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IIA-CIA-Part2 Internal Audit Engagement Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

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Questions 5

White planning an audit engagement of a procurement card activity. which of the following actions should an internal auditor take to denary relevant risks and controls?

Options:

A.

Compare card transaction types against procurement card policy guidelines.

B.

Develop the scope and objectives of the engagement

C.

Determine how many cardholders exceeded their daily limit.

D.

Meet with the procurement card program administrator

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Questions 6

Which of the following types of policies best helps promote objectivity in the internal audit activity’s work?

Options:

A.

Policies that are distributed to all members of the internal audit activity and require a signed acknowledgment.

B.

Policies that match internal auditors' performance with feedback from management of the area under review

C.

Policies that keep internal auditors in areas where they have vast audit expertise.

D.

Policies that provide examples of Inappropriate business relationships

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Questions 7

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

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Questions 8

While reviewing the organization’s financial year-end processes, an internal auditor discovered an erroneous journal entry. If the error is not addressed, it will result in a material misstatement of the financial records. The internal auditor needs an additional four weeks to complete the audit engagement. How should the auditor communicate this finding?

Options:

A.

The auditor should issue an interim report to management prior to completion of the audit and issuance of the final report.

B.

The auditor should include this item in the final audit report, marked with an asterisk, indicating that it is a high-risk item.

C.

The auditor should discuss the finding with the appropriate accounting staff who can make the correction immediately, and if corrected before the engagement is concluded, the finding would not need to be included in the audit report.

D.

The auditor is obligated to bypass management and immediately report the error directly to regulatory authorities.

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Questions 9

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 10

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the efficiency of an audit?

Options:

A.

The complexity of deficiency findings.

B.

The adequacy of preliminary survey information.

C.

The organization and content of workpapers.

D.

The method and amount of supporting detail used for the audit report.

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Questions 11

An internal auditor develops an engagement observation related to an organization's accumulation of large travel advances. The auditor observes that the organization's procedures do not require justification for travel advances greater than a specific amount Which of the following best describes the organization's procedures?

Options:

A.

A criterion of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

B.

A condition of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

C.

A consequence of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

D.

A cause of the organization's accumulation of large travel advances

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Questions 12

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization's strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 13

While performing fieldwork for an assurance engagement, a member of the internal audit team identified a key control that was not identified during the planning phase of the engagement Which of the following actions by the internal auditor would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Promptly adjust the audit work program to include tests that address the newly identified control and notify the other audit team members of the change

B.

Proceed with the current audit work program because the engagement scope has already been finalized but plan to address the newly identified control as part of the follow up engagement

C.

Adjust the audit work program to account for the new control, but only with approval from the engagement supervisor

D.

Discuss the control with management of the area under review and seek their approval prior to including the control in the current audit engagement

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Questions 14

Which procedure should an internal auditor perform to determine the audit objective?

Options:

A.

Meet with the board to discuss emerging issues and concerns

B.

Conduct a risk assessment of the area under review

C.

Establish the boundaries of the engagement

D.

Outline what will be included in the review

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Questions 15

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 16

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

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Questions 17

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

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Questions 18

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

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Questions 19

A team of internal auditors is assigned to audit the employee relations process in an organization, which includes employee conduct and disciplinary hearings. Which of the following audit approaches would provide the auditors with the best evidence to determine the degree to which disciplinary decisions are complying with documented policy?

Options:

A.

Review a random sample of concluded disciplinary reports to assess how the policy was applied in each case.

B.

Interview a sample of impacted employees for their opinions on the clarity and fairness of the policy.

C.

Observe several disciplinary hearings to determine whether they are in compliance with the policy.

D.

Conduct an interview to assess the disciplinary hearing chairman’s understanding of the policy and its appropriate use.

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Questions 20

Options:

A.

The organization’s attitude to hierarchy.

B.

The organization's whistleblowing strategy.

C.

The organization’s ongoing risk monitoring process.

D.

The organization’s risk management policy.

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Questions 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true when the internal audit activity is asked to investigate potential ethics violations in a foreign subsidiary?

Options:

A.

Communication of any internal ethics violations to external parties may occur with appropriate safeguards.

B.

Cultural impacts are less critical where the organization practices uniform polices around the globe.

C.

Cross-cultural differences should always be handled by the staff of the same cultural background.

D.

Local law enforcement should be involved as they are more familiar with the applicable local laws.

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Questions 22

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization's payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

Options:

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

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Questions 23

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals

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Questions 24

Due to a recent system upgrade, an audit is planned to test the payroll process. Which of the following audit objectives would be most important to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

Verify that amounts are correct.

B.

Verify that payments are on time.

C.

Verify that recipients are valid employees.

D.

Verify that benefits deductions are accurate.

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of internal control questionnaires (ICOs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are efficient because they minimize the need for follow-up with survey respondents

B.

Controls with positive survey responses can be eliminated from further testing

C.

Answers to survey questions can be easily misinterpreted

D.

ICQs offer limited value for organizations with uniform procedures

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Questions 26

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

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Questions 27

The internal audit activity is currently working on several engagements, including a consulting engagement on the management process in the human resources department. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to most efficiently and effectively ensure the quality of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Assign an experienced manager to monitor the whole engagement process.

B.

Employ fieldwork peer review to enhance the work quality.

C.

Require internal auditors to follow a standardized work program.

D.

Personally supervise the engagement

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Questions 28

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

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Questions 29

Considering the five-attribute approach to documenting deficiencies in an area under review which of the following answers the question. "What should be in place?’’

Options:

A.

Action plan

B.

Recommendation

C.

Condition

D.

Criteria

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Questions 30

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization's suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs

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Questions 31

An internal auditor completed a consulting engagement covering a recent advertising campaign. The audit client asked the auditor to forward a copy of the report to one of the three advertising agencies used by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding this request?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor may communicate the results to the advertising agency as instructed by the audit client, with approval from the chief audit executive.

B.

The internal auditor may not communicate the results to this external party regardless of the engagement client's instruction.

C.

