MCCQE MCCQE Part 1 Exam Questions and Answers

Palliative radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for painful bone metastases, including those from prostate cancer. It provides localized pain relief and functional improvement.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Oncology, “Metastatic Bone Pain”:

“External beam radiotherapy is first-line treatment for localized bone pain from metastases. Relief occurs within days to weeks.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Oncology > 52-1):

“Candidates must identify treatment options for symptom control in metastatic cancer, including palliative radiotherapy for painful bone lesions.”

Androgen deprivation therapy (B, C) treats systemic disease but doesn’t address acute pain. Opioids (D) may be used, but radiotherapy provides disease-targeted relief. Intrathecal steroids (A) are not standard for prostate metastases.

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A mood journal is a structured tool that allows the patient to record mood fluctuations, triggers, and timing. It is particularly helpful in identifying mood disorders such as premenstrual dysphoric disorder, bipolar disorder, or cyclothymia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Mood Disorders:

“Mood diaries are useful in identifying temporal patterns, such as menstrual cycle–linked mood changes, and in distinguishing between affective disorders.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Diagnostic Evaluation:

“Candidates should use clinical tools such as symptom diaries to assist in establishing the pattern and nature of psychiatric symptoms.”

Personality testing (A) is not first-line. Urine drug screen (B) is only indicated with suspicion of substance use. Lorazepam (D) treats symptoms, not diagnosis. Interviewing the boyfriend (E) may help, but only as a supplement to direct observation and self-report.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

A fluctuant, erythematous, tender breast mass with systemic signs (fever, lymphadenopathy) and ultrasound showing a cystic lesion is diagnostic for a breast abscess. It commonly arises from untreated mastitis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery, “Breast Disease”:

“Abscess presents as a fluctuant, erythematous mass. Ultrasound confirms loculated fluid. Treatment includes drainage and antibiotics.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 50-1: Breast Conditions):

“Candidates must identify signs of infection and abscess and differentiate from malignancy or benign lesions.”

Fibroadenoma (C) is non-tender, mobile, and firm. Ductal ectasia (B) causes nipple discharge. Fibrocystic changes (D) are bilateral and cyclic. Inflammatory breast cancer (E) is rapidly progressive but lacks fluctuation and cystic features.

Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) typically presents with the classic triad of polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and skin lesions (especially pustules on extremities). A prior urogenital infection and systemic symptoms further support this diagnosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Infectious Disease, STIs:

“DGI presents with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome: fever, asymmetric polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and vesiculopustular skin lesions. It may follow asymptomatic or unrecognized urogenital infection.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Infectious Disease > STIs:

“Candidates must recognize systemic manifestations of gonorrhea including DGI and distinguish it from other forms of arthritis or systemic illness.”

Reactive arthritis (C) may follow STI but includes conjunctivitis and urethritis. HIV (A) does not typically cause this triad. RA (D) has different distribution and chronicity. Varicella (E) presents with diffuse vesicular rash, not joint pain.

In a non-lactating woman with a partially responsive breast mass after antibiotics, inflammatory breast cancer must be ruled out. A breast biopsy (core or excisional) is indicated to assess for malignancy. Inflammatory breast cancer may mimic mastitis but does not improve with antibiotics.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Breast Disorders:

“In non-lactating women, persistent breast inflammation should raise suspicion for inflammatory breast cancer. If symptoms persist after antibiotic therapy, proceed with imaging and biopsy.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Gynecology > Breast Disease:

“Candidates must differentiate between mastitis and inflammatory breast cancer and initiate appropriate investigations such as biopsy when response to antibiotics is incomplete.”

Options A, D, and E may be appropriate for a confirmed abscess or infectious cause, but further investigation is mandatory in this scenario. NSAIDs (C) are symptomatic but do not address the diagnostic concern.

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This 6-month-old presents with signs of systemic illness, tachypnea, hypoxia, and focal lung findings. In this age group, pneumonia can rapidly progress, and given the severity of symptoms, oral treatment is insufficient. Intravenous antibiotics are urgently indicated.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Respiratory Infections in Infants:

“Infants under 6 months with signs of systemic illness, hypoxia (SpO2 < 94%), and respiratory distress should receive IV antibiotics. Delayed treatment may result in rapid clinical deterioration.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Respiratory Conditions:

“Candidates must recognize signs of serious lower respiratory tract infection in infants and initiate prompt IV antibiotic therapy when criteria for hospitalization are met.”

Oral antibiotics (C) are appropriate for mild outpatient pneumonia. Reassurance (B) and oral steroids (A) are inappropriate. IV fluids (D) may be supportive but do not address the infectious cause.

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Calculating food-specific attack rates (i.e., number of people who became ill after eating aparticular food divided by the total number who ate that food) is the most effective method to identify the probable source of infection in a known cohort outbreak.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health, Outbreak Investigations:

“Foodborne outbreaks are best analyzed using food-specific attack rates to determine associations between individual foods and illness.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Epidemiologic Principles:

“Candidates must use epidemiologic tools, such as attack rates, to identify probable sources during outbreak investigations.”

Cohort study (C) is also acceptable but more time-intensive. Stool and food cultures (B, D) confirm the pathogen but not the source. HACCP (E) is a preventive method, not a tool for outbreak investigation.

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In most Canadian provinces and territories, physicians are legally obligated to report patients who pose a danger due to medical conditions affecting driving ability. Given the history of TIAs and continued unsafe driving, reporting is necessary for public safety.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Fitness to Drive” Section:

“Physicians must report to motor vehicle authorities if a patient poses a risk to public safety due to a medical condition. TIAs are considered reportable if they impair ability and the patient does not comply with driving restrictions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-1: Medical Fitness and Reporting):

“Candidates must recognize situations requiring mandatory reporting of patients unfit to drive due to neurologic or other impairing conditions.”

You may still discuss with the patient (B), but this does not replace the duty to report. Physically taking the license (C) is illegal. Refusing care (D) is unethical. A neurologist (E) could be helpful but would delay action in a clear case.

