questions 63

One way to mitigate liability risk in the supply chain is to:

Options:

A.

negotiate lower component cost.

B.

require traceability for components.

C.

push inventory to supplier locations.

D.

use less-than-truckload (LTL) shipments more frequently.

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Questions 64

A manufacturer begins production of an item when a customer order is placed. This is an example of a(n):

Options:

A.

Assemble-to-order (ATO) environment

B.

Make-to-stock (MTS) environment

C.

Pull system

D.

Push system

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Questions 65

An OpenID Connect (OIDC) authorization server received two requests from a client. The server identifies the request as replay attack and rejects the request. Which of the following BEST describes these requests?

Options:

A.

One of the requests does not have a valid token issuer's identifier.

B.

The requests have the same 'auth_time' parameter.

C.

The requests have the same 'nonce' parameter.

D.

One of the requests does not have a valid audience token.

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Questions 66

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

Options:

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

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Questions 67

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

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Questions 68

What is the main negative effect of changing the due dates of open orders?

Options:

A.

The schedule information becomes inaccurate.

B.

The customer service level decreases.

C.

It leads to "nervousness" in the schedule.

D.

The schedule does not support demand.

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Questions 69

What is the BEST protection method to ensure that an unauthorized entry attempt would fail when securing highly sensitive areas?

Options:

A.

Employee badge with a picture and video surveillance

B.

Keyed locks and Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV) at entrances

C.

Combination lock and a gate that prevents piggybacking

D.

Proximity badge requiring a Personal Identification Number (PIN) entry at entrances

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Questions 70

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

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Questions 71

Small, independent demands for components and subassemblies typically arise from which of the following sources?

Options:

A.

Warehouse orders

B.

Repair and service requirements

C.

Original equipment manufacturers

D.

Scrap allowance

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Questions 72

An information security professional is tasked with configuring full disk encryption on new hardware equipped with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). How does TPM further enhance the security posture of full disk encryption if configured properly?

Options:

A.

TPM will use the Operating System (OS) for full disk encryption key protection.

B.

TPM will protect the full disk encryption keys.

C.

TPM will handle the allocation of the hardware storage drives for full disk encryption.

D.

TPM will provide full disk encryption automatically.

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Questions 73

The security department was notified about vulnerabilities regarding users' identity verification in a web application. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the security professional MOST likely to test?

Options:

A.

Exposure of sensitive information

B.

Use of hard-coded passwords

C.

Trust boundary violation

D.

Improper authentication

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Questions 74

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of sharing assessment results among key organizational officials across information boundaries?

Options:

A.

Facilitates development of organization-wide security metrics

B.

Allows management to assess which organizational elements have the best security practices

C.

Provides the organization a wider view of systemic weaknesses and deficiencies in their information systems

D.

Identifies areas that require additional training emphasis in each organizational element

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Questions 75

Which of the following design considerations would offer the BEST protection against unauthorized access to the facility?

Options:

A.

Allowing only one person to enter at a time

B.

Auditing access logs annually

C.

Limiting access to regular business hours only

D.

Establishing entry points from public areas only

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Questions 76

At which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer does User Datagram Protocol (UDP) function?

Options:

A.

Layer 1

B.

Layer 2

C.

Layer 4

D.

Layer 3

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Questions 77

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by adapting a cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A structured risk management process

B.

A common set of security capabilities

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A common language and methodology

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Questions 78

A hot Disaster Recovery (DR) data center is the victim of a data breach. The hackers are able to access and copy 10GB of clear text confidential information. Which of the following could have decreased the amount of exposure from this data breach?

Options:

A.

Encryption in transit

B.

Layer 7 filtering

C.

Encryption at rest

D.

Password hashing

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Questions 79

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 80

Which of the following outcomes Is a benefit of mixed-model scheduling?

Options:

A.

Increased inventory

B.

Improved demand response

C.

Fewer setups

D.

Fewer material shortages

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Questions 81

Which of the following procedures should be defined when establishing information and asset handling requirements?

Options:

A.

Asset retention procedures

B.

Software patching procedures

C.

Media disposal procedures

D.

User access procedures

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Questions 82

A cybersecurity analyst is responsible for identifying potential security threats and vulnerabilities in the organization's software systems. Which action BEST demonstrates the understanding and application of threat modeling concepts and methodologies?

