Accounting-for-Decision-Makers WGU Accounting for Decision Makers C213 VAC2 Questions and Answers

The correct answer is C. Total variable costs will decrease in direct proportion . Variable costs change in total as activity or sales volume changes. When sales volume decreases, total variable costs also decrease proportionally because fewer units are produced or sold. Multiple accounting references explain that total variable cost rises and falls with the level of activity, while the variable cost per unit remains constant within the relevant range.

Option A is the opposite of what happens when volume falls. Options B and D are incorrect because total fixed costs generally remain unchanged within the relevant range regardless of short-term changes in sales volume. OpenStax notes that fixed costs are present regardless of production or sales levels, while variable costs occur only as items or services are produced and sold.

This distinction is central to cost behavior analysis and profit planning. As volume declines, total variable costs go down in direct proportion, but total fixed costs do not normally move with sales in the short run. Therefore, the correct answer is Option C .

The correct answer is C. Raw materials cost . A cost incurred as part of the production process is a product cost , and raw materials are one of the most direct examples. In manufacturing, raw materials are inputs physically used to create finished goods, so they are clearly part of production. Manufacturing cost guidance consistently identifies direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead as production-related costs.

Option A, sunk cost , refers to a past cost that has already been incurred and cannot be changed, so it is a decision-making concept rather than a specific production input. Option B, opportunity cost , represents the benefit forgone by choosing one alternative over another, not an actual recorded production cost. Option D, period cost , refers to costs such as selling and administrative expenses that are expensed in the period incurred and are not part of the manufacturing process. Because raw materials are directly consumed in producing goods, they are the clearest example of a cost incurred as part of production. Therefore, the correct answer is Raw materials cost , making Option C correct.

The correct answer is B. Whether a company’s financial statements fairly reflect its financial position . The purpose of an external audit is for the independent auditor to express an opinion on whether the financial statements present fairly, in all material respects , the company’s financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework. PCAOB auditing standards state this explicitly in the required auditor’s report language.

Option A is incorrect because anyone reading the income statement can see whether the company reported a profit or loss; that alone is not the purpose of the audit. Option C is incorrect because tax liability is not what the audit opinion is primarily determining. Option D is also incorrect because an audit does not certify that the statements were prepared by a particular kind of employee such as a trained bookkeeper. Instead, the audit evaluates whether the statements are fairly presented and free of material misstatement. Therefore, the best answer is that an external audit helps determine whether the company’s financial statements fairly reflect its financial position .

The correct answers are A. Factory electricity costs and C. Production employee benefits . Inventory overhead, more commonly called manufacturing overhead , includes indirect production costs incurred in the factory that cannot be traced directly to a specific unit of output. Factory utilities such as electricity used to run production equipment are standard manufacturing overhead items, and production-related employee benefits are also part of factory overhead when they relate to manufacturing personnel rather than direct administrative staff. AccountingCoach lists factory electricity and factory personnel costs other than direct labor as examples of manufacturing overhead.

Option B. Administrative office electricity costs and D. Administrative employee benefits are not inventory overhead. They are period costs or administrative expenses because they relate to general office operations rather than production. Inventory costs include those necessary to bring goods to a saleable condition, while administrative costs are expensed in the period incurred. Therefore, the two costs that belong in inventory overhead are the factory-related utility cost and the production-related employee benefit cost. That makes A and C the correct answers.

The correct answer is C . A central role of the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) is to protect investors and promote fair, orderly, and efficient markets by requiring public companies to provide reliable, useful disclosure. The SEC’s stated mission is to protect investors , maintain fair and orderly markets, and facilitate capital formation. In financial reporting terms, this means helping ensure that users of financial statements receive credible information for decision-making.

Option A is incorrect because the SEC is not primarily a training body for controllers. Option B is also incorrect because ensuring auditors have resources is not the SEC’s core financial reporting role. Option D is too broad and management-focused; the SEC’s primary public-facing purpose is investor protection through disclosure oversight and enforcement. Public company filings such as Forms 10-K and 10-Q exist so investors and other users can evaluate financial condition, performance, and risk using standardized information. Therefore, the best answer is that the SEC helps ensure financial statement users are provided with reliable information for decision-making.

A balance sheet shows the company’s financial position at a specific point in time , so Option C is correct. It reports what the business owns (assets), what it owes (liabilities), and usually owners’ or stockholders’ equity as of a particular date. This is why the balance sheet is often described as a snapshot rather than a report covering a span of time. Authoritative accounting learning materials describe the balance sheet as presenting assets, liabilities, and equity “as of” a date or at a specific moment.

