CAS-004 CompTIA SecurityX Certification Exam Questions and Answers

An ISA, or interconnection security agreement, is a document that should be required to set up a dedicated VPN between two entities that provide specialized help desk services. An ISA defines the technical and security requirements for establishing, operating, and maintaining a secure connection between two or more organizations. An ISA also specifies the roles and responsibilities of each party, the security controls and policies to be implemented, the data types and classifications to be exchanged, and the incident response procedures to be followed.

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process’ memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process’ memory space.

WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:

https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3

https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption

https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3-enterprise/

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:

https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf

https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki

https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

Netstat is a command-line tool that can be used to find the malicious process that is using a specific port on a Windows workstation. Netstat displays active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics (for the IP, ICMP, TCP, and UDP protocols), and IPv6 statistics (for the IPv6, ICMPv6, TCP over IPv6, and UDP over IPv6 protocols). To find the process that is using a specific port, such as TCP 40322, the security engineer can use the following command:

netstat -ano | findstr :40322

This command will filter the netstat output by the port number and show the process identifier (PID) of the process that is using that port. The security engineer can then use the task manager or another tool to identify and terminate the malicious process by its PID. Verified References:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-commands/netstat

https://www.howtogeek.com/28609/how-can-i-tell-what-is-listening-on-a-tcpip-port-in-windows/

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack

https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks

https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

Initiate a legal hold.

Refer to the retention policy

Perform e-discovery.

Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonablyanticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/

https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must alsoensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate thatcan secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

The cloud architecture team should implement Autoscaling (C), WAF (D) and Encryption (F). Autoscaling (C) will ensure that the application is running at 70% capacity at all times. WAF (D) will protect the application from DoS and DDoS attacks. Encryption (F) will protect the data from unauthorized access and ensure that the sensitive workloads remain secure.

An EDR and whitelist should protect from this attack.

B. Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .

D. PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .

F. SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can helpmeet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .

The inability to select AES-256 encryption will most likely be a limiting factor when selecting mobile device managers for the company. AES-256 is a symmetric encryption algorithm that uses a 256-bit key to encrypt and decrypt data. It is considered one of the strongest encryption methods available and is widely used for securing sensitive data. Mobile device managers are software applications that allow administrators to remotely manage and secure mobile devices used by employees. However, not all mobile device managers may support AES-256 encryption or allow the company to enforce it as a policy on all mobile devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://searchmobilecomputing.techtarget.com/definition/mobile-device-management

Soft delete allows blobs to be deleted, but the data remains accessible for a period of time before it is permanently deleted. This allows the company to delete blobs as needed, while still affording enough time for the backup process to complete. After the backup process is complete, the blobs can be permanently deleted.

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

OCSP stapling and HSTS are the best options to meet the requirements of reducing the risk of on-path attacks and implementing stronger digital trust. OCSP stapling allows the social media servers to improve TLS performance by sending a signed certificate status along with the certificate, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately. HSTS allows the social media servers to inform the client to only use HTTPS and prevent downgrade attacks. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

User and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to monitor and detect unusual or malicious activity by privileged users who failed the phishing exercise. UEBA uses machine learning and behavioral analytics to establish a baseline of normal activity and identify anomalies that indicate potential threats. UEBA can help detect compromised credentials, insider threats, and advanced persistent threats that may evade traditional security solutions. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario. 

A TLS inspection proxy can be used to monitor and enforce policy on HTTPS connections, ensuring that only valid traffic is allowed through and malicious traffic is blocked. Additionally, a filesystemintegrity monitoring service can be installed and configured on the telemetry server to monitor for any changes to the filesystem, allowing any malicious changes to be detected and blocked.

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. VerifiedReferences: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

DRM (digital rights management) is a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by restricting the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices. DRM can use encryption, authentication, licensing, watermarking, or other methods to enforce the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can preventunauthorized copying, sharing, or piracy of digital content, such as software, music, movies, or books. Watermarking is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can embed identifying information or marks in digital content or media, such as images, audio, or video. Watermarking can help prove ownership or origin of digital content, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a legal contract that binds parties to keep certain information confidential and not disclose it to unauthorized parties. NDA can help protect sensitive or proprietary information from exposure or misuse, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of it. Access logging is not a technology that can protect intellectual property from theft by itself, but a technique that can record the activities or events related to accessing data or resources. Access logging can help monitor or audit access to data or resources, but it does not prevent unauthorized access or use of them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-drm https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can helpforensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Isolating the servers is the best immediate action to take after reporting the incident to the management team, as it can limit the damage and contain the ransomware infection. Paying the ransom is not advisable, as it does not guarantee the recovery of the data and may encourage further attacks. Notifying law enforcement is a possible step, but not the next one after reporting. Requesting that theaffected servers be restored immediately may not be feasible or effective, as it depends on the availability and integrity of backups, and it does not address the root cause of the attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware-and-how-to-protect-yourself https://www.comptia.org/certifications/comptia-advanced-security-practitioner

Remotely wiping the device is the best way to secure the data on the lost device, as it would erase all the data and prevent unauthorized access. Requiring a VPN to be active to access company data may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Setting up different profiles based on the person’s risk may not prevent data loss or theft, as it depends on the level of access and encryption. Requiring MFA to access company applications may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-byod https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The main rights for individuals under the GDPR are to:

allow subject access

have inaccuracies corrected

have information erased

prevent direct marketing

prevent automated decision-making and profiling

allow data portability (as per the paragraph above)

source: https://www.clouddirect.net/11-things-you-must-do-now-for-gdpr-compliance/

