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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

Options:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Questions 5

For best practices, what is the recommended time for automatic unlocking of locked admin accounts?

Options:

A.

20 minutes

B.

15 minutes

C.

Admin account cannot be unlocked automatically

D.

30 minutes at least

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Questions 6

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Questions 7

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

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Questions 8

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

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Questions 9

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

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Questions 10

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

Options:

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

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Questions 11

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

Options:

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

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Questions 12

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

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Questions 13

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Questions 14

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Options:

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Questions 15

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

Options:

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 16

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

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Questions 17

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Questions 18

Which command shows actual allowed connections in state table?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t StateTable

B.

fw tab –t connections

C.

fw tab –t connection

D.

fw tab connections

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Questions 19

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

Options:

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

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Questions 20

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Questions 21

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Questions 22

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

Options:

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Questions 23

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Options:

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Questions 24

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

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Questions 25

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Questions 26

Fill in the blank: The tool _____ generates a R81 Security Gateway configuration report.

Options:

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

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Questions 27

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

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Questions 28

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Questions 29

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 30

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

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Questions 31

How can SmartView application accessed?

Options:

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

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Questions 32

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

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Questions 33

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Questions 34

During inspection of your Threat Prevention logs you find four different computers having one event each with a Critical Severity. Which of those hosts should you try to remediate first?

Options:

A.

Host having a Critical event found by Threat Emulation

B.

Host having a Critical event found by IPS

C.

Host having a Critical event found by Antivirus

D.

Host having a Critical event found by Anti-Bot

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Questions 35

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

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Questions 36

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Questions 37

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

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Questions 38

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

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Questions 39

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

Options:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

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Questions 40

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Questions 41

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Questions 42

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

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Questions 43

Which of these statements describes the Check Point ThreatCloud?

Options:

A.

Blocks or limits usage of web applications

B.

Prevents or controls access to web sites based on category

C.

Prevents Cloud vulnerability exploits

D.

A worldwide collaborative security network

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Questions 44

Check Point recommends configuring Disk Space Management parameters to delete old log entries when available disk space is less than or equal to?

Options:

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

15%

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Questions 45

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

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Questions 46

Where you can see and search records of action done by R81 SmartConsole administrators?

Options:

A.

In SmartView Tracker, open active log

B.

In the Logs & Monitor view, select “Open Audit Log View”

C.

In SmartAuditLog View

D.

In Smartlog, all logs

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Questions 47

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

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Questions 48

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

Options:

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Questions 49

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

Options:

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

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Questions 50

Which is the least ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

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Questions 51

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Questions 52

What are the attributes that SecureXL will check after the connection is allowed by Security Policy?

Options:

A.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

B.

Source MAC address, Destination MAC address, Source port, Destination port, Protocol

C.

Source address, Destination address, Source port, Destination port

D.

Source address, Destination address, Destination port, Protocol

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Questions 53

You want to gather and analyze threats to your mobile device. It has to be a lightweight app. Which application would you use?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Client Info

B.

SecuRemote

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

Check Point Capsule Cloud

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Questions 54

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 55

An established connection is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade Is inspecting the traffic. If SecureXL and CoreXL are both enabled, which path is handling the traffic?

Options:

A.

Slow Path

B.

Fast Path

C.

Medium Path

D.

Accelerated Path

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Questions 56

You pushed a policy to your gateway and you cannot access the gateway remotely any more. What command should you use to remove the policy from the gateway by logging in through console access?

Options:

A.

"fw cpstop"

B.

"fw unloadlocal"

C.

"fwundo"

D.

"fw unloadpolicy''

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Questions 57

Which software blade does NOT accompany the Threat Prevention policy?

Options:

A.

Anti-virus

B.

IPS

C.

Threat Emulation

D.

Application Control and URL Filtering

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Questions 58

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

Add rba user roles

B.

Add rba user

C.

Add user roles

D.

Add user

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Questions 59

What is false regarding a Management HA environment?

Options:

A.

Only one Management Server should be active, while any others be in standby mode

B.

It is not necessary to establish SIC between the primary and secondary management server, since the latter gets the exact same copy of the management database from the prior.

C.

SmartConsole can connect to any management server in Readonly mode.

D.

Synchronization will occur automatically with each Publish event if the Standby servers are available.

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Questions 60

What kind of information would you expect to see when using the "sim affinity -I" command?

Options:

A.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

B.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

C.

Affinity Distribution

D.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

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Questions 61

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

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Questions 62

Bob is asked by Alice to disable the SecureXL mechanism temporary tor further diagnostic by their Check Point partner. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

fwaccel suspend

B.

fwaccel standby

C.

fwaccel off

D.

fwaccel templates

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Questions 63

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination or client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP.