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A tender, mobile lymph node following a recent localized infection (e.g., dental infection) is most likely reactive. In a young, otherwise well patient with no systemic symptoms or concerning features, observation is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Internal Medicine, Lymphadenopathy:

“In patients with localized lymphadenopathy and a recent infection, observation for 4–8 weeks is often appropriate before further investigation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Hematology:

“Candidates should recognize benign features of lymphadenopathy (tender, mobile, <2 cm, localized) and manage conservatively unless red flags are present.”

Biopsy (B) and imaging (C, E) are premature. Bone marrow biopsy (D) is not relevant.

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This patient has classic features of exertional heat stroke—hyperthermia, hypotension, CNS symptoms (collapse), and hot, dry skin. A key complication of heat stroke is rhabdomyolysis, which can cause renal failure. Serum creatine kinase (CK) is the best next diagnostic step to confirm muscle breakdown.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Emergency Medicine, “Environmental Exposures”:

“In heat stroke, check for rhabdomyolysis (↑CK), renal impairment, and coagulopathy. Prompt cooling and hydration are critical.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 59-3: Environmental and Toxic Exposures):

“Candidates must recognize heat-related illnesses and investigate for complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute kidney injury.”

CT head (C) is not indicated unless persistent neurological symptoms. TSH (B), CRP (D), and blood cultures (E) are irrelevant to acute exertional hyperthermia.

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When couples face infertility-related decisions—particularly involving donor insemination—psychosocial counseling is essential. A mental health consultation helps explore emotional concerns, expectations, and readiness for non-biological parenting.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Infertility and ART”:

“Psychological counseling is recommended for couples considering donor gametes to address emotional, ethical, and identity issues before proceeding.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Reproductive Ethics > 83-1):

“Candidates must understand the ethical and psychosocial considerations of assisted reproductive techniques and provide appropriate referrals.”

Suggesting adoption or switching care dismisses valid concerns (B, C). Ovulation induction (D) does not address azoospermia.

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This patient has clinical signs of an eating disorder — fatigue, low BMI, hypotension, and hypokalemia — likely secondary to nutritional deficiencies or purging. The first step is to sensitively explore the patient's perception of weight and body image. Effective management requires rapport and careful conversation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Eating Disorders:

“Approach patients with suspected eating disorders non-judgmentally. Begin with permission to discuss weight or body image. Screening tools like SCOFF can help guide further assessment.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Eating Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize signs of eating disorders and initiate a respectful and effective patient-centered discussion.”

Referring to the ED (B) is not urgent without hemodynamic instability. Advising caloric intake (C) bypasses assessment. GI referral (D) is not appropriate at this stage.

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Valproic acid is well known to cause thrombocytopenia, especially at higher serum concentrations or in patients over 60. Bruising with platelet count <100 × 10⁹/L is a classic manifestation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Mood Disorders & Pharmacology Section:

“Valproic acid is associated with hematologic side effects including thrombocytopenia. Platelet counts should be monitored regularly.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Pharmacotherapy:

“The candidate must recognize adverse effects of mood stabilizers including hematologic complications of valproic acid.”

Other listed medications (A–D) have no common or direct link with thrombocytopenia in this context.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The most appropriate next step is to assess the patient’s capacity to consent to or refuse treatment. Patients with severe anorexia nervosa may lack decision-making capacity due todistorted thinking and perception, particularly if refusal of treatment is life-threatening. If she is found incapable, treatment can proceed in her best interests.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Ethics:

“If a patient with anorexia nervosa refuses treatment but is medically unstable, assess capacity. If incapable, substitute decision-making may be initiated.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-4: Informed Consent and Capacity):

“Candidates must assess decision-making capacity when a patient refuses essential care, especially in life-threatening psychiatric or medical conditions.”

Psychiatric consult (B) may follow, but the immediate action is capacity assessment. D is premature without determining capacity. A and E are also premature or inappropriate.

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This child presents with “red flag” features for malignancy: a firm, fixed, nontender supraclavicular lymph node >2 cm in size, with associated hepatosplenomegaly and night sweats. These features are most concerning for lymphoma.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Lymphadenopathy in Children”:

“Malignant lymphadenopathy tends to be firm, fixed, painless, and located in supraclavicular areas. Systemic signs (fever, weight loss, hepatosplenomegaly, night sweats) are concerning for lymphoma.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Hematology/Oncology):

“Candidates should differentiate between benign and malignant lymphadenopathy and recognize features suggestive of lymphoma.”

Cat-scratch disease (B) is usually tender and associated with cat exposure. Kawasaki disease (C) presents with fever and mucocutaneous findings. Acute bacterial lymphadenitis (D) is painful, warm, and rapid in onset. Viral lymphadenopathy (E) is often bilateral, small, and tender.

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This patient presents with signs of acute compartment syndrome (pain out of proportion, paresthesia, pallor, swelling, decreased pulses, and dark urine indicating rhabdomyolysis). Measuring compartment pressures is the diagnostic test of choice to confirm the diagnosis and guide urgent surgical fasciotomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Orthopedics:

“Acute compartment syndrome should be suspected in any patient with severe extremity pain, swelling, sensory deficits, and tense compartments. Confirm with compartment pressure measurements. Fasciotomy is indicated if pressure is >30 mmHg or within 30 mmHg of diastolic pressure.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 51-2: Limb Trauma):

“Candidates must diagnose acute compartment syndrome and initiate appropriate surgical referral after confirming with pressure measurements.”

Angiography and Doppler studies assess vascular compromise but are not the first step in suspected compartment syndrome. Fixing the hip (C) and testing myoglobin (E) are not diagnostic steps.

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Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia, especially in patients with impaired renal function. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, particularly wide complex tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology and Nephrology, “Hyperkalemia” Section:

“Patients with CKD are at increased risk for hyperkalemia, particularly when taking potassium-sparing medications such as spironolactone. Severe hyperkalemia may cause bradycardia or wide-complex tachyarrhythmias.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-2: Electrolyte Abnormalities):

“Candidates must recognize drug-induced hyperkalemia as a cause of cardiac arrhythmias, especially in patients with renal dysfunction.”