Options:

A.

Implementing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

B.

Conducting access control assessments for the data center

C.

Analyzing potential attack vectors for a new software application

D.

Developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for critical systems

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Questions 83

Which of the following ensures privileges are current and appropriately reflect an individual’s authorized roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Access authorization

B.

Identity management

C.

Access approval

D.

Access review

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Questions 84

Which of the following vulnerability types is also known as a serialization flaw and affects the integrity of two processes interacting with the same resource at the same time?

Options:

A.

Boundary condition

B.

Buffer overflow

C.

Race condition

D.

Integer overflow

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Questions 85

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

Options:

A.

Head of human capital

B.

Head of compliance

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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Questions 86

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity And Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate business needs.

C.

Engage the sponsor and identify Key stakeholders.

D.

Engage the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

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Questions 87

An organization is aiming to be System and Organization Controls (SOC) 2 certified by an audit organization to demonstrate its security and availability maturity to its sub service organizations. Which type of audit does this engagement BEST describe?

Options:

A.

Forensic audit

B.

Third-party audit

C.

Location audit

D.

Internal audit

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Questions 88

A reduction In purchased lot sizes will reduce which of the following items?

Options:

A.

Inventory levels

B.

Frequency of orders

C.

Reorder points (ROPs)

D.

Setuptimes

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Questions 89

A cybersecurity professional has been tasked with instituting a risk management function at a new organization. Which of the following is the MOST important step the professional should take in this endeavor?

Options:

A.

Determine the acceptable level of loss exposure at which the organization is comfortable operating.

B.

Conduct a gap assessment and produce a risk rating report for the executive leadership.

C.

Engage consultants to audit the organization against best practices and provide a risk report.

D.

Implement an enterprise Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) management solution.

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Questions 90

Health information stored in paper form may be destroyed using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

Shredding

B.

Degaussing

C.

De-identification

D.

Archiving

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Questions 91

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

Options:

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

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Questions 92

Which of the following stock location systems would you use in a repetitive manufacturing, lean environment?

Options:

A.

Fixed location

B.

Floating location

C.

Point-of-use storage

D.

Central storage

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Questions 93

An organization is looking to integrate security concepts into the code development process early in development to detect issues before the software is launched. Which advantage does the organization gain from using Static Application Security Testing (SAST) techniques versus dynamic application security testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Allows tailored techniques

B.

Executes code to detect issues

C.

Allows for earlier vulnerability detection

D.

Simulates attacker patterns

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Questions 94

An executive wants to ensure that risk related to information operations is managed in accordance with the enterprise's risk management thresholds. What is the BEST way to ensure this consistently occurs?

Options:

A.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to corporate officers.

B.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to cybersecurity analysts.

C.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to business unit managers.

D.

Publish and enforce enterprise policies that assign risk decisions to system administrators.

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Questions 95

A low-cost provider strategy works best when which of the following conditions are met?

Options:

A.

Price competition among rivals is similar.

B.

Buyers are more price sensitive.

C.

There are many ways to achieve product differentiation.

D.

There are few industry newcomers.

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Questions 96

The production plan relates to a firm's financial planning because it is used to:

Options:

A.

calculate standard product costs.

B.

determine variable costs.

C.

project payroll costs.

D.

identify future cash needs.

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Questions 97

Which software development methodology is an iterative customer-value-centric approach which helps teams deliver value to their customers faster and with fewer problems?

Options:

A.

Agile model

B.

Cleanroom model

C.

Waterfall model

D.

Incremental model

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Questions 98

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

Options:

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

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Questions 99

Which of the following is the MOST effective practice for tracking organizational assets when removed from the premises?

Options:

A.

Removal is authorized directly by executive management.

B.

Removal is authorized using a formal sign-out process.

C.

Removal is authorized when remote use is required for business.

D.

Removal is authorized if the asset has been disposed of.

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Questions 100

A third-party vendor is procured to conduct a non-financial audit. Which report evaluates the effectiveness of the controls?

Options:

A.

