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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Who in the project is responsible for benefits realisation?

Options:

A.

The senior management of the organisation.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The sponsor.

D The end users.

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Questions 5

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

Options:

A.

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

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Questions 6

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

Options:

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

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Questions 7

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Questions 8

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

Options:

A.

to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.

B.

to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.

C.

to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.

D.

to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders

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Questions 9

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Questions 10

The main purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project.

B.

ensure that the final product meets the strategic needs of the business.

C.

provide control of the deliverables and avoid mistakes or misunderstandings.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements on the project deliverables.

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Questions 11

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Questions 12

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

Options:

A.

The starting point for creating a resource histogram.

B.

The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.

C.

The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.

D.

The basis for progress monitoring.

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Questions 13

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 14

The purpose of project management is to:

Options:

A.

organise management plans.

B.

keep all stakeholders happy.

C.

control change initiatives.

D.

effect beneficial change.

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Questions 15

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.

B.

A. draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.

C.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

D.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

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Questions 16

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 17

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Questions 18

Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?

Options:

A.

It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.

B.

It facilitates the risk appetite.

C.

It facilitates the recording of risk responses.

D.

It facilitates the recording of risks.

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Questions 19

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

Options:

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

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Questions 20

Resource smoothing is used when:

Options:

A.

quality is more important than cost.

B.

quality is more important than scope.

C.

scope is more important than time.

D.

time is more important than cost.

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Questions 21

For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

Options:

A.

Skills of the team delivering the project.

B.

Project objectives.

C.

Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place.

D.

Location of the venue Where risk identification Will take place

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Questions 22

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

Options:

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

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Questions 23

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:

Options:

A.

indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

B.

ensure adequate resource allocation.

C.

indicate what is important in supplier selection.

D.

ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

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Questions 24

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

Options:

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

Options:

A.

A. project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

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Questions 26

Which one of the following does not describe the prime purpose of the business case?

Options:

A.

To define the strategic direction for the project.

B.

To describe the operational impact of project delivery.

C.

To show how the project tasks will be scheduled to achieve success criteria.

D.

To document the benefits of the various options that have been considered.

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Questions 27

What information would be expected as content for a business case?

Options:

A.

A. detailed schedule of the project.

B.

An outline of the project management team.

C.

An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

D.

detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

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Questions 28

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Options:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

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Questions 29

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Questions 30

A project manager has a team member who is creative, unconventional and good at solving problems, but who doesn't always concentrate on details or communicate well. According to Belbin's model, which team role will best use this person's qualities?

Options:

A.

Completer-Finisher.

B.

Plant.

C.

Monitor-Evaluator.

D.

Specialist.

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Questions 31

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Questions 32

Project reporting can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

informing stakeholders about the project.

B.

storing and archiving of project information.

C.

gathering stakeholder feedback.

D.

collecting project information.

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Questions 33

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:

Options:

A.

contribute to the project's procurement strategy.

B.

help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

C.

provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.

D.

determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

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Questions 34

Comparative estimating uses:

Options:

A.

current data from similar projects.

B.

historic data from all projects.

C.

historic data from similar projects.

D.

current data from all projects.

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Questions 35

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Questions 36

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

Options:

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

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Questions 37

Portfolio management involves:

1) selection

2) control

3) prioritisation

4) transition

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Questions 38

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Options:

A.

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.

providing information to all stakeholders.

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Questions 39

Which of these is a key aspect of Programme Management?

Options:

A.

Business as usual reporting

B.

Strategic direction

C.

Benefits management

D.

Managing the project schedules

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Questions 40

Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

Options:

A.

A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.

B.

A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.

C.

A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

D.

A project is a method of planning work.

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Questions 41

Where in the project life cycle would the project manager typically be appointed?

Options:

A.

At the start of the concept phase.

B.

At the start of the definition phase.

C.

At the start of the development phase.

D.

At the end of the handover stage.

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Questions 42

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost estimating.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Questions 43

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

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Questions 44

A portfolio can best be defined as:

Options:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

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Questions 45

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

Options:

A.

A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

B.

Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

C.

It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

D.

Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

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Questions 46

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

Options:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

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Questions 47

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

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Questions 48

Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship?

Options:

A.

Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need.

B.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity.

C.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost.

D.

Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is most true of the business case?

Options:

A.

It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach.

B.

It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

D.

It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate.

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Questions 50

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

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Questions 51

One of the benefits of developing communication plans in projects is that this ensures:

Options:

A.

the power and influence of stakeholders is understood.