These are two of the requirements of the GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation), which is a legal framework that sets guidelines for the collection and processing of personal data of individuals within the European Union (EU). The GDPR also requires data controllers to obtain consent from data subjects, protect data with appropriate security measures, notify data subjects and authorities of data breaches, and appoint a data protection officer.

https://eklitzke.org/memory-protection-and-aslr

ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a technology that can mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. ASLR randomizes the location of memory segments, such as the stack, heap, or libraries, making it harder for an attacker to predict or control where to inject malicious code or overwrite memory segments. NX bit (No-eXecute bit) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. NX bit marks certain memory segments as non-executable, preventing an attacker from running code in those segments. DEP (Data Execution Prevention) is a technology that can mitigate the execution of malicious code injected by a buffer overflow attack. DEP uses hardware and software mechanisms to mark certain memory regions as data-only, preventing an attacker from running code in those regions. HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a device that can provide cryptographic functions and key storage, but it does not mitigate the manipulation of memory segments caused by a buffer overflow attack. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-aslr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 This could be the cause of the lack of visibility from the WAF (Web Application Firewall) for the web application, as the WAF may not be able to inspect or block unencrypted HTTP traffic. To solve this issue, the web server should redirect all HTTP requests to HTTPS and use SSL/TLS certificates to encrypt the traffic.

Utilizing a source code escrow will reduce the operational risk to the company if the third party stops supporting the application, as it will provide access to the latest version of the source code to continue development. A source code escrow is an agreement between a software developer and a client that involves depositing the source code of a software product with a third-party escrow agent. The escrow agent can release the source code to the client under certain conditions specified in the agreement, such as bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by thedeveloper. The company will not be able to force the third-party developer to continue support, manage their development process, or pay them to hire a new development team by utilizing a source code escrow. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-source-code-escrow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Steganography is a technique that can hide data within other files or media, such as images, audio, or video. This can provide a low-cost approach to theft detection for the audio recordings produced and sold by the small business, as it can embed identifying information or watermarks in the audio files that can reveal their origin or ownership. Performing deep-packet inspection of all digital audio files may not be feasible or effective for theft detection, as it could consume a lot of bandwidth and resources, and it may not detect hidden data within encrypted packets. Adding identifying filesystem metadata tothe digital audio files may not provide enough protection for theft detection, as filesystem metadata can be easily modified or removed by unauthorized parties. Purchasing and installing a DRM (digital rights management) suite may not be a low-cost approach for theft detection, as it could involve licensing fees and hardware requirements. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Key escrow is the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Key escrow is an arrangement in which the keys needed to decrypt encrypted data are held in escrow by a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, or for complying with legal or regulatory requirements that may demand access to encrypted data.

B. TPM is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. TPM stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a computer. TPM does not involve any third party or escrow service.

C. Trust models are not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Trust models are frameworks that define how entities can establish and maintain trust relationships in a network or system. Trust models do not necessarily involve any third party or escrow service.

D. Code signing is not the system responsible for storing private encryption/decryption files with a third party to ensure these files are stored safely. Code signing is a process of using digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of software code. Code signing does not involve any third party or escrow service.

The security analyst acknowledges this alert because it is a false positive. A false positive is an event classification that indicates a benign or normal activity is mistakenly flagged as malicious or suspicious by the SIEM system. A false positive can occur due to misconfigured rules, outdated signatures, or faulty algorithms. A false positive can waste the security analyst’s time and resources, so it is important to acknowledge and dismiss it after verifying that it is not a real threat. Verified References:

https://www.ibm.com/topics/siem

https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-siem

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/data-insider/what-is-siem.html

The organization’s new email system should provide e-discovery functionality. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can help the organization comply with legal holds, which are orders or notices to preserve relevant ESI when litigation is anticipated or ongoing. E-discovery can also help the organization reduce the costs and risks of litigation, as well as improve the efficiency and accuracy of the discovery process. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/legal-hold

https://www.ibm.com/topics/electronic-discovery

The tools that can be used to provide key information in the risk register are SCAP scanner and vulnerability scanner. SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, which is a set of standards and specifications for automating the management of security configuration, vulnerability assessment, and compliance evaluation. SCAP scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for security issues based on SCAP content. Vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for known vulnerabilities and weaknesses. These tools canhelp the security analyst identify and prioritize the risks associated with the systems and networks, as well as provide possible remediation actions. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Security-Content-Automation-Protocol

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/vulnerability-management

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/vulnerability-scanner

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.

Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.

Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.

Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References:https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

Defenses against BGP hijacks include IP prefix filtering, meaning IP address announcements are sent and accepted only from a small set of well-defined autonomous systems, and monitoring Internet traffic to identify signs of abnormal traffic flows.