Hydrochlorothiazide (B) can cause hypokalemia. Metoprolol (C) and diltiazem (E) are rate-controlling agents but do not typically cause wide complex tachycardia. Clopidogrel (D) has no effect on cardiac conduction.

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This infant likely has infantile colic, defined by the “rule of 3s”: crying >3 hours per day, >3 days per week, for >3 weeks, usually starting in the first few months of life. It is benign and self-limited, typically resolving by 3–4 months of age.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Common Concerns in Infancy”:

“Colic is self-limited. No routine testing is required in healthy, thriving infants. Reassurance and support for parents are key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Behavioral Pediatrics):

“Candidates must recognize normal variations such as colic and avoid unnecessary interventions. Counseling and reassurance are essential.”

Sedatives (D) are contraindicated. Investigations (C) are unnecessary without red flags. Resolution (B) usually occurs by 3–4 months, not as late as 12 months.

In a euthyroid patient with an asymptomatic goiter or thyroid enlargement, the next step is a thyroid ultrasound to evaluate nodule size, composition, and features suggestive of malignancy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Thyroid Nodules and Goiter:

“TSH should be obtained first. If normal and there is a palpable mass or enlargement, ultrasound is indicated to evaluate for nodules and guide further testing (e.g., FNA).”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates must use thyroid ultrasound as the initial imaging study in the evaluation of thyroid enlargement or palpable nodules.”

T3/T4 (A) are not needed with normal TSH. FNA (D) is done if nodules are identified. CT (C) is used for retrosternal goiters or compressive symptoms. Calcium (E) is irrelevant here.

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This patient’s headache is consistent with tension-type or stress-related headache. The symptoms are mild, responsive to over-the-counter medications, and without red flags (neurologic signs, worsening pattern, nocturnal pain). Reassurance is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology, “Headache” Section:

“In the absence of red flags (e.g., sudden onset, focal deficits, age >50, worsening pattern), reassurance is the best course. Tension headaches are often related to stress and improve with lifestyle modification and simple analgesia.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-6: Neurologic Symptoms):

“Candidates should recognize benign headache patterns and avoid unnecessary investigations.”

CT head (B) is not indicated. Stronger analgesics (D) may cause rebound headache. Specialist or psychiatric referrals (A, E) are premature.

In cross-cultural care, especially for recent immigrants, it is essential to build rapport and respect patient preferences regarding family involvement. Involving family in the interview respects cultural norms and improves trust. A trained interpreter should be used to maintain confidentiality and accuracy, but collaboration with the family initially may encourage later private disclosure.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Ethics and Communication, “Cultural Competence”:

“When encountering language or cultural barriers, patient comfort and cultural context must be respected. Interviewing the patient and family together may facilitate trust, after which individual conversations may be possible.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Communication and Patient-Centered Care):

“Candidates must approach patients in a culturally sensitive manner, particularly recent immigrants or those with language barriers, and foster trust.”

Insisting on a private interview (A) may alienate the patient. Family members should not act as interpreters (C). Written accounts (D) are inefficient and impersonal in acute mental health settings.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The combination of upper extremity hypertension and weak femoral pulses is classic for aortic coarctation. A soft systolic murmur may be present. This condition often becomes apparent during routine screening in school-aged children.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics / Cardiology:

“Coarctation of the aorta presents with upper limb hypertension, diminished femoral pulses, and sometimes a systolic murmur. BP discrepancy is key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-1: Congenital Heart Disease):

“Candidates must recognize signs of aortic coarctation, including weak lower limb pulses and systemic hypertension in children.”

VSD (A) typically presents with a louder murmur. Reflux nephropathy (B) may cause hypertension but without femoral pulse discrepancy. Renal artery thrombosis (C) is rare. Essential hypertension (D) is less likely in this age group with these findings.

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Microcephaly, intrauterine growth restriction, hepatosplenomegaly, and normal vital signs in a term newborn strongly suggest congenital viral infection (e.g., CMV, toxoplasmosis, rubella).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Congenital Infections:

“Signs of congenital TORCH infections include microcephaly, hepatosplenomegaly, and growth restriction. Early identification is key.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Infectious Disease:

“Candidates must recognize signs suggestive of congenital infections and distinguish from genetic or structural abnormalities.”

Cephalic molding (A) is benign and resolves spontaneously. Lipid storage diseases (B) are not present at birth. Cystic fibrosis (C) does not cause microcephaly or hepatosplenomegaly at birth. Trisomy 21 (D) has distinct dysmorphic features not described here.

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This presentation is classic for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic drugs (particularly dopamine antagonists like risperidone). Features include hyperthermia, rigidity, altered mental status, and autonomic instability.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome”:

“NMS is associated with antipsychotic use. Key features: hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction. Elevated CK, leukocytosis often present.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Adverse Effects of Psychotropics):

“Candidates must recognize and manage neuroleptic malignant syndrome and differentiate it from other drug toxicities.”

Amitriptyline (B) overdose causes anticholinergic symptoms. Lamotrigine (A) causes rash or seizures in toxicity. Lithium (D) leads to tremor, ataxia, and GI upset. Lorazepam (E) causes CNS depression, not rigidity or fever.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Decreased libido in elderly patients can be multifactorial, but depression is a common and important cause that must be ruled out before hormone therapy or other steps. A proper mental health screen should precede further interventions.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry / Geriatrics:

“In elderly men, reduced libido may be linked to depression, medical illness, or medications. Depression screening is essential.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-1: Mood Disorders / Sexual Health):

“Candidates must consider depression as a common cause of decreased libido and assess accordingly before initiating hormone therapy.”

Testosterone testing (D) may follow. Prescribing (C) is premature. Couples counselling (B) may help if interpersonal issues are identified. Interviewing together (A) may inhibit disclosure.