The internal auditor may send the report and is required to include instructions for the advertising agency to limit further distribution and the use of results.

D.

The internal auditor may only communicate the results verbally to the advertising agency and should not provide a hard copy.

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Questions 32

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

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Questions 33

While reviewing engagement workpapers prepared by an internal audit team, the engagement supervisor identifies instances where there is no direct connection between certain workpapers and the engagement objectives. How should the engagement supervisor respond?

Options:

A.

Request that the internal auditors remove irrelevant workpapers from the records.

B.

Sign off on all workpapers, and arrange the documentation from most relevant to least relevant.

C.

Ensure that the final audit report indicates that the initial engagement objectives were expanded.

D.

Expand the scope of the audit and include the additional documentation.

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Questions 34

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

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Questions 35

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

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Questions 36

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

if it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor's previous role when this engagement was assigned.

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Questions 37

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports

1.Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2.Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting

3.Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously.

4.Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of. sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

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Questions 38

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness. Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction. Based on this information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

Effect of the control weakness.

Cause of the control weakness.

Conclusion on the control weakness.

Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1, 2, and 4.

C.

1, 3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

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Questions 39

Which of the following is an appropriate activity when supervising engagements?

Options:

A.

During engagement planning, the audit work program should be discussed between auditors and the engagement supervisor with the supervisor approving the work program.

B.

During fieldwork, scope changes made to the work program are at the auditor's discretion and should be supported adequately in the workpapers.

C.

Engagement supervision is most critical to the fieldwork and reporting phases of the audit, as this is where the majority of the work takes place.

D.

A degree of high supervision to no supervision may be provided to an auditor depending on his level of competence and the complexity of the engagement.

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Questions 40

An internal auditor is examining the organization's internal control processes. Which of the following would the auditor do to test the reliability of a customer database1?

Options:

A.

Perform a site visit to see whether the organization's servers are operational

B.

Interview end users to determine whether they understand how to use the database information

C.

Determine whether policies are in place on how to use the database information

D.

Review for indications of potential issues with the database information

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Questions 41

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

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Questions 42

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Standards requirement for ret internal audit records?

Options:

A.

Retention requirements for internal audit records should be compliant with ones set for external audit records

B.

Retention requirements should take into account the medium in which internal audit records are stored

C.

Retention requirements should be set by the chief audit executive and aligned will the organization s process and procedures

D.

Retention requirements should set a minimum period of the for records storage and the process of archiving documents

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements is most accurate with respect to the required elements of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments provide sufficient objectivity to provide evidence to the board that the internal audit activity understands the organization's control processes.

B.

Quality assessments focus on the internal audit activity’s structure, relationships with stakeholders, compliance with the Standards, and internal audit staff proficiency.

C.

in order to comply with the Standards, the internal audit activity must obtain an objective assessment of its processes and function at least once a year

D.

Internal auditors completing internal assessments must demonstrate certification to perform quality assessments

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Questions 44

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement's objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

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Questions 45

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

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Questions 46

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Questions 48

An internal auditor is conducting an assurance engagement in the procurement area. The auditor follows a checklist of tasks prepared for the engagement. During the process, the auditor notices some deviations from the procurement procedure requirements. However, these deviations are not directly linked to and do not prevent the auditor from completing the checklist tasks. So, the auditor does not investigate these deviations further. Which checklist drawback most likely applies to this situation?

Options:

A.

Over-reliance and a false sense of security

B.

Limited flexibility

C.

Inability to keep the checklist up to date

D.

Standardization and a systematic approach

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Questions 49

Which of the following situations best applies to an organization that uses a project, rather than a process, to accomplish its business activities?

Options:

A.

A clothing company designs, makes, and sells a new item.

B.

A commercial construction company is hired to build a warehouse.

C.

A city department sets up a new firefighter training program.

D.

A manufacturing organization acquires component parts from a contracted vendor

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Questions 50

Which of the following offers the best evidence that the internal audit activity has achieved organizational independence?

Options:

A.

An independent third party has assessed the organization's system of internal controls to be adequate and effective.

B.

The chief audit executive reports both functionally and administratively to the CEO

C.

The internal audit charter is drafted properly and approved by the appropriate parties.

D.

The mission statement and strategy of the internal audit activity demonstrates alignment to organizational objectives

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Questions 51

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

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Questions 52

Which of the following approaches to understanding business processes is conducted from a broad organizational perspective and has the greatest risk of overlooking processes that are ultimately critical?

Options:

A.

Process narrative.

B.

Process mapping.

C.

Bottom-up.

D.

Top-down.

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Questions 53

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

Options:

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

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Questions 54

An internal auditor is performing testing to gather evidence regarding an organization's inventory account balance and is mindful of the possibility that the sample used might support the conclusion that the recorded account balance is not materially misstated when, in fact, it is The auditor's concern best describes which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

Incorrect rejection risk.

B.

Incorrect acceptance risk.

C.

Tolerable misstatement risk

D.

Anticipated misstatement risk

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Questions 55

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

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Questions 56

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

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Questions 57

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) lo propose interim changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan''

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval.

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO tor approval

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval.

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Questions 58

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

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Questions 59

In order to obtain background information on an assigned audit of data center operations an internal auditor administers control questionnaires to select individuals who have primary responsibilities within the process. Which of the following is a drawback of this approach?

Options:

A.

It will be difficult to quantify the information obtained through this approach

B.

This approach does not help the auditor learn about the existence of controls

C.

It takes the auditor a long time to assess the relevant controls using this approach

D.

Information on control functionality is limited

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Questions 60

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers.

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management.

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Questions 61

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

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Questions 62

A customer has supplied personal information to a bank to facilitate opening an account. The bank is part of a larger group of companies with core businesses including general insurance, life insurance, and investment products. Considering that the customer has closed his only account with the bank and the statutory data retention period has elapsed, which of the following actions by the bank is most likely to align with appropriate data privacy principles?

Options:

A.

The bank destroys all records containing a customer's personal information without informing the customer.

B.

Based on an assessment of likely products of interest to the customer, the bank shares the customer’s personal information with other companies within the group and informs the customer.