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating andstreamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker’s actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access controland isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access onlypredefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Increasing the frequency of backups and creating SIEM (security information and event management) alerts for IOCs (indicators of compromise) are the best recommendations that the management team can make based on RPO (recovery point objective) requirements. RPO is a metric that defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss that can occur during a disaster recovery event. Increasing the frequency of backups can reduce the amount of data loss that can occur, as it can create more recent copies or snapshots of the data. Creating SIEM alerts for IOCs can help detect and respond to ransomware attacks, as it can collect, correlate, and analyze security events and data from various sources and generate alerts based on predefined rules or thresholds. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as encourage more ransomware attacks or expose the company to legal or ethical issues. Leaving the current backup schedule intact and making the human resources fileshare read-only are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as affect the normal operations or functionality of the fileshare. Decreasing the frequency of backups and paying the ransom to decrypt the data are not good recommendations, as they could result in more data loss than the RPO allows, as well as increase the risk of losing data due to less frequent backups or unreliable decryption. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rpo https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A TPM (trusted platform module) is a hardware device that can provide boot loader protection by storing cryptographic keys and verifying the integrity of the boot process. An HSM (hardware security module) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for booting. A PKI (public key infrastructure) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication, but not boot loader protection. UEFI/BIOS are firmware interfaces that control the boot process, but they do not provide protection by themselves. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-tpm-trusted-platform-module https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Implementing cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities is the best solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form. Cloud-based content filtering is a technique that uses acloud service to filter or block web traffic based on predefined rules or policies, preventing unauthorized or malicious access to web resources or services. Cloud-based content filtering canprevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can scan or analyze email attachments before they reach the mailbox and block or quarantine them if they are malicious. Sandboxing is a technique that uses an isolated or virtualized environment to execute or test suspicious or untrusted code or applications, preventing them from affecting the host system or network. Sandboxing can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can run or detonate email attachments in a safe environment and observe their behavior or impact before allowing them to reach the mailbox. Implementing application whitelisting and adding only the email client to the whitelist for laptops in the claims processing department is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the usability or functionality of other applications on the laptops that may be needed for work purposes, as well as not prevent malicious software from running within the email client. Requiring all laptops to connect to the VPN (virtual private network) before accessing email is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for accessing email, as well as not prevent malicious software from reaching or executing on the laptops. Installing a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the normal operations or functionality of email communication, as well as not prevent legitimate attachments from reaching the mailbox. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-based-content-filtering https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

An immutable system is a system that does not change after it is deployed. Any changes or updates are done by creating a new system from a common image or template and replacing the old one. An immutable system meets the requirements of storing data outside of the VMs, preventing unauthorized modifications to the VMs, and deploying a new VM if a change needs to be done. An immutable system can improve the security, reliability, and consistency of the VMs by avoiding configuration drift, human errors, or malicious tampering. An immutable system can also simplify the deployment process and enable faster recovery from failures. Verified References:

https://cloudinfrastructureservices.co.uk/vm-types-for-devops-pets-vs-cattle-vs-immutable/

https://www.digitalocean.com/community/tutorials/what-is-immutable-infrastructure

A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

B. Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C. Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secretsto anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D. Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, becauseit does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services

https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

Utilizing HMAC (hash-based message authentication code) for the keys is the best option for securing the REST API connection to the database while preventing the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. HMAC is a technique that uses a secret key and a hash function to generate a code that can verify the authenticity and integrity of a message, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Utilizing HMAC for the keys can prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string, as it can dynamically generate a unique code for each request based on the secret key and the message content, making it difficult to forge or replay. Implementing a VPN (virtual private network) for all APIs is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Signingthe key with DSA (Digital Signature Algorithm) is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could be vulnerable to attacks or forgery if the key is compromised or weak, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Deploying MFA (multi-factor authentication) for the service accounts is not a good option for securing the REST API connection to the database, as it could affect the usability or functionality of API requests, as well as not prevent the use of a hard-coded string in the request string. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-hmac https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is a standard that would be best suited for creating checks for a zero-day vulnerability in an organization’s internally developed software. OVAL is a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. An engineer can use OVAL to create definitions or tests for specific vulnerabilities or states in the software, and then use OVAL-compatible tools to scan or evaluate the software against those definitions or tests. ARF (Asset Reporting Format) is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a standard forexpressing information about assets and their characteristics in an XML format, allowing interoperability and automation among different security tools and platforms. ISACs (Information Sharing and Analysis Centers) are not standards for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but organizations that collect, analyze, and disseminate information about threats, vulnerabilities, incidents, or best practices among different sectors or communities. Node.js is not a standard for creating checks for vulnerabilities, but a runtime environment that allows executing JavaScript code outside of a web browser, enabling the development of scalable web applications or services. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-oval https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Digital signatures require the use of a cryptographic key pair, which consists of a private key used to sign the application and a public key used to verify the signature. If the certificate used for signing the application is set for the wrong key usage, then the signature will fail. This can happen if the certificate is set for encrypting data instead of signing data, or if the certificate is set for the wrong algorithm, such as using an RSA key for an ECDSA signature.

Shredding is the most secure way to dispose of the SSDs given the CISO’s concern. Shredding involves physically destroying the SSDs by cutting them into small pieces that make the data unrecoverable. Shredding is the ultimate data destruction method for both HDDs and SSDs, as it ensures that no data remanence is left on the media.