Statement of Auditing Standards (SAS) 70

B.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 1

C.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 2

D.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 3

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Questions 101

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S&OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

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Questions 102

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Questions 103

An attacker was able to identify an organization’s wireless network, collect proprietary network resource information, and capture several user credentials. The attacker then used that information to conduct a more sophisticated and impactful attack against the organization. Which method did the attacker MOST likely use to gather the initial information?

Options:

A.

Proxy manipulation and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

B.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and proxy manipulation

C.

Rogue access point and Man-in-the-Middle (MITM) attack

D.

Media Access Control (MAC) spoofing and rogue access point

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Questions 104

In preparing for a facility location decision, proximity to suppliers would be classified as which kind of criteria?

Options:

A.

Service level requirements

B.

Future flexibility factors

C.

Access to transportation

D.

Cost factors

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Questions 105

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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Questions 106

An organization wants to ensure the security of communications across its environment. What is the BEST way to provide confidentiality of data from handheld wireless devices to the internal network?

Options:

A.

Transmission encryption

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Single Sign-On (SSO)

D.

Transmission authentication

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Questions 107

A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?

Options:

A.

Select, install, and implement EDI software.

B.

Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.

C.

Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.

D.

Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.

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Questions 108

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

Options:

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

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Questions 109

During a threat modeling exercise using the Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE) framework, it was identified that a web server allocates a socket and forks each time it receives a request from a user without limiting the number of connections or requests.

Which of the following security objectives is MOST likely absent in the web server?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Authenticity

C.

Availability

D.

Authorization

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Questions 110

How would blockchain technology support requirements for sharing audit information among a community of organizations?

Options:

A.

By creating a cryptographically signed event-specific audit block

B.

By creating a centralized audit aggregation service

C.

By creating a centralized digital ledger system

D.

By creating a decentralized digital ledger of cryptographically signed transactions

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Questions 111

Maintaining software asset security is MOST dependent on what information?

Options:

A.

Software licensing

B.

Asset ownership

C.

Inventory of software

D.

Classification level

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Questions 112

To ensure the quality of its newly developed software, an organization is aiming to deploy an automated testing tool that validates the source code. What type of testing BEST supports this capability?

Options:

A.

Network vulnerability scanning

B.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

C.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

D.

Fuzz parsing

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Questions 113

An organization recently created a new accounting department, and that department is critical in the event of a disaster for the operations to continue. Which steps should the organization take to create a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?

Options:

A.

Test, maintain, implement, deliver, and execute

B.

Plan, implement, execute, deliver, and document

C.

Understand, plan, deliver, implement, and execute

D.

Understand, plan, deliver, test, and maintain

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Questions 114

A startup organization has been growing rapidly and is planning to open a new office on another continent. Until infrastructure for the new office can be built, the organization is setting up remote access to the existing network. Which of the following is the MOST important secure implementation to complete during the expansion?

Options:

A.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Cybersecurity training

C.

Password management software

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

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Questions 115

Which of the following are compromised in an untrusted network using public key cryptography when a digitally signed message is modified without being detected?

Options:

A.

Integrity and authentication

B.

Integrity and non-repuditation

C.

Integrity and availability

D.

Confidentiality and availability

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Questions 116

In Company XYZ, transaction-costing capability has been Integrated into the shop floor reporting system. A batch of 20 units was started in production. At the fourth operation, 20 units are reported as complete. At the fifth operation, 25 units are reported as complete. When all operations are complete, 20 units are checked into the stockroom. If the error at the fifth operation is undetected, which of the following conditions will be true?

Options:

A.

Stockroom inventory balance will be incorrect.

B.

Operator efficiency for the fifth operation will be overstated.

C.

Units in process will be understated.

D.

Work-in-process (WIP) cost will be understated.

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Questions 117

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

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Questions 118

A security engineer needs to perform threat modeling on a microprocessor design for an Internet of Things (IoT) application. Using the MITRE Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) catalog for hardware, a risk analysis is performed. What kind of threat modeling approach would be BEST to identify entry points into the system based on motivation?

Options:

A.

System centric

B.

Attacker centric

C.

Threat centric

D.

Asset centric

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Questions 119

A life cycle assessment (LCA) would be used to determine:

Options:

A.

the length of a long-term agreement.

B.

how an Item should be scheduled.

C.

environmental aspects and impacts.

D.

If risk pooling would reduce inventory investment.