C.

The bank retains customer information to facilitate easier verification of personal information in the event that the customer returns to reopen his account. The customer is not informed.

D.

The customer's personal information is used for market research by an external company and the customer is informed prior to publishing the results of the market research.

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Questions 63

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

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Questions 64

Options:

A.

Reviewing quality department survey results, which show 96% of employees believe all defective products are removed prior To shipping.

B.

Physically inspecting a sample of completed processing cycles for detective products prior to shipment.

C.

Observing employees while they raped products for defects

D.

Reviewing a quality report provided by management mat snows 13 products were identified and removed during me most recent processing cycle

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Questions 65

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

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Questions 66

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

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Questions 67

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

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Questions 68

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process' support of the internal audit activity is true?

Options:

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

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Questions 69

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor's decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

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Questions 70

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

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Questions 71

Which of the following statements is true pertaining to interviewing a fraud suspect?

1. Information gathered can be subjective as well as objective to be useful.

2. The primary objective is to obtain a voluntary written confession.

3. The interviewer is likely to begin the interview with open-ended questions.

4. Video recordings always should be used to provide the highest quality evidence.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

4 only

C.

1 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Questions 72

An internal auditor is planning an engagement at a financial institution. Toe engagement objective is to identify whether loans were granted in accordance with the organization's policies. When of the following approaches would provide the auditor with the best information?

Options:

A.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and verify whether they were repaid timely and in full

B.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and validate them against applicable underwriting guidelines

C.

Randomly select 30 employees to complete a survey regarding whether policies and standards are followed

D.

Randomly select several months obtain ageing reports for these months and compare them with the poor year

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Questions 73

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

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Questions 74

A chief audit executive's report to the board showed a significant trend of recent aud4s going over planned budgeted hours. Which of the following factors could cause this trend?

Options:

A.

Poor engagement supervision

B.

ineffective board reporting

C.

Untimely observation follows up and closure

D.

Limited staff resources

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Questions 75

Which of the following audit steps would an internal auditor perform when reviewing cash disbursements to satisfy IIA guidance on due professional care?

Options:

A.

The calculated statistical sample size is 50 however the internal auditor believes errors exist so he decides to increase the sample size to 80

B.

The internal auditor traces serial numbers of computer equipment listed on an invoice to the fixed asset inventory

C.

The internal auditor reviews the accounts payable manager's petty cash fund and vouchers

D.

The internal auditor reviews the related invoice purchase order and receiving report for each sample selection

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Questions 76

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives.

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Questions 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 78

It is close to the fiscal year end for a government agency, and the chief audit executive (CAE) has the following items to submit to either the board or the chief executive officer (CEO) for approval. According to IIA guidance, which of the following items should be submitted only to the CEO?

Options:

A.

The internal audit risk assessment and audit plan for the next fiscal year.

B.

The internal audit budget and resource plan for the coming fiscal year.

C.

A request for an increase of the CAE's salary for the next fiscal year.

D.

The evaluation and compensation of the internal audit team.

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Questions 79

Which of the following is the best approach for the internal audit function to communicate moderate and high risk observations to management?

Options:

A.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for all observations identified and send to management to review and provide feedback at the end of fieldwork.

B.

Verbally communicate the high risk observations to management when identified and prepare a documented worksheet that includes the root cause, effect, and recommendations.

C.

Prepare a formal observation worksheet for the high risk observations and a separate worksheet for the medium risk observations in an email to management.

D.

Verbally communicate all observations to management at the end of fieldwork and provide a formal worksheet for review and feedback.

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Questions 80

An organization's healthcare insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years. Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in healthcare costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations.

B.

Obtain the government index of healthcare costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another healthcare administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current healthcare administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred.

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Questions 81

In a small internal audit function, a single auditor is responsible for conducting the entire audit engagement. In this situation, what is the benefit of using a checklist as part of an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Allocation of tasks and responsibilities within the team.

B.

Facilitation of review by business representatives involved.

C.

Overview of results from previous audits.

D.

Retention of an audit trail regarding completion of tasks.

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Questions 82

Below is a flowchart detailing an organization's bank reconciliation process. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the flowchart?

Options:

A.

There is a conflict in the segregation of duties between preparing bank reconciliations and posting payments to the accounting books.

B.

There is an appropriate segregation of duties in the treasury department during the bank reconciliation process.

C.

There is a large workload for the treasury accountant during the bank reconciliation process.

D.

Bank statements should be obtained at a higher level, such as through the treasury supervisor.

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Questions 83

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues' workpapers for completeness and format.

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met.

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Questions 84

During an audit of the accounts payable process, an internal auditor was assigned to confirm the quantity of goods received on receiving documents to invoices for those goods and subsequent postings in the accounting system. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate for this test?

Options:

A.

Independent confirmation

B.

Tracing

C.

Vouching

D.

Reperformance

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Questions 85

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor's suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

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Questions 86

Which of the following is an effective approach for internal auditors to take to improve collaboration with audit clients during an engagement?

1. Obtain control concerns from the client before the audit begins so the internal auditor can tailor the scope accordingly.

2. Discuss the engagement plan with the client so the client can understand the reasoning behind the approach.

3. Review test criteria and procedures where the client expresses concerns about the type of tests to be conducted.

4. Provide all observations at the end of the audit to ensure the client is in agreement with the facts before publishing the report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Questions 87

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

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Questions 88

Which of the following is the most appropriate approach for the internal audit activity to follow up on management action plans?

Options:

A.

Create a tracking system for follow up

B.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed at least weekly.

C.

Delegate follow-up activities to qualified administrative staff within the business unit

D.

Ensure that follow-up activities are performed by the most senior auditor on staff

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Questions 89

During an audit of the human resources department, an internal auditor adopts benchmarking to test the employee turnover rate. How should the internal auditor apply this technique?

Options:

A.

Compare turnover m the organization to published turnover rates of peer organizations.

B.

Compare turnover in one period with turnover in the previous period in the organization

C.