Dual control is a security principle that requires two or more authorized individuals to perform a task concurrently. This reduces the risk of fraud, error, or misuse of sensitive assets or information. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2018/volume-1/using-dual-control-to-mitigate-risk

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

A single-tenancy SaaS solution is the best solution for this company. SaaS stands for software as a service, which is a cloud-based model that allows customers to access applications hosted by a provider over the internet. A single-tenancy SaaS solution means that the company has its own dedicated instance of the application and its underlying infrastructure, which offers more control, customization, and security than a multi-tenancy SaaS solution where multiple customers share the same resources. A single-tenancy SaaS solution also eliminates the need for managing a private cloud or an on-premises infrastructure. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.ibm.com/cloud/learn/saas

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy.References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

A wildcard certificate is a certificate that can be used for multiple subdomains of a domain, such as *.example.com. This would allow the inspection of the data without multiple certificate deployments, as one wildcard certificate can cover all the subdomains that will be separated out with subdomains. Including all available cipher suites may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as cipher suites are used for negotiating encryption and authentication algorithms, not for verifying certificates. Using a third-party CA (certificate authority) may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as a third-party CA is an entity that issues and validates certificates, not a type of certificate. Implementing certificate pinning may not help with inspecting the data without multiple certificate deployments, as certificate pinning is a technique that hardcodes the expected certificate or public key in the application code, not a type of certificate. Verified References:https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-wildcard-certificate https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, ordenial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.

Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.

Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.

Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Utilizing code signing by a trusted third party and making the DACL (discretionary access control list) read-only are actions that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users. Code signing is a technique that uses digital signatures to verify the authenticity and integrity of code, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. A trusted third party, such as a certificate authority, can issue and validate digital certificates for code signing. A DACL is an attribute of an object that defines the permissions granted or denied to users or groups for accessing or modifying the object. Making the DACL read-only can prevent unauthorized users or groups from changing the permissions or accessing the code. Implementing certificate-based authentication is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for verifying the identity of users or devices based on digital certificates, preventing unauthorized access or impersonation. Verifying MD5 hashes is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for checking the integrity of files based on cryptographic hash functions, detecting accidental or intentional changes or corruption. Compressing the program with a password is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for reducing the size of files and protecting them with a password, preventing unauthorized access or extraction. Encrypting with 3DES is not an action that the developer can perform to maintain integrity to each module of a program and ensure the code cannot be altered by malicious users, but a method for protecting the confidentiality of data based on symmetric-key encryption algorithms, preventing unauthorized disclosure or interception. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-code-signing https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculativeinstruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never

https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture–VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

IMAPS (Internet Message Access Protocol Secure) is a protocol that allows users to access and manipulate email messages on a remote mail server over a secure connection. IMAPS uses SSL/TLS encryption to protect the communication between the client and the server. IMAPS uses port 993 by default. To ensure IMAPS functions properly on the corporate user network, the security engineer should create an IMAPS firewall rule on the UTM (Unified Threat Management) device that allows traffic from VLAN 10 (Corporate Users) to VLAN 20 (Email Server) over port 993. The existing firewall rules do not allow this traffic, as they only allow HTTP (port 80), HTTPS (port 443), and SMTP (port 25). References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/2460/internet-message-access-protocol-secure-imaps https://www.sophos.com/en-us/support/knowledgebase/115145.aspx

VPN Concentrator:

AAA Server:

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption method that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without first decrypting it with a secret key. The results of the computations also remain encrypted and can only be decrypted by the owner of the private key. Homomorphic encryption can be used for privacy-preserving outsourced storage and computation. This means that data can be encrypted and sent to a cloud service provider (CSP) for processing, without revealing any information to the CSP or anyone else who might intercept the data. Homomorphic encryption can enable new services and applications that require processing confidential data on a large number of resources, such as machine learning, data analytics, health care, finance, and voting.

A. Processing data on a server after decrypting in order to prevent unauthorized access in transit is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use casecan be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data in transit.

B. Maintaining the confidentiality of data both at rest and in transit to and from a CSP for processing is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not take advantage of the main feature of homomorphic encryption, which is computing over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest and in transit.

D. Storing proprietary data across multiple nodes in a private cloud to prevent access by unauthenticated users is not a common use case for homomorphic encryption, because it does not involve any computation over encrypted data. This use case can be achieved by using any standard encryption method that provides confidentiality for data at rest.

https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/homomorphic-encryption.html

https://research.aimultiple.com/homomorphic-encryption/

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.

Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.

Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest

https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a search pattern for matching text. A regex can be used to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server by matching the indicators of compromise (IOC) in the network traffic.

In this case, the systems administrator should use the regex Host: [a-z]*.malicious.com to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives, because this regex would:

Match the Host header in the HTTP request, which specifies the domain name of the command-and-control server.

Allow any subdomain under the malicious.com domain, by using the character class [a-z]*, which matches zero or more lowercase letters.

Escape the dot character in the domain name, by using the backslash , which prevents it from being interpreted as a wildcard that matches any character.

Not match any other parts of the IOC that could change, such as the URL path, the User-Agent header, or the HTTP method.

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a technology that allows organizations to use multiple, low-cost Internet connections to create a secure and dynamic WAN. SD-WAN can provide benefits such as lower costs, higher performance, and easier management compared to traditional WAN technologies, such as MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching).

However, SD-WAN also introduces some potential risks, such as:

The reliability and security of the Internet connections, which may vary depending on the location, provider, and traffic conditions.

The compatibility and interoperability of the SD-WAN hardware and software, which may come from different vendors or use different standards.

The availability and quality of the SD-WAN provider’s support, which may depend on the provider’s size, reputation, and outsourcing practices.

In this case, the CISO would most likely identify the risk that the SD-WAN provider uses a third party for support, because this could:

Affect the organization’s ability to resolve issues or request changes in a timely and effective manner.

Expose the organization’s network data and configuration to unauthorized or malicious parties.

Increase the complexity and uncertainty of the SD-WAN service level agreement (SLA) and contract terms.