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work.

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary.

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly.

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Questions 64

In which scenario will an administrator need to manually define Proxy ARP?

Options:

A.

When they configure an "Automatic Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

B.

When they configure an "Automatic Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

C.

When they configure a "Manual Static NAT" which translates to an IP address that does not belong to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

D.

When they configure a "Manual Hide NAT" which translates to an IP address that belongs to one of the firewall’s interfaces.

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Questions 65

What is false regarding prerequisites for the Central Deployment usage?

Options:

A.

The administrator must have write permission on SmartUpdate

B.

Security Gateway must have the latest CPUSE Deployment Agent

C.

No need to establish SIC between gateways and the management server, since the CDT tool will take care about SIC automatically.

D.

The Security Gateway must have a policy installed

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Questions 66

What is the purpose of the command "ps aux | grep twd"?

Options:

A.

You can check the Process ID and the processing time of the twd process.

B.

You can convert the log file into Post Script format.

C.

You can list all Process IDs for all running services.

D.

You can check whether the IPS default setting is set to Detect or Prevent mode

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Questions 67

Main Mode in IKEv1 uses how many packages for negotiation?

Options:

A.

4

B.

depends on the make of the peer gateway

C.

3

D.

6

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Questions 68

Joey want to configure NTP on R81 Security Management Server. He decided to do this via WebUI. What is the correct address to access the Web UI for Gaia platform via browser?

Options:

A.

https://

B.

http:// :443

C.

https:// :10000

D.

https:// :4434

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Questions 69

There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational.

When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Options:

A.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

B.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

C.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

D.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

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Questions 70

Native Applications require a thin client under which circumstances?

Options:

A.

If you want to use a legacy 32-Bit Windows OS

B.

If you want to use a VPN Client that is not officially supported by the underlying operating system

C.

If you want to have assigned a particular Office Mode IP address.

D.

If you are about to use a client (FTP. RDP, ...) that is installed on the endpoint.

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Questions 71

What are the two modes for SNX (SSL Network Extender)?

Options:

A.

Network Mode and Application Mode

B.

Visitor Mode and Office Mode

C.

Network Mode and Hub Mode

D.

Office Mode and Hub Mode

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Questions 72

Mobile Access Gateway can be configured as a reverse proxy for Internal Web Applications Reverse proxy users browse to a URL that is resolved to the Security Gateway IP address. Which of the following Check Point command is true for enabling the Reverse Proxy:

Options:

A.

ReverseCLIProxy

B.

ReverseProxyCLI

C.

ReverseProxy

D.

ProxyReverseCLI

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Questions 73

Which pre-defined Permission Profile should be assigned to an administrator that requires full access to audit all configurations without modifying them?

Options:

A.

Auditor

B.

Read Only All

C.

Super User

D.

Full Access

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Questions 74

How does the Anti-Virus feature of the Threat Prevention policy block traffic from infected websites?

Options:

A.

By dropping traffic from websites identified through ThreatCloud Verification and URL Caching

B.

By dropping traffic that is not proven to be from clean websites in the URL Filtering blade

C.

By allowing traffic from websites that are known to run Antivirus Software on servers regularly

D.

By matching logs against ThreatCloud information about the reputation of the website

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Questions 75

You work as a security administrator for a large company. CSO of your company has attended a security conference where he has learnt how hackers constantly modify their strategies and techniques to evade detection and reach corporate resources. He wants to make sure that his company has the tight protections in place. Check Point has been selected for the security vendor.

Which Check Point product protects BEST against malware and zero-day attacks while ensuring quick delivery of safe content to your users?

Options:

A.

IPS AND Application Control

B.

IPS, anti-virus and anti-bot

C.

IPS, anti-virus and e-mail security

D.

SandBlast

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Questions 76

What is a possible command to delete all of the SSH connections of a gateway?

Options:

A.

fw sam -I dport 22

B.

fw ctl conntab -x -dpott=22

C.

fw tab -t connections -x -e 00000016

D.

fwaccel dos config set dport ssh

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Questions 77

How many versions, besides the destination version, are supported in a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

2

D.

4

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Questions 78

What order should be used when upgrading a Management High Availability Cluster?

Options:

A.

Secondary Management, then Primary Management

B.

Active Management, then Standby Management

C.

Standby Management, then Active Management

D.

Primary Management, then Secondary Management

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Questions 79

What feature allows Remote-access VPN users to access resources across a site-to-site VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

Specific VPN Communities

B.