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When a screening program is introduced, the incidence rate appears to rise because more cases (including subclinical ones) are identified earlier. This is known as “lead-time bias” or “ascertainment bias.”

Toronto Notes 2023 – Public Health, Screening and Epidemiology:

“Screening increases the apparent incidence of disease as more early or latent cases are detected.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Preventive Medicine > Screening:

“Candidates should understand how implementation of screening programs affects disease incidence and epidemiologic metrics.”

Case fatality rate (A) may decrease. PPV (B) depends on prevalence. Positive biopsy rate (C) may remain stable. Treatment rate (E) could increase, but incidence is the most directly and consistently affected.

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The description is classic for metatarsus adductus. The most important clinical factor guiding management is whether the foot is flexible or rigid. Flexible deformities typically resolve spontaneously and do not require intervention.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Musculoskeletal Conditions”:

“Metatarsus adductus: inward deviation of the forefoot. Management depends on flexibility. Flexible cases are benign and resolve spontaneously; rigid forms may need casting.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-2: Musculoskeletal Disorders):

“Candidates must assess and differentiate between flexible and rigid deformities to guide treatment in foot abnormalities.”

Other findings (B–E) are either unrelated or not determinant in metatarsus adductus management.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient demonstrates excellent exercise tolerance (17 METs) and no ischemic changes or exertional symptoms, which makes cardiac ischemia unlikely. However, the hypertensive response to exercise (BP >190 systolic) indicates masked or latent hypertension. This should be managed proactively, typically starting with a thiazide.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology:

“An exaggerated hypertensive response during exercise is predictive of future hypertension. Treatment with antihypertensive agents such as thiazides may be warranted.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 31-1: Hypertension and Risk Management):

“Candidates must identify abnormal BP responses to exercise and initiate appropriate treatment.”

Reassurance alone (A) ignores the hypertensive response. Catheterization (C) and beta-blockers (D) are unnecessary without ischemia. Advising against exercise (B) is counterproductive in a young, otherwise healthy patient.

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In a case-control study, participants are selected based on outcome (e.g., presence or absence of neonatal jaundice), and then past exposures are evaluated. This is consistent with the described methodology.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Epidemiology, “Study Designs”:

“Case-control studies start with the outcome and look backward to assess exposures. They are efficient for studying rare conditions or those with long latency.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 65-2: Epidemiology and Study Design):

“Candidates must distinguish between common study designs and recognize the correct classification based on study structure.”

Cross-sectional studies (A) assess exposure and outcome at the same time. Cohort studies (C) begin with exposure and follow forward. Clinical trials (D) are interventional. Ecological studies (E) analyze population-level data.

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The presentation is consistent with rotator cuff tendinopathy or subacromial impingement. The painful arc between 30°–120° with preserved passive ROM suggests this. Ultrasound is the preferred initial imaging modality due to its availability, safety, and ability to visualize soft tissues dynamically.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Orthopedics, “Shoulder Pathologies” Section:

“In rotator cuff injuries or impingement syndromes, initial imaging with musculoskeletal ultrasound is appropriate. It can identify tendinopathy, partial tears, or subacromial bursitis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Surgery > 84-7: Musculoskeletal Pain):

“Candidates should initiate workup for rotator cuff or impingement syndromes with ultrasound as the first-line test, reserving more invasive or costly procedures for unresolved or complex cases.”

CT (A) is used for bony detail, not soft tissues. Arthroscopy (C) is invasive and therapeutic. Arthrography (D) is outdated and largely replaced by MRI or ultrasound.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Ginger is a first-line, evidence-based non-pharmacologic treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy. It's well tolerated and effective. Addressing nausea will help her resume vitamin use and reduce distress.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, “Nausea and Vomiting in Pregnancy”:

“Ginger 250 mg four times daily is safe and effective for mild to moderate nausea.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-1: Early Pregnancy Management):

“Candidates must treat nausea and vomiting in pregnancy using safe and effective options.”

Folic acid alone (A) is less effective than a full prenatal vitamin. B may help, but nausea should be addressed first. C lacks empathy for her symptoms. D (cannabinoids) is not recommended in pregnancy.

In elderly women with long-term pessary use and signs of vaginal atrophy (thin epithelium, bleeding, odor), local estrogen is the most appropriate initial treatment to restore the vaginal epithelium and reduce inflammation and discharge. Vaginal estrogen improves mucosal integrity and reduces complications like ulceration, infection, and bleeding.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Pelvic Organ Prolapse and Pessary Care” Section:

“Local vaginal estrogen therapy is recommended for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy who are using pessaries. It reduces the risk of erosions, bleeding, and infection, especially when pessary follow-up has been suboptimal.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-9: Vaginal Bleeding in Postmenopausal Women):

“Candidates should recognize vaginal atrophy as a common and treatable cause of bleeding in elderly women using pessaries.”

A biopsy (E) may be needed if symptoms persist after atrophy is treated. Hysteroscopy (A) is invasive and not first-line in this setting. Metronidazole (B) is not indicated without evidence of bacterial vaginosis. Daily saline douching (D) is not recommended and may irritate atrophic mucosa.

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TENS has been shown to be effective for managing primary dysmenorrhea when pharmacological options are contraindicated or refused. It works by interfering with pain signal transmission and increasing endorphin levels.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, Dysmenorrhea:

“High-frequency TENS is effective in managing primary dysmenorrhea and can be considered when NSAIDs or hormonal therapies are not acceptable to the patient.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Gynecology > Menstrual Disorders:

“Candidates must be aware of non-pharmacological interventions for dysmenorrhea, including TENS and heat therapy.”

Options D and E involve hormonal or surgical intervention. Spinal manipulation and massage (B and C) lack consistent evidence for dysmenorrhea relief.