Option A is incorrect because revenues and expenses for a period of time belong to the income statement , not the balance sheet. Option D is incorrect because cash collections and cash expenditures for a period of time are presented in the statement of cash flows . Option B is also incorrect because cash inflows and outflows are not reported only at a single point in time; they are summarized over a period. Therefore, the best answer is the one identifying the balance sheet as a statement of assets and liabilities at a specific point in time .

The correct answer is A. Assets . Assets are economic resources a business owns or controls that can either be converted into cash or used to help generate future cash inflows. Accounting references describe assets as items a business owns, including current assets such as cash, accounts receivable, and inventory, as well as long-term assets like equipment, buildings, and intangible assets that support future operations.

Option B, liabilities , refers to obligations or amounts the business owes to others, not what it owns. Option C, revenues , represents inflows earned from providing goods or services during a period and is an income statement category, not a balance sheet resource category. Option D, owners’ equity , reflects the residual interest of the owners after liabilities are deducted from assets. Because the question asks about what the company owns and what can be turned into cash or used to generate cash, the most accurate balance sheet category is assets. Current assets are especially important because they are closest to cash, but the broader correct category remains Assets . Therefore, Option A is the right answer.

The correct answer is D. $17,700 . To find the ending cash balance, start with the beginning cash balance and then add all cash inflows and subtract all cash outflows.

Beginning cash = $1,200

Inflows:

Cash from sales = $16,000

Cash received from non-trading securities = $5,000

Cash received from loans = $8,000

Total inflows = $29,000

Outflows:

Wages and salaries paid = $4,500

Cash paid for plant assets = $6,000

Cash paid in repayment of loans = $2,000

Total outflows = $12,500

Now calculate ending cash:

Ending cash = $1,200 + $29,000 - $12,500 = $17,700

This is the amount of cash remaining after considering all listed cash transactions. The classification of the cash flows is not necessary to solve the question, but they include operating, investing, and financing effects. What matters mathematically is that every cash receipt increases total cash and every cash payment decreases it. Since the net increase in cash is $16,500 , adding that to the beginning cash of $1,200 gives $17,700 . Therefore, Option D is correct.

The correct answer is C. Increase in assets by $750 and increase in liability by $750 . When a company purchases supplies on credit, it receives an asset now and promises to pay later. The supplies increase the company’s assets , and the amount owed to the seller increases liabilities , usually as accounts payable. This keeps the accounting equation balanced:

Assets = Liabilities + Equity

Here, assets rise by $750 and liabilities also rise by $750 , while equity is unchanged at the time of purchase. OpenStax explains that buying items on account increases the related asset and increases accounts payable.

Option A is incorrect because liabilities do not decrease. Option B is incorrect because assets do not decrease when the company receives supplies. Option D is incorrect because neither side decreases at the moment of purchase. The expense is not recognized immediately unless the supplies are consumed; initially, the company records the asset and the obligation. This is a common transaction used to show how dual effects maintain balance in the accounting equation. Therefore, the correct impact is an increase in assets and an equal increase in liabilities , which is Option C .

The correct answer is D. The Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) . The PCAOB was created to oversee the audits of public companies and SEC-registered brokers and dealers in order to protect investors and support the public interest in accurate, independent audit reports. Its responsibilities include registration of audit firms, inspections, enforcement, and audit-related standard-setting. Because the question refers to a CPA firm auditing a large, publicly traded company , PCAOB oversight is the correct regulatory answer.

Option A is incorrect because FASB sets accounting standards, not audit practice regulation for public company auditors. Option B, FASAC , is an advisory council to FASB and does not regulate audit firms. Option C, the IRS , administers tax laws and does not oversee external audit practices for public companies. In accounting and auditing, it is essential to distinguish between those who set accounting rules and those who supervise auditors. For publicly traded companies, that audit oversight role belongs to the PCAOB , making Option D the only accurate choice.

The correct answer is C. Gross profit percentage increased by 4.2% . Gross profit percentage and cost of goods sold percentage are directly related because together they normally total 100% of sales .

Originally:

Gross profit percentage = 100% - 76.8% = 23.2%

After the change:

Gross profit percentage = 100% - 72.6% = 27.4%

Now calculate the increase:

27.4% - 23.2% = 4.2%

So when the cost of goods sold percentage decreased from 76.8% to 72.6% , the gross profit percentage increased by 4.2% .

Option A is incorrect because the question does not provide enough information to determine the change in net profit percentage , which depends on more than cost of goods sold. Operating expenses, interest, and taxes would also affect net profit. Option B is incorrect for the same reason. Option D is the opposite of what actually happened. Since a lower COGS percentage leaves a larger portion of sales as gross profit, the correct conclusion is that gross profit percentage increased by 4.2% , making Option C correct.

The correct answer is A. Stockholders’ equity will increase by $900,000 . On January 1, the corporation received cash in exchange for issuing stock. That means the company’s assets increase because cash increases, and stockholders’ equity also increases because ownership shares were issued. OpenStax explains that when a company issues stock for cash or other assets, the asset account increases and the related equity accounts are credited.