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Questions 120

An example of a cradle-to-cradle sustainability model would be:

Options:

A.

a laundry service collects dirty baby clothes from families; cleans the clothes in large, efficient batches; and then sorts and delivers the clothes back to each family.

B.

a coffee shop collects paper waste in its restaurants, has a selected supplier collect the paper waste to be recycled, and then purchases paper products from that supplier.

C.

a company uses wood that has been gathered from multiple sources to construct items, such as beds and toys for babies and young children.

D.

a bank offers the lowest interest rates on loans to firms that are committed to using recycled materials and implementing zero-waste initiatives in their processes.

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Questions 121

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

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Questions 122

An organization wants to implement Zero Trust (ZT). The Information Technology (IT) department is already using Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and Identity and Access Management (IAM). Which of the following would be the BEST solution for the organization to implement in order to have a ZT network?

Options:

A.

Next-generation firewall

B.

Host-Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS)

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

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Questions 123

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

Options:

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

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Questions 124

Which of the following factors typically would distort a sales forecast that is based solely on shipment history?

Options:

A.

Material shortages

B.

Labor rate changes

C.

Currency exchange rates

D.

Customer demands

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Questions 125

When conducting a vulnerability test using a scanner tool, which unintended consequence can occur?

Options:

A.

Opening of previously closed ports

B.

Adding administrator rights on servers

C.

Performing a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack

D.

Creating a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) condition

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Questions 126

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

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Questions 127

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach.

Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Common configuration enumerations

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

D.

National vulnerability database

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Questions 128

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an international organization with offices operating globally has been tasked with developing a new data encryption policy that can be applied to all areas of the business. What is the MOST important factor that must be considered?

Options:

A.

Organization's security policy and standards

B.

How data will be stored and accessed

C.

Regulatory and compliance requirements

D.

Where data will be stored and accessed

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Questions 129

A healthcare organization is preparing an exercise test plan of its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) for the Electronic Medical Record (EMR) application. The Business Continuity (BC) analyst is reviewing the requirements of the DRP. The EMR must provide basic charting services within 4 hours, must not lose more than 15 minutes of data, and must be fully functional within 12 hours. At the completion of the exercise, the analyst is preparing a lessons learned report and notes that the EMR was available after 3 hours and 25 minutes of data was lost. Which PRIMARY requirement needs to be addressed because of the exercise?

Options:

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Mean Time to Recovery (MTTR)

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Questions 130

In pyramid forecasting, the "roll up" process begins with:

Options:

A.

combining individual product item forecasts into forecasts for product families.

B.

combining forecasts for product families into a total business forecast.

C.

allocating total business forecast changes to product families.

D.

allocating product family forecast changes to individual products.

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Questions 131

Which of the following trade-offs should be evaluated when determining where to place inventory in a multi-echelon supply chain network?

Options:

A.

Production cost and lot size quantity

B.

Purchase cost and shrinkage rates

C.

Transportation cost and delivery time

D.

Customer price and order quantity

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Questions 132

What does the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) method define?

Options:

A.

What equipment is needed to perform

B.

How information is accessed within a system

C.

What actions the user can or cannot do

D.

How to apply the security labels in a system

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Questions 133

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

Options:

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

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Questions 134

Which of the following is the MOST significant flaw when using Federated Identity Management (FIM)?

Options:

A.

The initial cost of the setup is prohibitively high for small business.

B.

The token stored by the Identity Provider (IdP) may need to be renewed.

C.

The token generated by the Identity Provider (IdP) may be corrupted.

D.

The participating members in a federation may not adhere to the same rules of governance.

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Questions 135

An organization is implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and needs a strategy to measure device trust for employee laptops. Which measurement strategy is BEST suited and why?

Options:

A.

Remote using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) due to better protection of the keys

B.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because low-level access software can be accessed

C.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

D.

Remote using a scanning device because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

E.

Local using Mobile Device Management (MDM) because of device policy enforcement

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Questions 136

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

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Questions 137

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA&M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 138

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 139

An executive is approved to travel to a high-risk country. What is the BEST action the organization can take to ensure the executive’s safety and security?

Options:

A.

Provide travel security training.

B.

Provide specific pre-travel intelligence briefing.