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This child likely has infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), characterized by fever, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, fatigue, and splenomegaly. A palpable spleen is a hallmark of EBV in children.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, “Infectious Mononucleosis”:

“Key features include fever, pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Children may have milder symptoms but often exhibit palpable spleen.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 75-2: Infectious Disease):

“Candidates should recognize common viral syndromes such as EBV and identify complications including splenomegaly.”

Other options (renal mass, ascites, etc.) are inconsistent with this viral presentation.

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Nonprescription opioid use during opioid agonist therapy is not uncommon. The response shouldbe supportive and not punitive. Increasing the frequency of follow-up enhances monitoring, supports adherence, and prevents relapse.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Substance Use Disorders”:

“Patients who relapse during opioid agonist treatment benefit from closer monitoring and increased support, including more frequent follow-up and psychosocial interventions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-5: Substance Use and Addiction):

“Candidates must manage relapses in opioid use by optimizing follow-up and support, not by discontinuing or reducing therapy prematurely.”

Tapering or discontinuing therapy (A, E) risks destabilizing treatment. Removing take-home doses (B) may be warranted later but not first. Cannabinoids (D) are not first-line adjuncts.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The ECG reveals:

Regular P waves that are not consistently followed by QRS complexes

A dissociation between the atrial (P wave) and ventricular (QRS complex) activity

A slow ventricular rate (~40 bpm) independent of atrial rate

These findings are characteristic of a third-degree (complete) atrioventricular (AV) block, where there is no conduction of atrial impulses to the ventricles. The atria and ventricles beatindependently, and the ventricular rate is maintained by an escape rhythm, often junctional or ventricular in origin.

This correlates with the patient’s symptoms (dizziness, hypotension) and bradycardia, suggesting inadequate cardiac output due to AV dissociation.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology:

“Third-degree AV block shows complete AV dissociation with independent atrial and ventricular activity. It typically presents with bradycardia and hypotension. Urgent pacing may be required.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Cardiology > 34-2: Bradyarrhythmias and Conduction Disorders):

“Candidates must identify complete heart block and recognize its clinical urgency.”

Ruling out other options:

A. Sinus bradycardia would show regular P waves with 1:1 P-QRS conduction.

B. First-degree AV block has prolonged PR intervals (>200 ms) but all P waves are conducted.

D. Junctional escape rhythm may present with bradycardia, but P waves would be absent, inverted, or occur after QRS complexes.

E. Mobitz type I (Wenckebach) has progressively lengthening PR intervals before a dropped QRS.

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Oral contraceptives increase the risk of thromboembolic events, particularly in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity. However, informing the patient’s partner of potential contributing factors in a factual, non-judgmental manner is appropriate and does not imply fault.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Informed Consent and Risk Communication”:

“Patients and families should be informed of all relevant information, including potential drug-related adverse events. Blame must not be assigned without full investigation.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Physician–Patient Communication):

“Candidates must be able to communicate adverse outcomes factually, while respecting confidentiality and without prematurely assigning fault.”

Discussing the case with the ethics committee or reporting the prescribing doctor without context is premature and inappropriate (A, D). Telling the partner the physician was at fault (C) is speculative and unethical.

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This patient’s lab results suggest impaired fasting glucose and an elevated A1c just below the threshold for diabetes. The gold standard to confirm diabetes in such intermediate cases is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, “Diabetes Mellitus” Section:

“If A1c is in the 6.0–6.4% range or fasting glucose 6.1–6.9 mmol/L, a 75 g OGTT is recommended to establish the diagnosis of diabetes or confirm impaired glucose tolerance.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > 76-4: Diabetes):

“Candidates must correctly apply diabetes screening and diagnostic criteria and follow up abnormal results with appropriate confirmatory testing.”

Urine ACR (C) is useful in diagnosed diabetes, not for initial screening. TSH (A), capillary glucose testing (B), and exercise testing (E) are not indicated at this stage.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Providing clinical advice (particularly treatment advice) without formally seeing or evaluating the patient creates a physician-patient relationship, potentially establishing a duty of care. If the advice leads to harm, you could be found liable, even if you never saw the patient directly.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Legal Medicine:

“Giving specific medical advice about diagnosis or treatment may imply a physician-patient relationship and establish duty of care.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Legal Risk Management):

“Candidates must understand that liability can arise from informal consultations where medical advice is given.”

Providing advice (D) is riskier than simply hearing about a case or patient (A, C). Recommending consultation (B) does not establish duty of care. Not seeing the patient (E) does not automatically shield from liability if treatment advice was given.

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In pediatric trauma, inability to void with perineal bruising raises concern for urethral injury or urinary retention due to soft tissue swelling. The most immediate step is to attempt bladder catheterization. If unsuccessful, consult gynecology or urology urgently to avoid bladder overdistension.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics, Genitourinary Trauma:

“In females, perineal trauma can lead to urinary retention due to labial hematomas or urethral injury. If catheterization is difficult, consult gynecology or urology for assistance.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Pediatrics > Trauma and Emergency Care:

“Candidates must recognize when specialist consultation is required in pediatric genitourinary trauma, especially in cases of failed catheterization.”

Options B and D delay necessary care. Coagulation studies (C) may be considered if bleeding is unexplained. Abuse assessment (E) may be necessary later but does not address immediate retention.

The patient shows signs of herpes labialis (HSV-1), which can transmit genital herpes via oral sex. This poses a risk to the fetus if maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, especially near delivery. Preventing new genital HSV infection during pregnancy is critical.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics:

“HSV-1 can cause genital herpes via oral-genital transmission. Avoid oral sex during outbreaks in pregnancy to prevent primary maternal infection.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Infectious Disease in Pregnancy):

“Candidates must understand the importance of preventing new HSV infection during pregnancy and counsel appropriately.”

Culture (A) is not useful unless symptomatic. Serology (B) is not needed in this context. Cesarean (D) is not indicated unless active genital lesions at delivery. Acyclovir (C) is for infected mothers or near delivery.