Remote Access VPN Switch

C.

Mobile Access VPN Domain

D.

Network Access VPN Domain

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Questions 80

What is the default shell for the command line interface?

Options:

A.

Expert

B.

Clish

C.

Admin

D.

Normal

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Questions 81

What mechanism can ensure that the Security Gateway can communicate with the Management Server with ease in situations with overwhelmed network resources?

Options:

A.

The corresponding feature is new to R81.20 and is called "Management Data Plane Separation"

B.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Dispatching"

C.

There is a feature for ensuring stable connectivity to the management server and is done via Priority Queuing.

D.

The corresponding feature is called "Dynamic Split"

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Questions 82

How can you see historical data with cpview?

Options:

A.

cpview -f

B.

cpview -e

C.

cpview -t

D.

cpview -d

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Questions 83

In R81, where do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Access Control Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

Shared Gateways Policy

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 84

Which two Cluster Solutions are available under R81.20?

Options:

A.

ClusterXL and NSRP

B.

VRRPandHSRP

C.

VRRP and IP Clustering

D.

ClusterXL and VRitP

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Questions 85

Which Mobile Access Solution is clientless?

Options:

A.

Mobile Access Portal

B.

Checkpoint Mobile

C.

Endpoint Security Suite

D.

SecuRemote

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Questions 86

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identities connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

Options:

A.

Source Port

B.

TCP Acknowledgment Number

C.

Source Address

D.

Destination Address

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Questions 87

If the Active Security Management Server fails or if it becomes necessary to change the Active to Standby, the following steps must be taken to prevent data loss. Providing the Active Security Management Server is responsive, which if these steps should NOT be performed:

Options:

A.

Rename the hostname of the Standby member to match exactly the hostname of the Active member.

B.

Change the Standby Security Management Server to Active.

C.

Change the Active Security Management Server to Standby.

D.

Manually synchronize the Active and Standby Security Management Servers.

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Questions 88

What Is the difference between Updatable Objects and Dynamic Objects

Options:

A.

Dynamic Objects ate maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally. In both cases there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

B.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally For Dynamic Objects

there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

C.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally In both cases there is no

need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

D.

Dynamic Objects are maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. For Dynamic Objects there rs no need to install policy for the changes to take effect. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally.

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Questions 89

Which Check Point software blade provides protection from zero-day and undiscovered threats?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

Threat Emulation

C.

Application Control

D.

Threat Extraction

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Questions 90

What are the modes of SandBlast Threat Emulation deployment?

Options:

A.

Cloud, Smart-1 and Hybrid

B.

Cloud. OpenServer and Vmware

C.

Cloud, Appliance and Private

D.

Cloud, Appliance and Hybrid

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Questions 91

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

Options:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

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Questions 92

When Identity Awareness is enabled, which identity source(s) is(are) used for Application Control?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

Remote Access and RADIUS

C.

AD Query

D.

AD Query and Browser-based Authentication

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Questions 93

In the R81 SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?

Options:

A.

Security Policies

B.

Logs and Monitor

C.

Manage and Settings

D.

Gateways and Servers

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Questions 94

Which of the following Check Point commands is true to enable Multi-Version Cluster (MVC)?

Options:

A.

Check Point Security Management HA (Secondary): set cluster member mvc on

B.

Check Point Security Gateway Only: set cluster member mvc on

C.

Check Point Security Management HA (Primary): set cluster member mvc on

D.

Check Point Security Gateway Cluster Member: set cluster member mvc on

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Questions 95

SecureXL is able to accelerate the Connection Rate using templates. Which attributes are used in the template to identify the connection?

Options:

A.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port

B.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port

C.

Source address. Destination address. Destination port. Pro^col

D.

Source address. Destination address. Source Port, Destination port. Protocol

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Questions 96

Which is the command to identify the NIC driver before considering about the employment of the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

ip show int eth0

B.

show interface eth0 mq

C.

ifconfig -i eth0 verbose

D.

ethtool -i eth0

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Questions 97

Which upgrade method you should use upgrading from R80.40 to R81.20 to avoid any downtime?

Options:

A.

Zero Downtime Upgrade (ZDU)

B.

Connectivity Upgrade (CU)

C.

Minimal Effort Upgrade (ME)

D.

Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade (MVC)

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Questions 98

Why is a Central License the preferred and recommended method of licensing?

Options:

A.

Central Licensing actually not supported with Gaia.

B.

Central Licensing is the only option when deploying Gala.

C.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of a gateway and can be changed to any gateway if needed.

D.

Central Licensing ties to the IP address of the management server and is not dependent on the IP of any gateway in the event it changes.