C.

Complete a travel risk assessment.

D.

Refresh the corporate travel policy.

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Questions 140

Which of the following is the BEST option for a security director to use in order to mitigate the risk of inappropriate use of credentials by individuals with administrative rights?

Options:

A.

Have administrators sign appropriate access agreements.

B.

Define the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) for administrators.

C.

Have administrators accept a Non-Disclosure Agreement.

D.

Perform extensive background checks on administrators.

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Questions 141

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

Options:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

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Questions 142

A planner has chosen to increase the order point for a raw material. Which of the following costs is most likely to increase?

Options:

A.

Carrying

B.

Ordering

C.

Landed

D.

Product

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Questions 143

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

Options:

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

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Questions 144

A web developer was recently asked to create an organization portal that allows users to retrieve contacts from a popular social media platform using Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). Which of the following is BEST suited for authorizing the resource owner to the social media platform?

Options:

A.

Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0

B.

OpenID Connect (OIDC)

C.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

D.

Secure Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

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Questions 145

What General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) principle says that data should be collected lawfully and with the person’s consent?

Options:

A.

Legitimate data collection

B.

Limitation of use

C.

Collection Categorization

D.

Collection limitation

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Questions 146

In which of the following environments is capable-to-promise (CTP) more appropriate than available-to-promise (ATP)?

Options:

A.

Consumer electronics sold through local retailers

B.

Industrial supplies shipped from regional distribution centers (DCs)

C.

Packaged foods sold in grocery stores

D.

Specialty chemicals packaged and shipped to order

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Questions 147

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

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Questions 148

Which of the following BEST describes how an Application Programming Interface (API) gateway fits into an application architecture?

Options:

A.

An API gateway is a specialized reverse proxy that can make different APIs appear as if they are a single API.

B.

An API gateway inspects traffic and blocks many common attacks against Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) web services.

C.

An API gateway ensures that a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) attack cannot occur within the application.

D.

An API gateway monitors traffic within internal networks and ensures suspicious patterns are detected on any API.

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Questions 149

An organization has a legacy application used in production. Security updates are no longer provided, which makes the legacy application vulnerable. The legacy application stores Social Security numbers and credit card numbers. Which actions will BEST reduce the risk?

Options:

A.

Submit a security exception for the application and remove it from vulnerability scanning

B.

Report to the privacy officer and increase logging and monitoring of the application

C.

Continue to operate and monitor the application until it is no longer needed

D.

Implement compensating controls and prioritize upgrading the application

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Questions 150

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Initiate the organization’s Incident Response Plan (IRP).

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Review logs of all user’s social media activity.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

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Questions 151

A company decided not to pursue a business opportunity In a foreign market due to political Instability and currency fluctuations. Which risk control strategy did this business utilize?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Prevention

C.

Recovery

D.

Wait and see

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Questions 152

Which technology is BEST suited to establish a secure communications link between an individual’s home office and the organization’s Local Area Network (LAN)?

Options:

A.

Switched Port Analyzer (SPAN)

B.

Representational State Transfer (REST)

C.

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 153

An organization is migrating its access controls to a certificate-based authentication system.

What will need to be established to verify the identity of all users connecting to the network before rolling out the system?

Options:

A.

A biometric system needs to scan unique attributes of all users.

B.

A Certificate Authority (CA) needs to issue new passwords to all users.

C.

A Certificate Authority (CA) needs to issue the certificates to all users.

D.

A challenge response system needs to validate all user access.

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Questions 154

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

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Questions 155

Which of the following factors Is considered a carrying cost?

Options:

A.

Setup

B.

Transportation

C.

Obsolescence

D.

Scrap rate

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Questions 156

Which of the following BEST describes web service security conformance testing as it relates to web services security testing?

Options:

A.

Generally includes threat modeling, requirements risk analysis, and security modeling

B.

Focused on ensuring that the security functionally performed by a web service meets its stated requirements

C.

Ensure individual protocol implementations adhere to the relevant published standards

D.

Focused on the smallest unit of the web service application, apart from the rest of the application

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Questions 157

Additional requirements that are outside the original design are being added to a project, increasing the timeline and cost of the project.

What BEST describes the requirement changes that are happening?

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Stove-piped requirements

C.