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher toencrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization’s identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:

https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificates

https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens

The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private. HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks. SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications. Verified References:

https://www.ericsson.com/en/blog/2021/7/cryptography-and-privacy-protecting-private-data

https://www.mdpi.com/journal/cryptography/special_issues/Preserve_Enhance_Privacy

https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11432-021-3393-x

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4

https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

Load balancer and autoscaling are the solutions that should be implemented to address the requirements of optimizing system capacity and reducing cost for an e-commerce site in the cloud. A load balancer is a device or service that distributes incoming network traffic across multiple servers or instances based on various criteria, such as availability, performance, or location. A load balancer can improve system capacity by balancing the workload and preventing overloading or underutilization of resources. Autoscaling is a feature that allows cloud services to automatically adjust the number of servers orinstances based on the demand or predefined rules. Autoscaling can reduce cost by scaling up or down the resources as needed, avoiding unnecessary expenses or wastage.

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

Rules of engagement are legal documents that should be signed by all parties involved in an assessment to ensure they understand their roles and responsibilities. Rules of engagement define the scope, objectives, methods, deliverables, limitations, and expectations of an assessment project. They also specify the legal and ethical boundaries, communication channels, escalation procedures, and reporting formats for the assessment. Rules of engagement help to avoid misunderstandings, conflicts, or liabilities during or after an assessment.

The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, dataencipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:

https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-windows-8-7-vista/

https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/

https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-22bd163e8e96

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

Delivering an updated threat signature throughout the endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is the best way to take advantage of the security solution that uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. An EDR system is a solution that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, mobile devices, or servers, and detects and responds to potential threats. An EDR system can use threat signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known malicious software or attacks, to identify and block malicious activities on endpoints. By delivering an updated threat signature based on the indicators ofcompromise collected from the sandbox environment, the organization can enhance its EDR system’s ability to detect and prevent zero-day attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. Verified References:

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-endpoint-detection-response.html

https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-a-sandbox/

Comprehensive and Detailed Step by Step Explanation:

The issue stems from Web Server C's new IP (10.2.0.92) not being included in thefirewall rules.

To resolve the issue,modify the firewall rules to include the new IP range(e.g., 10.2.0.0/26) rather than adding a specific host rule, ensuring scalability and simplicity.

Changing inbound or outbound security group rules would still miss the underlying issue of omitted IPs.

Reconfiguring the IP is unnecessary when updating firewall rules is sufficient.

UEBA (User and Entity Behavior Analytics)uses machine learning and advanced analytics to detect abnormal patterns of behavior, such as unusual access or actions by employees.

Implementing UEBA automates the analysis of logs and identifies suspicious activities, significantly reducing the manual effort required.

OptionB(HSM) is incorrect because a hardware security module is used for secure key management, not log analysis.

OptionC(HIPS) is incorrect because a host intrusion prevention system focuses on preventing attacks on endpoints rather than log analysis.

OptionD(XDR) extends threat detection and response across multiple domains, but it is broader in scope and does not focus specifically on user behavior analysis.

OptionE(OPSEC training) is valuable for educating employees but does not streamline the breach investigation process.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Understanding the Vulnerability:

The payload presented is a classic example of anXML External Entity (XXE) attack.

In this attack, an attacker exploits improperly configured XML parsers to includeexternal entitiesthat can read sensitive files, such as/etc/passwdon Linux systems.

XXE vulnerabilities occur when:

XML input containing aDOCTYPEdeclaration is processed.

The parser is configured to resolve external entities.

Why the Correct Answer is B (Input validation):

Input validationis the most effective way to prevent XXE attacks.

Proper validation ensures thatmalicious XML entities are not accepted or processed.

Techniques to mitigate XXE include:

Disabling DTDs (Document Type Definitions)in XML parsers.

Implementingsecure parser configurationsthat do not process external entities.

Performingschema validationto restrict allowed XML elements.

Many modern XML parsers provide options todisable external entity processingentirely, significantly reducing the risk of XXE.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. CAPTCHA:

CAPTCHAs prevent automated bots from interacting with web forms but donot mitigate XML parser vulnerabilities.

CAPTCHAs addressautomated input, notmalicious payloads.

C. Data encoding:

Encoding data can preventinjection attacks, such as XSS, but it does not specifically address the issue ofexternal entity resolutionin XML.

Encoding cannot prevent the parser from interpretingDOCTYPEor external entity references.

D. Network intrusion prevention:

AnNIPS (Network Intrusion Prevention System)may detect some XXE attempts but isnot the primary method of prevention.

Relying solely on network-level security does not address theapplication-layer vulnerabilityitself.

Additional Best Practices:

Use libraries or frameworks that do not support XML parsing oruse safer alternatives like JSON.

Regularly update XML parsers to the latest version to patch known vulnerabilities.

Conductregular security testing(like dynamic analysis) to identify XXE risks.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

According to theCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guide, XXE vulnerabilities can be mitigated bydisabling external entity processingand using strict input validation to control what types of data are accepted. The guide emphasizes thatproperly configured XML parsersare critical for preventing such attacks, aligning with OWASP guidelines.

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to evaluate and manage privacy risks associated with the collection, use, and storage of personally identifiable information (PII). One of the key functions of a PIA is to document residual risks, which are the privacy risks that remain after controls have been applied. By identifying and documenting these risks, organizations can make informed decisions about whether additional measures are needed or whether certain risks are acceptable.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

Understanding Vulnerability Scanning Types:

Vulnerability scans can be categorized by two major factors:

Active vs. Passive:

Active Scans:Actively probe the target system, gathering detailed data.