Compare turnover in the period to total employees in the organization

D.

Compare turnover with the auditor's general knowledge of the organization

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Questions 90

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

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Questions 91

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

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Questions 92

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

Options:

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

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Questions 93

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

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Questions 94

Which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of tangible and intangible assets?

Options:

A.

For plant assets, cost includes the purchase price and the cost of design and construction

B.

For intangible assets, cost includes the purchase price and development costs.

C.

Due to their indefinite nature, intangible assets are not subject to amortization.

D.

The organization must expense any cost incurred in developing a plant asset

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Questions 95

An organization does not have a formal risk management function. According to the Standards, which of the following are conditions where the internal audit activity may provide risk management consulting?

There is a clear strategy and timeline to migrate risk management responsibility back to management.

The internal audit activity has the final approval on any risk management decisions.

The internal audit activity gives objective assurance on all parts of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

The nature of services provided to the organization is documented in the internal audit charter.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1 and 3 only.

D.

2 and 3 only.

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Questions 96

Which of the following statements best explains why an internal auditor should pay attention to retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

Retained earnings indicate the amount of potential dividends to be paid out to new investors.

B.

Retained earnings represent the amount of excess cash available in the organization.

C.

Retained earnings demonstrate that the organization was able to generate working capital from its own activities.

D.

Retained earnings constitute the main criterion used by ratings agencies to assess an organization.

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Questions 97

Which of the following would best prevent phishing attacks on an organization?

Options:

A.

An intrusion detection system

B.

Use of firewalls

C.

Regular security awareness training

D.

Application hardening

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Questions 98

If observed during fieldwork by an internal auditor, which of the following activities is least important to communicate formally to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Acts that may endanger the health or safety of individuals.

B.

Acts that favor one party to the detriment of another.

C.

Acts that damage or have an adverse effect on the environment.

D.

Acts that conceal inappropriate activities in the organization.

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Questions 99

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement^

Options:

A.

Esteem by colleagues.

B.

Self-fulfillment.

C.

Sense of belonging in the organization

D.

Job security.

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Questions 100

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

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Questions 101

Which of the following is an advantage of nonstatistical sampling over statistical sampling?

Options:

A.

Nonstatistical sampling provides more objective recommendations for management.

B.

Nonstatistical sampling provides an opportunity to select the minimum sample size required to satisfy the objectives of the audit tests.

C.

Nonstatistical sampling provides for the use of subjective judgment in determining the sample size.

D.

Nonstatistical sampling permits the auditor to specify a level of reliability and the desired degree of precision.

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Questions 102

Which of the following scenarios is an example of appropriate engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

An engagement supervisor provides equal supervision to junior auditors and senior auditors.

B.

An engagement supervisor uses internal audit software.

C.

The chief audit executive personally supervises each engagement.

D.

The engagement supervisor and a team member meet regularly to discuss engagement progress.

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Questions 103

The chief audit executive (CAE) is developing a workpaper preparation policy for a new internal audit activity. The CAE wants to ensure that all workpapers relate directly to the engagement objectives. Which of the following statements should be included in the policy specifically to address this concern?

Options:

A.

The workpapers should be understandable.

B.

The workpapers should be relevant.

C.

The workpapers should be economical.

D.

The workpapers should be complete.

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Questions 104

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a chantable contribution from the organization Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities

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Questions 105

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

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Questions 106

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm's financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

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Questions 107

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

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Questions 108

'Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

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Questions 109

Which of the following represents the best method for confirming that vendor invoices were for authorized purchases?

Options:

A.

Vouching vendor invoices to payments made.

B.

Sorting invoices by purchase orders and comparing for successive duplicate invoices.

C.

Comparing a random sample of vendor invoices to purchase orders.

D.

Sorting payments by invoice to detect successive duplicate invoices.

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Questions 110

Some lime after the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor teamed that several internal control deficiencies were not remedied, despite management's previous agreement to remedy them According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate response'5

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor must notify the chief audit executive (CAE) that the deficiencies have not been rectified

B.

The engagement supervisor should rely on professional judgment as to whether the CAE should be informed, or the management action plan should be adjusted

C.

The engagement supervisor should rely on his negotiation skills and issue an ultimatum to management to remedy the control deficiencies

D.

Ensure that these deficiencies are captured in the documentation as high-priority areas to be reviewed during the next audit.

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Questions 111

When is an organic organizational structure likely to be more successful than a mechanistic organizational structure?

Options:

A.

When a manufacturing organization has stable demand for its products.

B.

When an organization is subjected to strong political and social pressures

C.

When a manufacturer has reliable resources and suppliers.

D.

When an organization is infrequently affected by technological advances

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Questions 112

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended However during a follow-up engagement the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager deeded to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication

B.

Discuss the issue with the board which has ultimate responsibility to resolve the risk

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager attempt to change his view, and encourage him to movement the recommendations

D.

Document the branch manager's decision to accept the risk otherwise, no other speak: course of action is required.

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Questions 113

Which of the following statements is true regarding the management-by-objectives method?

Options:

A.

Management by objectives is most helpful in organizations that have rapid changes

B.

Management by objectives is most helpful in mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks.

C.

Management by objectives helps organizations to keep employees motivated.

D.

Management by objectives helps organizations to distinguish clearly strategic goals from operational goals

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Questions 114

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework.

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Questions 115

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline

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Questions 116

Organizations that adopt just-in-time purchasing systems often experience which of the following?

Options:

A.

A slight increase in carrying costs.

B.

A greater need for inspection of goods as the goods arrive

C.

A greater need for linkage with a vendors computerized order entry system.

D.

An Increase in the number of suitable suppliers

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Questions 117

An internal auditor at an electricity provider analyzes data sets related to customers’ household electricity usage, including payments, consumption, profiles, etc. The objective is to assess the completeness of the invoicing process. Which of the following would be the best approach to fulfill this purpose?

Options:

A.

Conduct a trend analysis of customers' payment history and flag those with the most inconsistent payments and debts

B.