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This case suggests diversion of prescription opioids, a serious safety and regulatory concern. The physician must balance maintaining patient care with minimizing risk. Daily dispensing via a monitored pharmacy is the safest and most practical solution to prevent misuse or theft, while avoiding immediate discontinuation of the patient’s needed medication.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Chronic Pain & Substance Use:

“In cases of concern for opioid diversion, consider witnessed daily dispensing, prescription monitoring, and involving caregivers when appropriate.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Pain Management > 56-2):

“The candidate must demonstrate understanding of strategies for safe prescribing and monitoring of controlled substances, including mitigation of diversion.”

Calling the police (A) is not the physician’s immediate duty. Providing an early refill (B) worsens risk. Tapering (C) may be appropriate later, but first the medication must be safeguarded. Increasing quantity (D) is inappropriate.

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This patient presents with symptoms and signs of ulnar neuropathy—most likely at the elbow (cubital tunnel). Weakness in the intrinsic hand muscles and positive Tinel sign at the ulnar nerve are suggestive. Nerve conduction studies are the gold standard to confirm and localize the lesion.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology, “Peripheral Nerve Disorders”:

“In cases of suspected mononeuropathy such as ulnar nerve compression, nerve conduction studies confirm the diagnosis and localize the lesion.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Neurology > 35-2):

“Candidates should identify and investigate focal mononeuropathies using nerve conduction studies to confirm the diagnosis and location.”

Splinting (A, C) may help after diagnosis. Physiotherapy (B) is adjunctive. MRI (D) is not the first-line investigation.

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For pregnant patients with opioid use disorder, opioid agonist therapy with methadone or buprenorphine is the standard of care. Detoxification is not recommended in pregnancy due to increased risk of fetal distress, preterm labor, and relapse. Methadone reduces illicit opioid use and stabilizes both mother and fetus.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Addiction Medicine / Obstetrics:

“Methadone maintenance therapy is the treatment of choice for pregnant patients with opioid use disorder. Detoxification is not advised during pregnancy due to relapse risk and potential harm to the fetus.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics > 80-3: Substance Use in Pregnancy):

“Candidates must manage opioid use disorder in pregnancy with evidence-based therapies, including referral for methadone or buprenorphine.”

Counselling alone (D) is insufficient as first-line therapy. Home detox (C) is unsafe. Inpatient detox (A) is not recommended in pregnancy.

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This patient presents with panic-like somatic symptoms triggered by bereavement. Normal investigations rule out cardiac pathology. Grief therapy is appropriate as the underlying stressor is unresolved grief and anxiety.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Grief and Anxiety Disorders:

“Bereavement-related anxiety and somatization are common. Grief counseling can help reduce somatic and psychological symptoms when medical causes are ruled out.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Anxiety and Bereavement:

“Candidates should recognize psychological sequelae of grief, including panic and health anxiety, and provide appropriate psychological support.”

Metoprolol (C) is not indicated without confirmed cardiac cause. Lorazepam (B) may offer short-term relief but does not address the underlying grief. Stress testing (A) is unnecessary with repeated normal investigations.

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The symptoms — visual hallucinations, attention deficits, gait instability — suggest dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB), which may show bilateral frontal or parietal atrophy on imaging.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Neurocognitive Disorders:

“DLB presents with fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and attention deficits. Imaging may show frontal or parietal atrophy but is not always specific.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Neurocognitive Disorders:

“Candidates must recognize the characteristic features of DLB and support diagnosis with imaging when appropriate.”

Cerebellar atrophy (A) is linked to ataxia but not hallucinations. Subdural hematoma (B) causes abrupt decline. Mediotemporal atrophy (D) is typical of Alzheimer’s. Option E is incorrect — imaging can support the diagnosis.

It is essential to balance medical guidelines with trauma-informed, patient-centered care. This includes offering future discussion while respecting boundaries. Acknowledging distress and offering to explore more in the future (B) preserves trust and autonomy.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM and LGBTQ2S+ Health Section:

“For transgender individuals, screening decisions should be personalized. Trauma-informed care includes validating distress and deferring invasive exams when not urgent.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 99-2: Cultural Safety):

“Candidates must prioritize patient-centered communication and consent, particularly when distress or marginalization may influence healthcare interactions.”

Option A is coercive. Option C is documentation only and lacks engagement or exploration.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after 12 months of regular, unprotected intercourse in women under 35 years. Since she has been trying for only 5 months, reassurance is appropriate.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology:

“Investigations for infertility in women under 35 should begin after 12 months of attempting to conceive, unless other risk factors are present.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-1: Infertility):

“Candidates must apply appropriate timing and indications for infertility investigations based on patient age and history.”

Earlier testing is not warranted here. Options A–D are part of the infertility work-up but not before 12 months.

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Clozapine and quetiapine are associated with significant weight gain and increased risk of type 2 diabetes. With a BMI of 32 and weight gain over the past year, screening for diabetes is appropriate and evidence-based.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Endocrinology, Diabetes & Psychiatry Sections:

“Second-generation antipsychotics such as clozapine increase the risk of metabolic syndrome and type 2 diabetes. Regular screening is recommended for patients with these risk factors.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Endocrinology:

“Candidates should screen high-risk individuals, especially those on antipsychotics with weight gain, for diabetes using fasting glucose or HbA1c.”

While sleep apnea (C) is also possible, diabetes screening is the most appropriate and urgent next step in this patient. COPD (A) would present with respiratory symptoms. Cushing’s (B) and acromegaly (E) are less common and have other distinct features.

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The patient has clinical evidence of genital warts (condyloma acuminata), which are caused by low-risk HPV types. Even though she is not currently sexually active and has visible warts, HPV vaccination is still beneficial for protection against other oncogenic strains (especially types 16 and 18). Vaccination is safe and recommended up to age 45.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, "STIs and HPV":

“Vaccination is recommended up to age 45, regardless of prior exposure or visible warts. It may prevent reinfection with or acquisition of high-risk HPV strains.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 83-3: STIs and HPV):

“Candidates must counsel patients appropriately on prevention, including the role of HPV vaccination, even after exposure or infection.”