Passive Scans:Monitor network traffic and analyze data without directly probing the system.

Credentialed vs. Non-Credentialed:

Credentialed Scans:Utilize valid user credentials to access system information.

Non-Credentialed Scans:Rely on publicly accessible data and network probing.

Why the Correct Answer is D (An active, credentialed scan):

Anactive, credentialed scancombinesdirect system probingwithauthorized access.

This scan type provides themost accurate and comprehensive data, including:

Configuration settings:Verifies security configurations likefirewall rules, user privileges, and patch levels.

Detailed vulnerability data:Can accessinternal system informationandlog files.

Thorough system analysis:Can enumeratesoftware versions, system settings, and misconfigurations.

Credentialed scans canaccess local configuration filesandOS-level data, giving afull pictureof the system's security posture.

Example Scenario:

A systems administrator wants to verify thatall systems are patchedand properly configured according tocompany policies.

Anactive, credentialed scancan log into each system anddirectly check patch versionsandconfiguration files, while anon-credentialed scanwould only be able to detect open ports and basic system information.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A passive, credentialed scan:

Passive scansdo not interact directlywith the system, even if credentials are available.

Theylack accuracyin identifyingconfiguration settingssince they onlymonitor traffic.

B. A passive, non-credentialed scan:

This method is theleast accurateas it onlymonitors network trafficwithout logging into systems.

Providessurface-level informationand is typically used fordetecting anomaliesrather than deep scanning.

C. An active, non-credentialed scan:

Whileactive scanningprovides some detail,non-credentialed scansare limited toexternal checks.

They can detectopen ports and basic vulnerabilitiesbutcannot access internal configurationsor system files.

Key Differences:

Scan Type

Accuracy for Configuration Data

Intrusiveness

Use Case

Passive, Credentialed

Low

Low

Network monitoring

Passive, Non-Credentialed

Very Low

Low

Anomaly detection

Active, Non-Credentialed

Medium

High

Initial vulnerability assessment

Active, Credentialed

High

High

Comprehensive vulnerability analysis

Best Practice:

Always useactive, credentialed scansforin-depth vulnerability assessment, especially when accuracy inconfiguration validationis essential.

Ensure thatcredentials providedfor scanning haveread-only permissionsto minimize risk.

Extract from CompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Study Guide:

TheCompTIA SecurityX CAS-005 Official Study Guidehighlights thatactive, credentialed vulnerability scansare the most thorough and accurate. These scans canaccess system configurations, file permissions, and patch levels, which are crucial formaintaining system security. Non-credentialed scans, while useful forsurface-level checks, do not provide the same level of insight.

To reduce the risk of unauthorized devices accessing company resources, requiring device certificates is an effective control. Device certificates can be used to authenticate devices before they are allowed to connect to the network and access resources, ensuring that only devices with a valid certificate, which are typically managed and issued by the organization, can connect.

Calculating the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) and conducting a cost-benefit analysis is a critical part of risk management. The ALE will help the company understand the potential losses associated with the server failure per year, which can then be weighed against the cost of mitigating the risk (e.g., replacing the server or implementing redundancies). This analysis will inform the decision on the best course of action to manage the risk associated with the aging server.

Step by Step Explanation:

Creating an organizational risk register ensures the issue is documented and prioritized for mitigation, aligning with risk management best practices.

Accepting the risk is not advisable due to the financial implications of failure.

Implementing network compensating controls does not address server reliability.

Purchasing insurance only offsets financial risk and does not ensure system functionality.

Based on the output in the image, which shows weak cipher suites and vulnerabilities related to encryption padding, the padding oracle attack is the most likely. This type of attack exploits the way padding errors are handled during decryption, potentially allowing an attacker to decrypt sensitive information. The weak cipher suites and lack of forward secrecy further increase the likelihood of such an attack succeeding. CASP+ highlights padding oracle attacks as critical vulnerabilities, particularly in environments where weak encryption protocols are used.

A lack of Mobile Device Management (MDM) controls can lead to successful attacks because MDM solutions provide the ability to enforce security policies, remotely wipe sensitive data, and managesoftware updates, which can prevent unauthorized access and protect corporate data. Without MDM, personal devices are more vulnerable to security risks.

Immutable infrastructure through containers ensures that the deployed systems remain consistent and resistant to drift. Any changes require rebuilding and redeploying containers, eliminating configuration inconsistencies. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.2, which emphasizes implementing scalable, secure system configurations.

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In this scenario, the voicemail requesting a wire transfer from an unfamiliar bank account is indicative of a deepfake attack, where attackers use advanced technology to simulate a person’s voice or likeness. Deepfake technology is increasingly being used in social engineering attacks to impersonate executives or trusted individuals. This attack attempts to manipulate employees by making them believe they are receiving legitimate requests from high-ranking personnel. CASP+ discusses advanced threats like deepfakes, which leverage AI to bypass traditional security awareness defenses.

Air gapping, which means physically isolating a secure network from unsecured networks, including the public internet, is one of the most effective ways to prevent side-channel attacks. By creating an air gap, you remove the pathways that an attacker might exploit to gain unauthorized access to sensitive systems and manipulate them, as in the case of the SCADA system mentioned.

