ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:

Annex A.5.12 (Classification of information) states:

“Information should be classified according to the information security needs of the organization based on confidentiality, integrity and availability.”

This aligns directly with option B. Option A (labelling) is a separate control (Annex A.5.13). Option C (security perimeters) is under physical controls (Annex A.7.1). Option D (access control rules) relates to Annex A.5.15 and A.8.2.

Thus, the verified correct statement for the Classification of information control isB.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27000 standards:

ISO/IEC 27000 defines:

Risk analysis: “process to comprehend the nature of risk and to determine the level of risk” (Clause 3.58).

Risk assessment: the overall process of risk identification, risk analysis, and risk evaluation.

Risk evaluation: compares results of risk analysis against risk criteria to determine priority.

Risk management: coordinated activities to direct and control an organization with regard to risk.

Therefore, the missing word in the given definition is“analysis”.

This is important for ISMS implementation: organizations must understand the distinctions. Risk analysis is the core technical evaluation stage, while assessment is the broader process including evaluation, and management refers to the overall governance of risks.

Thus, the correct verified answer isB: Analysis.

Clause 4.3 (Determining the scope of the ISMS) requires consideration of:

“the external and internal issues referred to in 4.1; the requirements referred to in 4.2; and interfaces and dependencies between activities performed by the organization, and those that are performed by other organizations.”

This confirms that dependencies between activities are a required factor when defining scope. Options B (quality levels), C (lessons learned), and D (regular activities for improvement) are not scope requirements, though they may be relevant in planning or improvement processes.

Thus, the verified answer is A: Dependencies between activities performed by the organization.

Clause 6.1.2 (Information security risk assessment) requires organizations to “define and apply an information security risk assessment process that… establishes and maintains information security risk criteria, including criteria for accepting risk.”

This means that acceptable levels of risk (risk acceptance criteria) must be explicitly defined. These criteria ensure consistent decision-making when evaluating whether identified risks need further treatment or can be tolerated.

Option A is incorrect because exclusions relate to the ISMS scope (Clause 4.3), not risk assessment planning. Option B is not a requirement; effectiveness of risk assessment methods is not required to be measured, though methods must be applied consistently. Option D is false—the standard clearly specifies required elements for risk assessment.

Thus, the correct answer isC: The criteria for acceptable levels of risk.

Clause 5.1 (Leadership and Commitment) requires that:

“Top management shall demonstrate leadership and commitment with respect to the information security management system by… ensuring that the resources needed for the ISMS are available… and supporting persons to contribute to the effectiveness of the ISMS.”

This makes it explicit thattop managementhas the responsibility to ensure personnel are supported so they can contribute to the ISMS. Option B (line management) may provide local support, but ultimate accountability rests with top management. Auditors (C) only evaluate compliance, not provide support. Practitioners (D) help implement, but they don’t bear formal responsibility under the standard.

Thus, the verified answer isA: Top management of the organization.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:

Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) specifies:

“Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur.”

This clearly identifies the review frequency requirement: planned intervalsandwhenever there are significant changes. Options A and B (six-monthly or annually) are not prescribed by ISO — timing is left to the organization. Option C is also wrong, since Certification Bodies do not dictate policy review schedules.

Therefore, the verified correct answer isD.

Clause 7.3 (Awareness) requires:

“Persons doing work under the organization’s control shall be aware of: (a) the information security policy; (b) their contribution to the effectiveness of the ISMS, including the benefits of improved information security performance; (c) the implications of not conforming with the ISMS requirements.”

This applies not only to employees but also contractors and external parties under the organization’s control. Competence (B) requires having skills, training, and experience, while Communication (C) covers defining communication processes (Clause 7.4). Nonconformity and corrective action (A) is part of Clause 10 (Improvement).

Therefore, the specific requirement that ensures contractors are made aware of the information security policies is found in Clause 7.3 Awareness. Correct answer: D.

Clause 4.1 specifies exactly what must be determined when establishing context: “The organization shall determine external and internal issues that are relevant to its purpose and that affect its ability to achieve the intended outcome(s) of its information security management system.” This requirement is about understanding internal and external issues (e.g., culture, capabilities, regulatory environment) that influence the ISMS’s effectiveness. Objectives (option B) are addressed later in Clause 6.2; processes (option C) are addressed in Clause 4.4 and operational planning; and “which clauses apply” (option D) is not a determination step—ISO/IEC 27001’s requirements in Clauses 4–10 are not optional. Therefore, the direct, required factor per 4.1 is determining internal (and external) issues relevant to the organization’s purpose and ISMS outcomes.

The requirements for internal audit are explicitly placed inClause 9.2 (Performance Evaluation)of ISO/IEC 27001:2022. The standard requires:

“The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals to provide information on whether the information security management system… conforms to the organization’s own requirements… and to the requirements of this document.” (9.2.1)

“The organization shall plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)…” (9.2.2)

This clause clearly falls underPerformance Evaluation (Clause 9), not Planning (Clause 6), Operation (Clause 8), or Improvement (Clause 10). Therefore, the correct answer isC.

Clause 6.1.3 (e) specifies:

“The organization shall obtain risk owners’ approval of the information security risk treatment plan and acceptance of the residual information security risks.”

This confirms that residual risks — those remaining after risk treatment — must be reviewed and formally accepted by the designated risk owner. Option A is incorrect; awareness training is not a default control for all residual risks. Option B misrepresents leadership responsibility; top management ensures processes exist, butrisk ownersformally approve residual risk. Option D (avoiding risk) is a treatment option, not the mandated requirement for residual risks.

Thus, the required response isC: Review and acceptance by the risk owner.

Clause 9.3.2 (Management Review Inputs) states that management reviews shall include:

“c) information on the information security performance, including trends in: (1) nonconformities and corrective actions; (2) monitoring and measurement results; (3) audit results; and (4) fulfilment of information security objectives.”

This makesachievement of information security objectives(option A) a required trend to be considered. While external/internal requirements (C) and continual improvement opportunities (D) are also part of management review inputs, they are not specifically listed under “trends in performance.” Option B is outside the direct requirement.

Thus, the verified answer isA.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27001 & 27002:2022 standards:

ISO/IEC 27001 Annex A lists reference controls. ISO/IEC 27002 providesdetailed guidance on the implementation of those controls, including purpose, guidance, and examples. Clause 6.1.3 of ISO/IEC 27001 makes the link explicit: controls from Annex A are referenced, but ISO/IEC 27002 explains how to implement them.

However, ISO/IEC 27002 doesnotprovide a process for risk management—that is covered by ISO/IEC 27005. Risk management requirements are in ISO/IEC 27001 (Clauses 6.1.2 and 6.1.3).

Therefore, statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false. Correct answer:A.