Conduct a ratio analysis by calculating the relationship between sums paid in local currency and volume of electricity billed in megawatt hours

C.

Conduct an analysis of clients’ electricity consumption patterns within a specified period and identify consumption spikes

D.

Conduct a comparison to identify deviations between electricity amounts billed to customers and information regarding actual consumption

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Questions 118

An audit reveals that a manager's spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

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Questions 119

Which of the following statements about including consulting engagements in the annual internal audit plan is true?

Options:

A.

All requests for consulting engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan

B.

Assurance engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan but there is no requirement to include consulting engagements

C.

Consulting engagements do not need to be included m the annual internal audit plan unless requested by the board

D.

The acceptance of proposed consulting engagements into the annual internal audit plan may depend on their ability to add value

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Questions 120

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

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Questions 121

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

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Questions 122

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

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Questions 123

The internal audit activity has requested that new vendor information be summarized once per week in a single report, and that all invoices each week for these vendors be automatically flagged in the invoice processing system. Which of the following computerized audit techniques is the internal audit activity most likely applying?

Options:

A.

Enabling continuous auditing.

B.

Employing generalized audit software.

C.

Facilitating electronic workpapers.

D.

Using machine learning.

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Questions 124

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

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Questions 125

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

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Questions 126

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

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Questions 127

With regard to project management, which of the following statements about project crashing is true?

Options:

A.

It leads to an increase in risk and often results in rework.

B.

It is an optimization technique where activities are performed in parallel rather than sequentially

C.

It involves a revaluation of project requirements and/or scope.

D.

It is a compression technique in which resources are added to the project

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Questions 128

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

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Questions 129

The internal auditor and her supervisor are in dispute about a risk that was not tested during an audit of the procurement function. Which of the following tools would best support the auditor's decision not to test the risk?

Options:

A.

A spaghetti map

B.

A heat map.

C.

A process map

D.

An assurance map

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Questions 130

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether the organization's 200 employees are charging their work hours accurately to the correct project. The internal auditor selected a sample of 30 employee time reports for testing. Based on the testing, the internal auditor determined the following:

- 5 Time reports were incorrect.

- 21 Time reports were correct.

- 4 Time reports were not supported.

Options:

A.

The organization has significant flaws in its reporting of employee time, which could lead to the overstatement of project labor costs. The organization's failure to report accurate and complete employee time could lead to potential fraud and abuse.

B.

The organization needs to ensure that all reporting of employee time is accurate and complete for each of its projects By dang so the organization can minimize potential issues related to overstating employee tames and labor project costs.

C.

The organization overstated project costs due to inaccurate and incomplete reporting of employee time charged to the affected accounts As a result the organization cannot ensure at protects costs are accurately reported to stakeholders

D.

The organization generally ensured that employee hours charged to each project were accurate and complete. However, there were instances of employee time reports that were incorrect or not supported to justify the multiple project labor coats

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Questions 131

What is the best course of action for a chief audit executive if an internal auditor identifies in the early stage of an audit that some employees have inappropriate access to a key system?

Options:

A.

Contact the audit committee chair to discuss the finding

B.

Obtain verbal assurance from management that the inappropriate access will be removed

C.

Issue an interim audit report so that management can implement action plans

D.

Ask the auditor to create a ticket with the IT help desk requesting to revoke the inappropriate access

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Questions 132

A chief audit executive assigns a team of three internal auditors to carry out an audit engagement to ascertain adherence to the requirements of the procurement policy. Which of the following should be included in the scope of this engagement?

Options:

A.

The sample size to be considered

B.

The inherent risks to be considered

C.

The audit procedures to be considered

D.

The sub-processes to be considered

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Questions 133

A chief audit executive (CAE) received a detailed internal report of senior management's internal control assessment. Which of the following subsequent actions by the CAE would provide the greatest assurance over management's assertions?

Options:

A.

Assert whether the described and reported control processes and systems exist.

B.

Assess whether senior management adequately supports and promotes the internal control culture described in the report.

C.

Evaluate the completeness of the report and management's responses to identified deficiencies.

D.

Determine whether management's operating style and the philosophy described in the report reflect the effective functioning of internal controls.

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Questions 134

Which of the following is a justifiable reason for omitting advance client notice when planning an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Advance notice may result in management making corrections to reduce the number of potential deficiencies.

B.

Previous management action plans addressing prior internal audit recommendations remain incomplete.

C.

The engagement includes audit assurance procedures such as sensitive or restricted asset verifications.

D.

The audit engagement has already been communicated and approved through the annual audit plan.

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Questions 135

According to the IIA guidance, which of the following foes the engagement work test in a review in a review of an organization al process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls

D.

Process scope

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Questions 136

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

Options:

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

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Questions 137

A corporate merger decision prompts the chief audit executive (CAE) to propose interm changes to the existing annual audit plan to account for emerging risks Which of the following Is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take regarding the changes made to the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the board for approval

B.

Communicate with the chief financial officer and present the revised audit plan to the CEO for approval.

C.

Present the revised audit plan directly to the CEO for approval.

D.

Communicate with the CEO and present the revised audit plan to the board for approval

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Questions 138

An organization experiencing staff shortages wants to contract a temporary employee to assist with work in the accounting office. Which of the following controls should be in place to ensure the temporary employee performs the assigned work before payment is issued?

Options:

A.

A three-way match between the invoice, purchase requisition, and documentation of receipt of services

B.

A member of management approves the purchase requisition before the temporary employee begins work

C.

A scope of work for the temporary employee is included in the purchase requisition and signed by the organization

D.

Payments to the vendor are analyzed monthly to ensure they do not exceed the amount approved on the purchase order

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Questions 139

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management's self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

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Questions 140

An internal auditor accessed accounts payable records and extracted data related to fuel purchased tor the organization's vehicles As a first step, she sorted the data by vehicle and used spreadsheet functions to identify all instances of refueling on the same or sequential dates She then performed other tests Based on the auditor's actions which of the following is most likely the objective of this engagement1?

Options:

A.

To identify whether fuel was purchased for work-related purposes

B.