Option B is incorrect because no borrowing occurred on January 1, so loan payable does not increase from that event. Option C is incorrect because “investments” is not the proper classification for the corporation’s own issuance of stock in this context. Option D is incorrect because retained earnings increase from profitable operations over time, not from owner contributions or stock issuances. This transaction is a classic example of the accounting equation staying balanced: Assets increase by $900,000 and Stockholders’ Equity increases by $900,000 . Therefore, the correct balance sheet effect, along with the rise in cash, is an equal increase in stockholders’ equity .

The correct answer is C . Activity-based costing (ABC) is generally more precise than traditional costing when a company makes multiple products that consume overhead resources differently. ABC assigns overhead by identifying activities and using multiple cost drivers that better reflect how products actually use resources. Sources on ABC explain that it improves cost accuracy compared with traditional systems, especially in more complex production environments.

Option A is incorrect because the statement is reversed. Traditional costing often uses a single volume-based driver such as labor hours or machine hours, while ABC commonly uses multiple cost drivers . Option B is incorrect because ABC is usually more time-consuming and expensive to administer, not less. Option D is also incorrect because ABC is especially useful when products are heterogeneous , meaning they differ in the amount and type of overhead resources they consume. Therefore, the key difference is that ABC gives a more precise assignment of overhead costs than traditional costing when multiple products are produced. That makes Option C the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. Lenders because lenders use financial statements primarily to assess whether a company can repay borrowed money and meet interest and principal obligations. They focus heavily on liquidity, solvency, debt levels, and cash-generating ability before deciding whether to extend credit or approve loans. Accounting learning materials note that lenders often study ratios and financial statement relationships to determine whether a company can cover short-term and long-term obligations.

Management does use financial statements, but mainly for planning, controlling, and decision-making inside the business. Investors are more focused on profitability, growth, dividends, and return on investment. Suppliers may review financial information when offering trade credit, but the group most directly concerned with the company’s ability to repay loans is lenders. In practical terms, lenders analyze items such as current assets, current liabilities, total liabilities, operating cash flow, and interest coverage to judge repayment capacity. That makes them the user group most closely linked to evaluating loan repayment ability. Therefore, among the four options given, Lenders is the most accurate and best-supported answer from accounting theory and financial statement analysis.

The correct answer is D . The control designed to prevent payment for goods not actually received is the receiving function’s preparation of a receiving report , which is then sent to accounts payable and matched against the supplier invoice and purchase order. This is the essence of a three-way match : purchase order, receiving report, and vendor invoice. AccountingTools explains that payables staff should match the supplier invoice to the related purchase order and proof of receipt before authorizing payment.

Option A is helpful for controlling check completeness and sequence, but it does not verify quantities received. Option B adds authorization control over disbursements, but it also does not confirm whether the shipment matched the invoice. Option C helps ensure purchases are approved before ordering, but it still does not prove what was actually delivered. The receiving department’s counting and inspection of goods, followed by forwarding the receiving documentation to accounts payable, directly addresses the risk that a supplier invoice includes more items than were received. Therefore, the best internal control is Option D .

The correct answers are C. Interest expense and D. Cost of goods sold . Net income is determined by starting with revenues and then subtracting expenses and other costs. Because interest expense is an expense, increasing it reduces earnings before tax and therefore lowers net income. Likewise, cost of goods sold (COGS) is a major expense directly tied to the goods sold by the business. When COGS increases, gross profit falls, which then reduces net income. OpenStax summarizes the income statement as including revenues, expenses, gains, and losses in arriving at net income or net loss.

Options A. Gains and B. Revenues are incorrect because increases in either of those items generally increase net income rather than decrease it. Gains arise from peripheral transactions and still improve profitability, while revenues represent inflows from the company’s main operations. In contrast, both interest expense and cost of goods sold are deductions in the income statement. Therefore, the two items that decrease net income when increased are Interest expense and Cost of goods sold .

The best answer is D. 275 . In a cost-volume-profit (CVP) graph , a company begins to realize a profit only after total revenue rises above total cost. The point where the total revenue line intersects the total cost line is the break-even point . At that exact level, profit is zero. To earn a profit, the company must sell more units than the break-even amount .

Because your pasted graph is partially distorted, the most reasonable interpretation is that the break-even point is shown at about 250 units . If that is the break-even level, then the first answer choice that would produce an actual profit is 275 units . That is why Option D is the most defensible answer from the graph and choices provided.

This follows basic CVP logic:

Below break-even = loss

At break-even = zero profit

Above break-even = profit

So if 250 units represents the break-even point on the graph, the company would need to sell 275 units to realize a profit. Therefore, the best answer is D .