B.

that all communication is delivered face to face.

C.

your message is understood.

D.

clear reporting lines for the project.

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Questions 52

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

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Questions 53

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Questions 54

Which one of the following best describes A. programme?

Options:

A.

A group of projects collected together that have a common purpose.

B.

A group of projects collected together for management convenience.

C.

A group of projects collected together because of their use of common resources.

D.

A group of projects collected together because of their relationship to business-as-usual.

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Questions 55

Which one of the following is a generic project management process?

Options:

A.

Risk management.

B.

Learning and closing.

C.

Staff appraisal.

D.

Quality management.

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Questions 56

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

Options:

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

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Questions 57

What could be considered a significant barrier to communication?

Options:

A.

Use of body language.

B.

Having formal meetings.

C.

Attitudes, emotions and prejudices.

D.

Use of informal communication channels

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Questions 58

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Questions 59

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

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Questions 60

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

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Questions 61

A project manager requires a team member to focus on the team's objectives and draw out other team members. Which of the Belbin's team roles is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Shaper.

B.

Monitor evaluator.

C.

Specialist.

D.

Co-ordinator

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Questions 62

Which of the following is included in a Procurement Strategy?

Options:

A.

Benefits

B.

Stakeholder list

C.

Contract pricing information

D.

Specification of works

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Questions 63

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

Options:

A.

Definition and delivery.

B.

Time, cost and quality.

C.

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.

Cost and scope.

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Questions 64

Portfolio management includes prioritising:

Options:

A.

projects and/or programmes that contribute directly to the organisation's strategic objectives.

B.

projects with exceptionally high returns on investment.

C.

projects and programmes over business as usual.

D.

projects which maximise change over those which maximise investment

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Questions 65

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Options:

A.

The life cycle phases.

B.

The logical order of tasks.

C.

The scope of the project.

D.

Project costs.

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Questions 66

Controlling or influencing project success factors will:

Options:

A.

increase the likelihood of a successful project.

B.

ensure senior management support.

C.

measure progress towards a successful conclusion.

D.

ensure project completion.

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Questions 67

The combination of which two structures creates the responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)?

Options:

A.

OBS and CBS.

B.

OBS and WBS.

C.

PBS and CBS.

D.

WBS and CBS.

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Questions 68

Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

Options:

A.

It is a personal appraisal for each team member on completion Of the project.

B.

It appraises the products of the project.

C.

It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

D It involves only the project implementation team.

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Questions 69

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

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Questions 70

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

Options:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Questions 71

Which of the following define leadership?

1) Ability to establish vision and direction

2) Developing team skills that enhance project performance3) Empowering and inspiring people to achieve success

4) Ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 4

B.

1, 2 & 3

C.

2, 3 & 4

D.

1, 3 & 4

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Questions 72

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

A Gantt chart.

B.

A critical path network.

C.

A product flow diagram.

D.

A Pareto chart.

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Questions 73

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

Options:

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

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Questions 74

Project success criteria are best defined as:

Options:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Questions 75

Which of the following best describes a project environment?

Options:

A.

The type of organisation concerned with implementation.

B.

The structured method used to control the project.

C.

The context within which a project is undertaken.

D.

An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

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Questions 76

Which of the following is an activity in a typical change control process?

Options:

A.

Recommendation.

B.

Justification.

C.

Planning.

D.

Continuous improvement

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Questions 77

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Questions 78

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

Options:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

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Questions 79

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

Options:

A.

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

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Questions 80

When in the project life cycle should the deployment baseline be formed?

Options:

A.

Deployment phase.

B.

Concept phase.

C.

Definition phase.

D.

Transition phase.

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Questions 81

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

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Questions 82

Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

Options:

A.

A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.

B.

A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.

C.

A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.

D.

A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.

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Questions 83

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

Options:

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Questions 84

How is it determined whether a deliverable conforms to its requirements and configuration information?

Options:

A.

A configuration management plan is produced

B.

A configuration identification reference is allocated to the deliverable.

C.

A configuration verification audit is performed.

D.

A status accounting report is produced.

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Questions 85

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

B.

A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

C.

An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

D.

A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

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Questions 86

When managing risks, reducing the probability of a threat is considered to be am:

Options:

A.

proactive response.

B.

reactive response.

C.

proactive fallback.

D.

reactive fallback.

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Questions 87

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

Options:

A.

Actively seeking some senior management support.