To estimate future fuel costs for the organization's fleet of vehicles

C.

To determine trends in average fuel consumption by vehicle

D.

To determine whether the organization is paying more than the industry average for fuel

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Questions 141

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

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Questions 142

The final internal audit report should be distributed to which of the following individuals?

Options:

A.

Audit client management only

B.

Executive management only

C.

Audit client management, executive management, and others approved by the chief audit executive.

D.

Audit client management, executive management, and any those who request a copy.

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Questions 143

When determining the level of staff and resources to be dedicated to an assurance engagement, which of the following would be the most relevant to the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

The overall adequacy of the internal audit activity's resources

B.

The availability of guest auditors for the engagement

C.

The number of internal auditors used for the previous review of the same area.

D.

The available resources with the specific skill set required

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Questions 144

An internal auditor reviewed the tender documents for the procurement of manufacturing equipment and observed the following:

    Tender technical specifications were compliant with internal policies.

    The sole assessment criterion of the tender was economic feasibility.

    All bids were submitted to a designated software and could not be opened before the submission deadline.

    The winner was approved by senior management.

    The winner was selected based on which bidder offered the newest technology.

Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

Options:

A.

Key controls of the procurement process operate as intended based on the analysis of the specific tender documents.

B.

IT controls implemented to ensure confidentiality of submitted bids seem to have several deficiencies.

C.

Management's selection of the winner should be positively acknowledged for focusing on innovative technological solution.

D.

The principles of transparency and equal treatment of bidders seem to be impaired.

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Questions 145

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 146

A manager has allowed a subordinate employee to have greater control and responsibility over the tasks that he performs This is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Job enlargement

B.

Job enrichment

C.

Horizontal loading of the job.

D.

Job rotation.

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Questions 147

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

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Questions 148

Senior management decides to adopt a conservative working capital policy. What would be the expected result for the organization?

Options:

A.

Low levels of inventory

B.

Higher level of profitability

C.

High level of liquidity

D.

Higher level of risk

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Questions 149

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 150

The objective of an internal audit engagement is to evaluate the organization's ethics program. Which of the following should be included in the scope of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategic plan

B.

Established investigation protocols

C.

Operational budget of the organization

D.

Remuneration of ethics officers

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Questions 151

An internal audit report includes a recommendation to remove inappropriate user access to an IT application. Which of the following does the recommendation represent?

Options:

A.

An agreed action adopted by management.

B.

A condition-based recommendation as an interim solution to correct a current condition.

C.

A cause-based recommendation to prevent inappropriate access being granted again.

D.

A management action plan.

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Questions 152

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

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Questions 153

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate's ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

Options:

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Questions 154

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent

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Questions 155

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team's IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

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Questions 156

Flowcharts are useful during audit planning because they contain information that may help internal auditors with which of the following?

Options:

A.

Understanding management's risk tolerance.

B.

Understanding business processes.

C.

Determining the size of the audit team needed to perform the review.

D.

Understanding organizational objectives.

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Questions 157

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

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Questions 158

A technology organization is developing an artificial intelligence (AI) program for use on its social media platform. The AI program is meant to help content creators with images and posts that will acquire followers more efficiently. The internal audit function is planning an engagement of the AI program development. Which of the following should be considered a significant, immediate, and inherent risk?

Options:

A.

The AI program becomes self-reliant and no longer requires human assistance to perform tasks for the organization.

B.

The AI program advancements allow for it to generate original images for use by content creators and other individuals.

C.

The AI program captures images found online that are created and owned by individuals and other organizations.

D.

The AI program will have to comply with the national regulation expected to come in force in two years' time.

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Questions 159

Which of the following is one of the five attributes that internal auditors include when documenting a deficiency?

Options:

A.

The criteria used to make the evaluation

B.

The methodology used to analyze data

C.

The proposed follow-up engagement work to be performed

D.

The scope of work performed during the engagement

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Questions 160

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

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Questions 161

A rapidly expanding retail organization continues to be tightly controlled by its original small management team. Which of the following is a potential risk in this vertically centralized organization?

Options:

A.

Lack of coordination among different business units

B.

Operational decisions are inconsistent with organizational goals.

C.

Suboptimal decision-making.

D.

Duplication of business activities.

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Questions 162

An internal auditor wants to determine if employees spend more than their approved daily stipend for meals. Which technique would be most appropriate to identify meal expenses that exceed the approved threshold?

Options:

A.

Using compliance verification data analytics

B.

Using regression analysis

C.

Using software with a gap testing function

D.

Drafting a flowchart of the meal expense reporting process

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Questions 163

The internal auditors available to perform the engagement do not have sufficient skills related to the area under review. Which of the following iss an appropriate action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Continue the engagement with the available staff, providing more hands-on supervision than usual

B.

Limit the objectives and scope of the engagement to align them with the skills available among the current staff.

C.

Cosource the performance of the engagement using personnel in the area that will be reviewed to supplement the knowledge of the staff and complete the engagement

D.

Supplement the internal auditors assigned to the engagement by bringing onto the engagement team a consultant who is independent of the area under review and has the missing expertise

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Questions 164

The internal audit manager has been delegated the task of preparing the annual internal audit plan for the forthcoming fiscal year. All engagements should be appropriately categorized and presented to the chief audit executive for review. Which of the following would most likely be classified as a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Evaluating procurement department process effectiveness.

B.

Helping in the design of the risk management program.

C.

Assessing financial reporting control adequacy.

D.

Reviewing environmental, social, and governance reporting compliance.

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Questions 165

Which of the following engagement techniques would be best to meet the objective of denting a personal conflict -of -interest situation affecting an organization’s procurement function?

Options:

A.

Inquiry

B.

Analytical review

C.

Observation

D.

Inspection of documents

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Questions 166

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

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Questions 167

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE's responsibility at the meeting?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

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Questions 168

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Questions 169

An internal auditor was reviewing the procurement department's tender documentation for completeness He documented all discrepancies but the procurement manager disagreed with his findings Upon further review, the internal auditor noted that all discrepancies had been corrected in the tender database. Which of the following courses of action would have prevented this situation?