Given the vulnerability in the deprecated runtime engine, configuring an IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) and WAF (Web Application Firewall) with appropriate signatures is the best temporary control. This allows the organization to monitor and block potential attacks targeting known vulnerabilities in the runtime engine while the developers work on the transition. Shutting down the systems or uninstalling the runtime engine would cause service interruptions, and blocking traffic might disrupt legitimate users. IPS and WAF provide an active layer of defense without interrupting service. CASP+ emphasizes the use of layered security, including IPS and WAF, to mitigate risks in public-facing applications.

In this scenario, the web application is disclosing sensitive debugging information when an error occurs. To mitigate this risk, the best solution is to implement proper error message handling routines that ensure detailed debugging information is not exposed to users. Instead, the application shoulddisplay generic error messages to the end-user while logging detailed information securely for internal troubleshooting. This approach reduces the risk of information disclosure, which is a common vulnerability in web applications. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of secure error handling as part of secure software development practices.

ssdeep is a tool that computes and matches Context Triggered Piecewise Hashing (CTPH), also known as fuzzy hashing. It can be used to identify similar files or slight variations of the same file, which may point to the creator of the file if certain patterns or markers are consistently present. This method allows for integrity checking without altering the evidence, which is critical in forensic investigation.

Labeling files and requiring formal access authorization is a method that aligns with the principle of least privilege and the need-to-know basis. By assigning labels to files based on their sensitivity and requiring formal access approval from the data owner, the security officer can ensure that only personnel with the necessary clearance and a legitimate need to access the information can do so. This approach helps in maintaining data confidentiality and integrity in line with the project's security requirements.

Step by Step Explanation:

Server authentication certificates are used to secure web communication (e.g., HTTPS).

Submitting a CSR (Certificate Signing Request) for a server authentication certificate ensures the web services can securely establish encrypted communication.

Other options, such as email encryption or software signing, do not apply in this scenario.

A directory traversal attack exploits vulnerabilities in file path handling to access unauthorized files, as seen in this example. To mitigate, sanitize user inputs and avoid directly passing user-supplied data to the filesystem. This aligns with CASP+ objective 1.5, addressing secure input validation and mitigating common web-based vulnerabilities.

A network traffic analyzer (also known as a packet sniffer) is the best tool to identify credentials being transmitted in plaintext, such as those used in Telnet sessions. Since Telnet transmits data without encryption, a network traffic analyzer can capture the traffic between the client and the network switches, revealing sensitive information, including login credentials, in clear text. This tool helps identify insecure protocols and enables remediation by switching to encrypted alternatives like SSH. CASP+ highlights the importance of using secure protocols and tools like traffic analyzers to identify vulnerabilities in network communications.

To prioritize server replacements based on the likelihood of failure, the MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures) metric is most appropriate. MTBF provides a measure of the average time a server or system is expected to operate before experiencing failure. This allows the management team to assess which servers are more likely to fail soon, irrespective of the application criticality, and thus should be replaced first. CASP+ highlights the use of MTBF in hardware lifecycle management and risk assessments.

Step by Step Explanation:

Drive encryption protects sensitive data at rest by ensuring unauthorized access cannot expose the data if the physical endpoint is compromised.

Patch management is a necessary security control but does not specifically address endpoint hardening for sensitive data.

Event logging aids in monitoring and incident detection but does not directly harden endpoints.

Resource monitoring manages system performance and availability but is unrelated to data security.

In the context of a private cryptographic key suspected to be exposed, the best immediate action is to revoke the certificate associated with that key. Revoking the certificate ensures that it cannot be used toestablish new secure sessions, which prevents attackers from using the potentially compromised key to impersonate or decrypt communications. The revocation process typically involves updating the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or leveraging the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), both of which are used by clients to check the validity of certificates.

A spam campaign is a mass distribution of unsolicited or fraudulent emails that may contain malicious links, attachments, or requests. Spam campaigns are often used by attackers to deliver ransomware, which is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption.

Simulating a spam campaign would allow the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate whether the training has been successful in reducing the number of successful ransomware attacks that have hit the company, because it would:

Test the employees’ ability to recognize and avoid clicking on fake or malicious emails, which is one of the main vectors for ransomware infection.

Measure the effectiveness of the training by comparing the click-through rate and the infection rate before and after the training.

Provide feedback and reinforcement to the employees by informing them of their performance and reminding them of the best practices for email security.

Tokenization is the best solution to protect payment card data from unauthorized disclosure when moving to the cloud. Tokenization replaces sensitive card data with unique identifiers (tokens) that have no exploitable value outside the tokenization system. Even if the data is compromised, the attacker would not obtain actual card numbers. This is in line with PCI DSS requirements for protecting payment card information. Other solutions like encryption at rest or field masking help, but tokenization provides the strongest protection by ensuring that card data is not stored at all.

The primary goal of an after-action review (AAR) is to evaluate the response to an incident critically and identify what was done well and what could be improved. An AAR is a structured review or de-brief process for analyzing what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better by the participants and those responsible for the project or event.

When a security researcher identifies a vulnerability, especially one involving remote code execution, they must navigate a process that protects them legally and ethically. The best advice here is to consult with legal professionals to understand any liabilities, such as potential violations of non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) or intellectual property concerns. Legal consultation ensures that the researcherfollows responsible disclosure practices and avoids legal repercussions, which aligns with CASP+ guidance on managing vulnerabilities and the responsible handling of sensitive security information. CompTIA CASP+ emphasizes the importance of adhering to legal and regulatory frameworks when reporting vulnerabilities, especially when dealing with former employers or clients.