B.

Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

C.

Achievement of milestones.

D.

A motivated project team.

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Questions 88

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:

Options:

A.

stakeholder engagement.

B.

funding for the project.

C.

buy in from the project sponsor.

D.

goods and services required for the project.

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Questions 89

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Questions 90

How is 'quality' best defined?

Options:

A.

The process of evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

The fitness for purpose or the degree of conformance of the outputs of a process or the process itself to requirements.

C.

A. discipline for ensuring the outputs, benefits and the processes by which they are delivered meet stakeholder requirements and are fit for purpose.

D.

The satisfaction of stakeholder needs measured by the success criteria as identified and agreed at the start of the project.

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Questions 91

Three general categories for interpretation of communication could be described as:

Options:

A.

email, paper, Voice.

B.

tactile/visual, auditory, written.

C.

telephone, computer. microphone.

D.

reception, transmission, interruption.

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Questions 92

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

Options:

A.

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.

assessed to determine its potential impact.

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Questions 93

The main aim of quality management is to:

Options:

A.

prepare a high-quality management plan.

B.

ensure that deliverables meet appropriate standards.

C.

validate the use of consistent standards.

D.

determine whether to accept change requests.

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Questions 94

Programme Management can BEST be described as...

Options:

A.

the management of multiple projects by one project manager.

B.

the management of very large, complex projects.

C.

the means of linking business strategy to projects within an organisation.

D.

a fashionable term which means the same as Project Management.

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Questions 95

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The PMP acts as a contract between the Project Manager, the project team and the sponsor.

B.

The PMP defines the baselines for the project upon which changes are considered.

C.

The PMP, once defined, will remain unchanged throughout the project.

D.

The PMP is used as a reference document for managing the project.

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Questions 96

The group whose remit is to set the strategic direction of a project is commonly known as:

Options:

A.

the project management team.

B.

primary user group.

C.

steering group.

D supplier group.

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Questions 97

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Organisational breakdown structure.

C.

Product breakdown structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure

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Questions 98

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

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Questions 99

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Questions 100

What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor.

B.

The actual impact of the change is assessed.

C.

The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible.

D.

The related plans must be updated to reflect the change.

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Questions 101

In A. RACI coding format, what does 'A' stand for?

Options:

A.

Available.

B.

Authorised.

C.

Accountable.

D.

Acceptable.

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Questions 102

Which of the following best describes a project's business case?

Options:

A.

The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits.

B.

A. statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/ deliverables

C.

The reason why the project wants the project to proceed.

D A. statement as to how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor

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Questions 103

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Questions 104

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 105

What is meant by the term programme management?

Options:

A.

The management of A. group of projects or activities that have a common business aim.

B.

The line management of A. team of programme managers.

C.

The management of A. functional are aused by a number of different projects.

D.

The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan

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Questions 106

The project management plan:

Options:

A.

justifies undertaking the project.

B.

describes the success criteria for the project.

C.

focuses primarily on time related issues.

D.

describes the success factor for the project.

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Questions 107

A key aspect of managing a project involves:

Options:

A.

defining which operational systems to put in place.

B.

identifying routine tasks.

C.

ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.

D.

planning to achieve defined objectives.

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Questions 108

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 109

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

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Questions 110

What estimating method is most commonly used in the definition phase Of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Analogous.

B.

Analytical

C.

Parametric.

D.

Statistical

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Questions 111

Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?

Options:

A.

Total and free float.

B.

Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.

C.

Project completion time.

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

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Questions 112

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

B.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

C.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.

D.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

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Questions 113

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

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Questions 114

The business case is owned by the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

sponsor.

C.

steering group (board).

D.

senior user.

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Questions 115

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

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Questions 116

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

B.

balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

C.

mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

D.

chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

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Questions 117

The project team comprises:

Options:

A.

all those responsible to the project manager who are working towards the project objectives.

B.

the members of staff who are allocated full time to the project.

C.

the members of staff who report to the project manager and who carry out work on the project.

D.

all project stakeholders.

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Questions 118

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?

Options:

A.

Defines the sequence of activities.

B.

Considers work calendars and time contingency.

C.

Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

D.

Quantifies the required resources.

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Questions 119

What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme?

Options:

A.

Reduced schedule time.

B.

increased cost.

C.

Increased efficiency and flexibility.

D.

Reduced risk

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Questions 120

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Questions 121

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

Options:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

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Questions 122

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Options:

A.

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 409
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