Options:

A.

The auditor should have ensured the preservation of audit evidence by taking screenshots or extracting tender documents

B.

The auditor should have extracted a list of logs and identified any actions that were executed in the database during the audit

C.

The auditor should have instructed procurement workers that changes to the database during the course of the audit were strictly forbidden

D.

The internal auditor should have created a more thorough work program, which would address audit criteria and potential causes in more detail

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Questions 170

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement

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Questions 171

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

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Questions 172

Which of the following items, included in the preliminary audit communication would be most useful for management to formulate action plans in response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

A condition

B.

An audit objectives

C.

An audit scope

D.

An observation rating

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Questions 173

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 174

During engagement planning, which party provides the most accurate and up-to-date description of how organizational processes and key controls operate?

Options:

A.

The management responsible for the activity under review

B.

The individuals who perform the daily tasks and functions of the activity under review

C.

The external auditors since they understand the key controls behind the financial statements

D.

The board of directors since they provide overall oversight for the organization

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Questions 175

A chief audit executive (CAE) reviews the supervision of an internal audit engagement Which of the following would most likely assure the CAE that the engagement had adequate supervision?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor has an open door pokey for audit team members to discuss concerns

B.

The supervisor reviews weekly progress reports from the audit team members

C.

The supervisor reviews and initials internal audit workpapers for the engagement

D.

The supervisor meets periodically with management in the reviewed area to get feedback during the engagement.

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Questions 176

Which of the following technologies will best reduce human processing errors and enable seamless exchange of business transactions among business partners?

Options:

A.

Enterprise resource planning

B.

Material requirements planning

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Customer relationship management

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Questions 177

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

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Questions 178

Following an IT systems audit, management agreed to implement a specific control in one of the IT systems. After a period, the internal auditor followed up and learned that management had not implemented the agreed management action due to the decision to move to another IT system that has built-in controls, which may address the risks highlighted by the internal audit. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to address the outstanding audit recommendation?

Options:

A.

The auditor examines the system documentation of the new system to verify that the risk has been addressed in the new system, then reports to senior management the closure of the issue.

B.

The auditor accepts management's explanation that the previously identified issue is adequately addressed by the new IT system, as management understands the concern and is most knowledgeable about the new system, and closes the outstanding issue.

C.

The auditor advises management that replacing the IT system does not dismiss the prior obligation to implement the agreed action plan, and escalates the issue to senior management and the board.

D.

The auditor requires management to provide details regarding the process for selecting the new IT system and whether other systems were evaluated, and closure of the issue would depend on the new information provided.

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Questions 179

Which of the following is the best audit procedure to obtain evidence of an organization's legal ownership of a new property?

Options:

A.

Review documents registered with the appropriate governmental authority.

B.

Examine the board of directors' minutes and look for approvals to acquire property.

C.

Confirm with senior management and legal counsel concerning property acquisition.

D.

Confirm ownership with the title company that handles the escrow account.

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Questions 180

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget.

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

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Questions 181

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 182

Which of the following is a primary reason for an internal auditor to use a risk and control questionnaire when auditing financial processes?

Options:

A.

To gain an understanding of the control environment

B.

To collect as much financial data as possible before engagement fieldwork begins.

C.

To test the effectiveness of financial controls in an efficient and relatively inexpensive way

D.

To facilitate the quantification of financial data obtained

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Questions 183

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) of a small organization is developing a resource management plan. Which of the following approaches would be most beneficial to help the CAE obtain details of the internal audit activity's collective knowledge, skills, and other competencies?

Options:

A.

Review or establish a documented skills assessment of the internal audit staff and gather information from post-audit surveys.

B.

Obtain from the human resources department the job descriptions and position requirements for all internal audit staff.

C.

Conduct an objective written test of the internal audit staff to assess their knowledge and skills related to core internal audit competencies.

D.

Request the internal audit staff to submit a document that summarizes their most recent performance appraisals and post audit reviews.

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Questions 184

The objective of an upcoming engagement is to review the wind park projects and assess compliance with established project management principles. Which of the following is most likely to be the aim of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the application of project management guidance in the development of wind parks.

B.

Identify key risks and mitigation plans pertaining to the management of wind parks.

C.

Assess whether development of wind parks is compliant with relevant legal acts and international best practices.

D.

Review the wind park development strategy and compare its goals with operational targets and metrics.

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Questions 185

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

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Questions 186

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and Investigation at multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter.

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

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Questions 187

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization's payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management's organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

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Questions 188

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

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Questions 189

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

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Questions 190

The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization has completed this year’s risk-based audit plan and realized that current staff resources are insufficient to meet the needs of the plan. What course of action should the CAE take?

Options:

A.

Amend the audit plan so that available audit resources are adequate to meet the plan’s requirements.

B.

Inform the board and senior management of the resources needed, as well as the associated risks.

C.

Communicate early to those unit managers whose areas would most likely not be able to get reviewed.

D.

Get approval from human resources regarding overtime payment to be made in an effort to complete the audit plan.

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Questions 191

When auditing an organization's purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

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Questions 192

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

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Questions 193

In which of the following ways can the internal audit activity new engagement opportunities?

Options:

A.

By defining activities by business processes.

B.

By looking external factors such as product complaints.

C.

By looking at activities by businesses cost centers.

D.

By defining activities by the organization chart.

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Questions 194

An organization's finance manager plans to implement a state-of-the-art management system to better manage the organization's receivables. The finance manager consulted the chief audit executive (CAE) and asked for her assistance in determining whether the organization is able to accommodate this system. How would the CAE proceed to determine the objectives of this engagement

Options:

A.

Ask the CEO to determine the scope and objectives of the engagement

B.

Request that the board disclose its concerns over governance for inclusion in the engagement

C.

Discuss the concerns with the finance manager and work together to agree on the engagement objectives

D.

Review previous audit reports from the area and develop engagement objectives to address the area's key risks and controls

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Questions 195

Which of the following statements is true regarding the audit objective for an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Operational management must determine the audit objective in cooperation with the internal auditor

B.