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Questions 99

Fill in the blank: Permanent VPN tunnels can be set on all tunnels in the community, on all tunnels for specific gateways, or ______ .

Options:

A.

On all satellite gateway to satellite gateway tunnels

B.

On specific tunnels for specific gateways

C.

On specific tunnels in the community

D.

On specific satellite gateway to central gateway tunnels

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Questions 100

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Agent

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Browser-Based Authentication

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Questions 101

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

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Questions 102

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

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Questions 103

Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt

B.

mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

C.

mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

D.

mgmt._cli add object “Server-1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

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Questions 104

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

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Questions 105

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

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Questions 106

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

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Questions 107

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Questions 108

Which Check Point daemon monitors the other daemons?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpd

C.

cpwd

D.

fwssd

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Questions 109

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Questions 110

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server

B.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server

C.

$FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

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Questions 111

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

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Questions 112

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

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Questions 113

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

Options:

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

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Questions 114

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

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Questions 115

What scenario indicates that SecureXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Dynamic objects are available in the Object Explorer

B.

SecureXL can be disabled in cpconfig

C.

fwaccel commands can be used in clish

D.

Only one packet in a stream is seen in a fw monitor packet capture

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Questions 116

What is the command to see cluster status in cli expert mode?

Options:

A.

fw ctl stat

B.

clusterXL stat

C.

clusterXL status

D.

cphaprob stat

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Questions 117

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 118

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

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Questions 119

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

Options:

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

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Questions 120

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

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Questions 121

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

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Questions 122

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

Options:

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Questions 123

SecureXL improves non-encrypted firewall traffic throughput and encrypted VPN traffic throughput.

Options:

A.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve all traffic.

B.

This statement is false because SecureXL does not improve this traffic but CoreXL does.

C.

This statement is true because SecureXL does improve this traffic.

D.

This statement is false because encrypted traffic cannot be inspected.

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Questions 124

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

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Questions 125

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

Options:

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

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Questions 126

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

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Questions 127

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

Options:

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

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Questions 128

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

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Questions 129

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Questions 130

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

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Questions 131

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

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Questions 132

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

Options:

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Questions 133

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

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Questions 134

How do you enable virtual mac (VMAC) on-the-fly on a cluster member?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

B.

clusterXL set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

C.

fw ctl set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

D.

cphaconf set int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled 1

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Questions 135

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

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Questions 136

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Questions 137

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

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Questions 138

John detected high load on sync interface. Which is most recommended solution?

Options:

A.

For short connections like http service – delay sync for 2 seconds

B.

Add a second interface to handle sync traffic

C.

For short connections like http service – do not sync

D.

For short connections like icmp service – delay sync for 2 seconds

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Questions 139

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

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Questions 140

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

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Questions 141

Which directory below contains log files?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

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Questions 142

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 143

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.20 SmartConsole application?

Options:

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

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Questions 144

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

Options:

A.

enable DLP and select.exe and .bat file type

B.

enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy

C.

create FW rule for particular protocol

D.

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe.bat

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Questions 145

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

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Questions 146

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

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Questions 147

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

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Questions 148

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 149

Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Options:

A.

INSPECT Engine

B.

Stateful Inspection

C.

Packet Filtering

D.

Application Layer Firewall

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Questions 150

What CLI command compiles and installs a Security Policy on the target’s Security Gateways?

Options:

A.

fwm compile

B.

fwm load

C.

fwm fetch

D.

fwm install

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Questions 151

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Questions 152

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

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Questions 153

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

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Questions 154

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Questions 155

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

Options:

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

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Questions 156

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

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Questions 157

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Questions 158

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Questions 159

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

Options:

A.

Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B.

Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Automatic Static NAT

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Questions 160

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Questions 161

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Questions 162

Which blades and or features are not supported in R81?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Maps

B.

SmartEvent

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

SmartConsole Toolbars

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Questions 163

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

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Questions 164

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 165

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

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Questions 166

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

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Questions 167

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Questions 168

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

High alert

C.

Mail

D.

User defined alert

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Questions 169

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

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Questions 170

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Questions 171

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Questions 172

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

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Questions 173

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 174

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Questions 175

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 176

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

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Questions 177

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

Options:

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

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Questions 178

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

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Questions 179

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

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Questions 180

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

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Questions 181

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Questions 182

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

Options:

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

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Questions 183

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

Options:

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

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Questions 184

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

Options:

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Questions 185

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

Options:

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Questions 186

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

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Questions 187

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Exam Code: 156-315.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81
Last Update: May 7, 2024
Questions: 624
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