Pap testing (B) is routine screening, not management of visible warts. Cryotherapy (D) is optional if the patient desires removal, but she declined treatment. Biopsy (A) is reserved for atypical lesions. Contact tracing (E) is not typically required for HPV warts.

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The highest priority is the immediate safety of the patient and her child. In the presence of domestic violence, risk assessment for harm or neglect must be conducted urgently, particularly since a child may be at risk. Safety trumps psychiatric or social evaluations in triage.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Crisis and Risk Assessment” Section:

“When intimate partner violence (IPV) is disclosed, it is critical to assess immediate safety and consider mandatory reporting, especially when children are involved.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-6: Violence and Abuse):

“Candidates must assess for and respond to risk of harm in situations of domestic violence, especially when dependents are involved. This includes ensuring immediate safety and following legal obligations for child protection.”

Although the other concerns (e.g., gambling, depression, substance use, financial need) are valid, the presence of violence makes D the first and most urgent priority.

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This patient has a family history of both male breast cancer (father) and early-onset ovarian cancer (aunt), which are red flags for BRCA1/2 mutations. Genetic counseling and BRCA testing are the appropriate next steps to stratify cancer risk and guide screening and prevention.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Oncology, “Breast Cancer Risk” Section:

“BRCA testing is recommended for individuals with a strong family history of breast or ovarian cancer, particularly if involving male relatives or early-onset cases.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Population Health > 97-5: Screening and Prevention):

“Candidates must identify high-risk individuals who require genetic counseling and screening beyond population guidelines.”

Tamoxifen (A) and prophylactic mastectomy (E) are only considered after confirming mutation status. Annual screening starting at 50 (D) is for average-risk women. Fine-needle sampling (C) is not a screening tool.

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The patient describes classic symptoms of depersonalization (“my voice sounds strange to me”) and derealization (“others seem like figures in a dream”), which define depersonalization/derealization disorder. There is preserved reality testing and no psychosis.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Dissociative Disorders” Section:

“Depersonalization/derealization disorder involves persistent or recurrent experiences of detachment from oneself (depersonalization) or surroundings (derealization), with intact reality testing and no delusions or hallucinations.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-4: Dissociative Disorders):

“Candidates must identify depersonalization/derealization disorder as a dissociative disorder distinct from psychosis or mood disorders.”

Schizophrenia (A) would include hallucinations or disorganized thinking. Conversion disorder (B) presents with neurological symptoms inconsistent with known diseases. Persistent depressive disorder (D) involves chronic low mood. Delusional disorder (E) would involve fixed false beliefs, which are not present here.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

While borderline personality disorder is challenging, symptoms (particularly impulsivity and suicidal behaviors) often attenuate with age and appropriate therapy (e.g., dialectical behavior therapy). Providing hope and clinical context to staff improves care and reduces stigma.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Personality Disorders”:

“BPD is associated with emotional dysregulation and impulsivity. Long-term prognosis is better than once believed, with many patients showing symptom remission over time.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 71-4: Personality Disorders):

“Candidates must provide appropriate education to patients and staff regarding prognosis and treatment of BPD.”

Statements A–D are false, stigmatizing, or dangerous.

The most appropriate and professional response is to focus on the current clinical situation and reassure the family that you will take responsibility for assessment and treatment. Criticizing a colleague (A, B, E) or deflecting to generalities (D) is unprofessional and unhelpful in crisis management.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, Physician-Patient-Family Communication:

“In emotionally charged or crisis situations, the physician must remain focused, empathetic, and professional. Avoid blaming colleagues; instead, offer a concrete plan of care.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Psychiatry > Ethics and Professionalism:

“Candidates must demonstrate professionalism in managing conflicts, focusing on patient care while maintaining collegial respect.”

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Pulsatile tinnitus synchronous with the pulse may be vascular in origin. The association with headaches and elevated BMI (a risk factor for idiopathic intracranial hypertension, IIH) warrants neuroimaging to assess for cerebral venous sinus thrombosis, vascular malformations, or raised intracranial pressure.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Neurology / ENT:

“Pulsatile tinnitus requires investigation for vascular causes including idiopathic intracranial hypertension. MRI or MRV is the next step.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Neurology > 35-1: Headache and Tinnitus):

“Candidates must investigate pulsatile tinnitus with neuroimaging when vascular causes are suspected.”

Audiogram (A) is for hearing loss. EEG (C) is not useful for tinnitus. CRP (D) is irrelevant.

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The first step in any MAID request is to explore the patient's motivations, psychosocial concerns, and mental health status. The request should be taken seriously and approached with compassion. Exploring the reasons is essential to determine eligibility and to distinguish suffering from other potentially treatable issues (e.g., depression, loss of hope).

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, "Medical Assistance in Dying":

“Upon receiving a request for MAID, the physician must first explore the patient’s motivations, ensure understanding of their condition, and assess for coercion, depression, or other treatable factors.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Ethical Dilemmas > End-of-Life Care):

“Candidates must demonstrate understanding of the ethical and legal framework surrounding MAID and respond appropriately to requests by exploring reasons and providing necessary support and referrals.”

MAID is available to mature minors in some jurisdictions but not uniformly. Assuming the patient is ineligible or redirecting to other treatments without discussion is inappropriate.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The Zika virus can be sexually transmitted and poses a serious risk of congenital Zika syndrome if infection occurs during pregnancy. The CDC and WHO recommend that couples delay conception for at least 3 months after potential male exposure due to the virus's persistence in semen.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Infectious Diseases / Travel Medicine:

“Zika virus may persist in semen for weeks. Couples should delay conception for 3 months after male exposure, even if asymptomatic.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 65-3: Travel Medicine and Reproductive Health):

“Candidates must counsel appropriately regarding risks of Zika in conception and apply current public health recommendations.”

Testing (B) is not reliable for asymptomatic individuals. Antivirals (E) are ineffective. Condoms (D) do reduce risk. Specialist referral (A) is not needed in most cases with no complications.