In this case, the security engineer is assessing a web application that uses SAML, and dynamic analysis (also known as DAST – Dynamic Application Security Testing) is the most appropriate method toidentify potential authentication issues. Dynamic analysis tests the application in a runtime environment, allowing the engineer to identify vulnerabilities that arise during actual application execution, such as SAML misconfigurations or other authentication weaknesses. This is more effective for finding authentication issues compared to static analysis, which only reviews code without execution. CASP+ highlights the importance of dynamic testing in identifying real-world vulnerabilities, especially in web applications.

A business impact analysis (BIA) is the most useful resource for calculating the exposure factor in a risk assessment. The BIA helps identify the criticality of systems and processes and quantifies the potential financial and operational impact of vulnerabilities being exploited. By understanding the business impact, the security team can more accurately determine the exposure factor, which is the proportion of an asset's value that is at risk in the event of a security incident. CASP+ highlights the role of BIAs in understanding risk exposure and supporting effective risk management decisions.

Encrypt all data and files at rest, in transit, and in use:Comprehensive encryption ensures data confidentiality is maintained throughout its lifecycle, meeting the requirement for secure data handling.

Configure SOAR to monitor and intercept files and data leaving the network:A SOAR system provides automated response capabilities to detect and mitigate data exfiltration attempts dynamically.

This aligns with CASP+ objectives 4.2 and 4.3, which emphasize securing data and using advanced monitoring tools to mitigate risks in sensitive environments.

The scan output in line 06 indicates that OCSP Must-Staple is not supported. This vulnerability exposes the application to attacks where an attacker can exploit the trust relationship between the client and the server by forging certificate revocation statuses. When OCSP stapling is not enforced, a client cannot reliably check if a certificate has been revoked, potentially allowing attackers to exploit this gap. CASP+ discusses the importance of certificate validation mechanisms such as OCSP (Online Certificate Status Protocol) to prevent man-in-the-middle and trust-exploiting attacks.

When conducting a risk assessment for a vendor that provides multiple products, it is important to perform the assessment at the individual product level. Each product might have different risk factors, security requirements, and vulnerabilities, so assessing each one ensures a comprehensive understanding of the risks involved. Assessing randomly or only major products could leave gaps in understanding the risks for smaller but still critical products. CASP+ emphasizes that risk assessments should be detailed and product-specific for a thorough evaluation.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions provide continuous monitoring and response to advanced threats. They can help mitigate the risk of not having visibility into off-network activities by detecting, investigating, and responding to suspicious activities on endpoints, regardless of their location.

Overloading a machine learning system with incorrect information is an example of poisoning the data set, which can compromise the integrity of decision-making processes. This aligns with CASP+ objective 2.3, which involves threat modeling and mitigating risks associated with AI and ML systems.

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Before migrating previously isolated systems to the cloud, it is essential to perform patching and hardening. These systems may have been neglected while isolated, so updating them with the latest security patches and applying hardening measures (such as disabling unnecessary services and implementing strict access controls) is crucial to reduce vulnerabilities. This ensures that the systems are secure before they are exposed to the wider cloud environment. CASP+ emphasizes the importance of securing systems through patch management and hardening before integrating them into more exposed environments like the cloud.

Embedded facility automation systems are often difficult to upgrade because they are constrained by available compute. These systems typically have limited processing power, memory, and storage, which restricts the ability to implement modern security measures, such as encryption, software updates, or advanced security controls. Security engineers may be unable to apply patches or updates without exceeding the system’s capacity. CASP+ discusses the challenges posed by resource-constrained devices, particularly in embedded systems and IoT environments, where upgrading security can be difficult due to hardware limitations.

The source code in this scenario uses insecure functions like strcpy which are known for not checking buffer sizes, leading to buffer overflow vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is to update the company’s secure coding policy to prohibit the use of insecure functions and replace them with safer alternatives, such as strncpy, which enforces buffer length checks. Integrating this change into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) ensures that future code adheres to secure practices, thereby reducing the risk of vulnerabilities being introduced into production systems. This approach aligns with CASP+ guidelines that emphasize secure coding practices and policies to prevent common security flaws in software development.

A Hardware Security Module (HSM) provides the best solution for securely backing up MFA seeds in a central, offline location with minimal management overhead. HSMs are specialized hardware devices designed for cryptographic key management, including storing sensitive data like MFA seeds securely. HSMs offer high levels of protection against tampering and provide offline security, making them an ideal choice for backing up cryptographic materials. CASP+ recognizes HSMs as critical components for managing and securing cryptographic keys in centralized, secure environments.

Avoiding the risk by shutting down the application and migrating to a supported, alternative platform is the most effective option based on the provided scenario. The application is non-critical, provides no revenue, and replacing it has a nominal cost, making risk avoidance the ideal choice. This aligns with the CASP+ objective of implementing risk strategies (1.3) and emphasizes prioritizing cost-effective and practical solutions over maintaining deprecated or vulnerable systems.

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Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

In a SaaS cloud service model, the client is typically responsible for the data, including its security and compliance aspects. The SaaS provider would handle the infrastructure, including physical security and network security, but the client must ensure the data they input into the SaaS application is protected in line with their own security policies and compliance requirements.

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) should highlight social engineering as an area of increased vulnerability due to the lack of completion of security awareness training by employees. Social engineering attacks exploit human behavior, and employees who are not adequately trained are more likely to fall victim to phishing, pretexting, and other types of social engineering tactics. Increasing awareness and training helps employees recognize and respond appropriately to these threats.