Non-verifiable requirements

D.

Scope creep

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Questions 158

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

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Questions 159

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

Options:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

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Questions 160

An information security professional is considering what type of classification label to place on an organization’s software code in order to implement proper access controls. The code is considered intellectual property data and would have a catastrophic impact to the organization if compromised or destroyed. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate classification label to apply?

Options:

A.

Sensitive

B.

Confidential

C.

Internal Use Only

D.

Public

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Questions 161

A large volume of outbound Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connections from the same source Internet Protocol (IP) address was observed at a satellite office firewall. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?

Options:

A.

There is only one managed switch port device on the satellite network.

B.

The command and control server has shut down all but one host.

C.

The network hosts are behind a Network Address Translation (NAT) device.

D.

The malware has shut down all but one host used for command and control.

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Questions 162

Open Authorized (OAuth) has been chosen as technology to use across applications in the enterprise. Which of the following statements is TRUE about an OAuth token?

Options:

A.

Does not specify a time interval

B.

Can be used for authentication

C.

Can be used across multiple sites

D.

Specifies what information can be accessed

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Questions 163

What is an important countermeasure to consider when hardening network devices and servers to reduce the effectiveness of unauthorized network scanning?

Options:

A.

Filter inbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

B.

Filter inbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

C.

Filter outbound logging and auditing configuration of all network devices.

D.

Filter outbound Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) messages at the network edge.

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Questions 164

Which of the following factors is the MOST important consideration for a security team when determining when determining whether cryptographic erasure can be used for disposal of a device?

Options:

A.

If the methods meet the International organization For Standardization/International Electrotechnical Commission (ISO/IEC) 27001.

B.

If the data on the device exceeds what cryptographic erasure can safely process.

C.

If the device was encrypted prior using cipher block chaining.

D.

If the security policies allow for cryptographic erasure based on the data stored on the device.

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Questions 165

Which of the following terms below BEST describes the measure of confidence that the security features, practices, procedures, and architecture of an information system accurately mediates and enforces security policy?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Residual risk

C.

Security architecture

D.

Security assurance

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Questions 166

A company that uses concurrent engineering is likely to experience which of the following outcomes in the first period of a product's life cycle?

Options:

A.

Fewer product design changes

B.

An increase in obsolete inventory

C.

More accurate forecasting

D.

Conflicts between purchasing and engineering

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Questions 167

Which of the following statements best characterizes enterprise resources planning (ERP) systems?

Options:

A.

They track activity from customer order through payment.

B.

They are expensive but easy to implement.

C.

They provide real-time planning and scheduling, decision support, available-to-promise (ATP), and capable-to-promise (CTP) capabilities.

D.

They are used for strategic reporting requirements.

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Questions 168

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

Options:

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

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Questions 169

Which threat modeling methodology is focused on assessing risks from organizational assets?

Options:

A.

Process For Attack Simulation And Threat Analysis (PASTA)

B.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, And Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

C.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

D.

Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

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Questions 170

Capacity requirements planning (CRP) is applicable primarily In companies operating In an environment where:

Options:

A.

backlog is very low.

B.

the status of work orders is disregarded.

C.

lean principles are used.

D.

material requirements planning (MRP) is used.

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Questions 171

Which of the following is the BEST solution to implement to mitigate the risk of data breach in the event of a lost or stolen mobile device?

Options:

A.

Mobile application management

B.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy

C.

Network Access Control (NAC)

D.

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

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Questions 172

Which of the following environments is most suitable for the use of kanban systems?

Options:

A.

Short product life cycles

B.

High levels of customization

C.

Intermittent production

D.

Stable and predictable demand

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Questions 173

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

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Questions 174

An independent risk assessment determined that a hospital's existing policies did not have a formal process in place to address system misuse, abuse, or fraudulent activity by internal users. Which of the following would BEST address this deficiency in the Corrective Action Plan?

Options:

A.

Create and deploy policies and procedures

B.

Develop and implement a sanction policy

C.

Implement a risk management program

D.

Perform a security control gap analysis

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Questions 175

Which of the following mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart side channel attacks?

Options:

A.

Honeypots

B.

Adding listening devices

C.

Adding noise

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

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Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: Nov 18, 2025
Questions: 585
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