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This adolescent exhibited acute suicidal behavior (attempted to jump out of a window), which is a psychiatric emergency. Regardless of intoxication or cause, such behavior mandates a safety-first approach: involuntary psychiatric assessment and protection from self-harm.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Suicide and Crisis Intervention” Section:

“Involuntary psychiatric admission is indicated when a patient poses a danger to themselves or others. Suicidal ideation or attempts require immediate evaluation and monitoring.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide and Risk Management):

“Candidates must identify suicidal behavior and initiate appropriate action, including involuntary admission if necessary for safety.”

Observation (B) may miss the window for action. Parents (A) should be contacted but are not a substitute for admission. Chlordiazepoxide (C) is not first-line in this scenario.

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Physicians in Canada who have conscientious objections to procedures such as abortion are legally and ethically required to make an effective referral to another provider or service that can offer the treatment. The provider must not delay access to care.

Toronto Notes 2023 – ELOM, “Conscientious Objection”:

“A physician who objects to providing a service for reasons of conscience must make an effective referral to another provider or agency.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Professionalism > 90-1):

“Candidates must recognize the obligation to refer patients for services they themselves will not provide due to personal or religious beliefs.”

Delaying care (C), imposing personal beliefs (A), or suggesting alternatives like adoption (D) is inappropriate and may violate patient autonomy.

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The clinical picture suggests an obstructive anomaly of the female reproductive tract, such as imperforate hymen or vaginal outflow tract obstruction, leading to hematocolpos. The first essential step is physical examination of the external genitalia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pediatrics and Gynecology, “Amenorrhea” Section:

“In girls with primary amenorrhea and cyclic abdominal pain, perform an external genital exam to rule out obstructive anomalies (e.g., imperforate hymen or transverse vaginal septum). Examination should always precede imaging.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Pediatrics > 78-3: Puberty and Menstrual Disorders):

“Candidates must evaluate delayed menarche with physical exam, including inspection of the genitalia to rule out anatomic obstruction.”

Pelvic ultrasound (D) is helpful but should follow physical exam. Radiography (B), hCG (C), and urinalysis (E) are not primary steps in evaluating amenorrhea with a mass.

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Given the request for opioids and history of non-prescribed opioid use (oxycodone obtained from a friend), the next appropriate step is to conduct a urine drug screen. This helps assess current substance use and guides safe prescribing decisions.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Pain Management and Addiction Medicine:

“Urine drug screening is recommended before initiating opioid therapy or when there is suspicion of substance misuse. A history of using non-prescribed opioids mandates assessment for opioid use disorder and further risk stratification.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Chronic Pain:

“Candidates must assess for opioid misuse and dependence before initiating opioid therapy. Urine drug testing is a standard tool in this assessment.”

Providing naloxone (A) may be appropriate later if opioids are prescribed, but the priority is evaluation. Cannabis (B) is not first-line and lacks controlled evidence in chronic pain. Tramadol (D) is an opioid-like agent and not appropriate until misuse risk is evaluated.

This man exhibits a classic manic episode with psychotic features: persecutory delusions, distractibility, pressured speech, irritability, and possible grandiosity. The chronicity and mood symptoms are most consistent with Bipolar I disorder.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Mood Disorders” Section:

“Bipolar I disorder is characterized by episodes of mania, often with psychotic features.Symptoms include grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, distractibility, and mood-congruent delusions.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-1: Mood Disorders):

“Candidates must recognize mania and differentiate from brief psychosis or organic causes.”

Delirium (A) is acute, fluctuating, and involves impaired attention. Malingering (B) requires external gain. Brief psychotic disorder (C) resolves within 1 month. Brain injury–related psychosis (E) would require a supporting history or findings.

(Part 2 )

The presence of suicidal ideation in a minor mandates urgent assessment to ensure safety and access mental health care. Disclosure of sexual orientation should be handled delicately and is not urgent compared to suicidal risk.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Psychiatry, “Child and Adolescent Psychiatry” Section:

“Any adolescent disclosing suicidal ideation should be referred for urgent mental health evaluation. Concurrent issues such as sexual orientation may contribute to distress and should be addressed with appropriate support over time.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Psychiatry > 79-2: Suicide Risk Assessment):

“Candidates must immediately refer for psychiatric assessment when a minor reports suicidal ideation, regardless of other social or developmental concerns.”

Antidepressants (A) may be appropriate but must follow specialist evaluation. Encouraging disclosure (B) or peer groups (C) is premature without ensuring safety.

One of the strongest modifiable risk factors for postoperative delirium in older adults is exposure to anticholinergic medications (e.g., diphenhydramine, certain antidepressants). Avoiding these can reduce delirium risk.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics, “Delirium Prevention”:

“Avoid high-risk medications including anticholinergics, benzodiazepines, and narcotics if possible. Maintain orientation cues and adequate pain control.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Medicine > Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Impairment):

“Candidates must recognize predisposing factors for delirium and apply prevention strategies, including medication review.”

Opiates (B) should be used judiciously; untreated pain can also cause delirium. Cognitive screening (C) is helpful for baseline but does not prevent delirium. Benzodiazepines (D) increase delirium risk. Family involvement is actually helpful (E).

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Dog bites from animals of unknown rabies status, especially from endemic regions and in patients with uncertain immunization status, require immediate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) including both rabies immunoglobulin and vaccine. The decision is urgent given the fatal nature of rabies.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Infectious Diseases, “Rabies Exposure”:

“Rabies PEP is indicated for bites from animals with unknown vaccination status or those showing abnormal behavior, particularly in endemic regions. PEP includes both vaccine and immunoglobulin.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Public Health > 64-1: Rabies and Animal Bites):

“Candidates must recognize indications for rabies post-exposure prophylaxis.”

Ciprofloxacin (C) is not the antibiotic of choice (amoxicillin-clavulanate is preferred). Hydrogen peroxide (E) can be cytotoxic. Debridement (B) and CK (D) are not immediate priorities here.

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