The audit objective may be adjusted after the start of an engagement and it does not need to align with the assessed risks

C.

The audit objective must consider the possibility of fraud and noncompliance

D.

The audit objective may or may not consider the possibility of fraud depending on the assessed likelihood and impact

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Questions 196

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management's update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

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Questions 197

An internal auditor receives a document displaying all the steps of a process and the path taken as transactions flow between each step of the process How is the internal auditor most likely to use This document during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To perform an assessment of the adequacy of process controls.

B.

To perform an assessment of the effectiveness of process controls

C.

To perform a detailed assessment of process risks

D.

To perform an assessment of the sufficiency of residual process risks.

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Questions 198

A bicycle manufacturer incurs a combination of fixed and variable costs with the production of each bicycle. Which of the following statements is true regarding these costs?

Options:

A.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 15 percent, the variable cost per unit will increase proportionally

B.

The fixed cost per unit will vary directly based on the number of bicycles produced during the production cycle.

C.

The total variable cost will vary proportionally and inversely with the number of bicycles produced during a production run.

D.

if the number of bicycles produced is increased by 30 percent, the fixed cost per unit will decline.

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Questions 199

Which of the following are advantages of flowcharts over internal control questionnaires''

1 Flowcharts reduce the need to test whether employees are observing internal control processes

2 Flowcharts provide a visual depiction of the processes in the area under review 3. Flowcharts identify and prioritize internal control design weaknesses.

4 Flowcharts highlight the control points to help internal auditors evaluate control design

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only.

C.

1.2. and 3 only

D.

2. 3 and 4 only

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Questions 200

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

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Questions 201

An internal auditor is assessing the organization's risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 202

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement

D.

To evaluate the design of controls

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Questions 203

During the planning stage of an assurance engagement, an internal auditor has been assigned to prepare a risk matrix. Which of the following should the internal auditor consider when attempting to identify process-level risks?

Options:

A.

Possible tests

B.

Possible scenarios

C.

Possible controls

D.

Possible samples

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Questions 204

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

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Questions 205

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

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Questions 206

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

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Questions 207

In which of the following situations would an internal auditor consider the need to outsource competencies and skills9

Options:

A.

During the inspection of a wind turbine. an internal auditor notices that some replaced parts took used According to purchase documents, the parts still have a long lifespan.

B.

The auditor believes that the audit client's actions contradict the organization's code of conduct The audit client disagrees and says his actions are for the organization's benefit

C.

An audit team member is allocated to conduct an assurance engagement m the sales unit. However, the same auditor performed an assurance engagement in that area just one year prior

D.

During an inventory count, the auditor ascertained that some goods were missing. The audit client argues that the auditor does not understand how inventory should be counted

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Questions 208

Which of the following risk assessment approaches involves gathering data from work team representing different levels of an organisation?

Options:

A.

Surveys

B.

Management produced analysis 0

C.

Facilitated team workshops

D.

Weighted risk factors

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Questions 209

What is the primary purpose of creating a preliminary draft audit report?

Options:

A.

To save time during final report writing

B.

To meet the Standards requirement for developing a draft report prior to issuing a final report

C.

To use as a tool for communicating with management of the area under review.

D.

To require that management implements solutions to issues identified during the engagement

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Questions 210

Which of the following is an example of a properly supervised engagement?

Options:

A.

Auditors are asked to keep a daily record of their activity for review by the auditor in charge following the engagement.

B.

The senior internal auditor requires each auditor to review and initial colleagues’ workpapers for completeness and format

C.

A new internal auditor is accompanied by an experienced auditor during a highly sensitive fraud investigation.

D.

The auditor in charge provides reasonable assurance that engagement objectives were met

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Questions 211

Which of the following data analysis techniques is used to identify inappropriately matching values, such as names, addresses, and account numbers in disparate systems?

Options:

A.

Stratification of numeric values

B.

Gap testing

C.

Joining different data sources

D.

Duplicate testing

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Questions 212

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the Internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement.

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement

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Questions 213

Options:

A.

To validate the engagement work program.

B.

To help the internal auditor understand the objectives of the area or process under review.

C.

To determine whether operational management has sufficient knowledge of risks and controls.

D.

To determine whether management followed through on action plans from a previous consulting engagement.

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Questions 214

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, the internal audit engagement team identifies and evaluates the inherent fraud risks within the procurement function. What should be the engagement team’s next step?

Options:

A.

Identify and map existing controls to their relevant inherent fraud risks

B.

Detect fraudulent activities in the activity under review for the audited period

C.

Select the appetite level for each inherent fraud risk

D.

Evaluate and respond to residual fraud risks that need to be mitigated

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Questions 215

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity's position within the organization in an audit charter

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Questions 216

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

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Questions 217

According to the Standards, which of the following is true regarding the auditor's inclusion of management's satisfactory performance in the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Acknowledgement of satisfactory performance is encouraged but not required.

B.

There are no standards to address the inclusion of satisfactory performance.

C.

Satisfactory performance should only be acknowledged with the advice of corporate counsel.

D.

Auditors must include satisfactory performance with the approval of the board.

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Questions 218

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

Options:

A.

To better understand and influence executives' planning.

B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.

C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.

D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.

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Questions 219

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

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Questions 220

Which is the most appropriate evaluation criterion regarding the quality of audit engagement workpapers?

Options:

A.

Every workpaper should provide reasonable evidence of work conducted.

B.

Every workpaper should result in appropriately worded audit findings.

C.

Every workpaper should include a conclusion regarding the likelihood of fraud.

D.

Every workpaper should be approved by the engagement client.

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Questions 221

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 222

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following Is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

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Questions 223

Which of the following types of resources is the most important and challenging to identify and allocate in order to perform an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

External resources.

B.

IT resources.

C.

Human resources.

D.

Monetary budget.

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Questions 224

An internal auditor reviewed bank reconciliations prepared by management of the area under review. The auditor noted that the bank statements attached did not have the

bank heading, logo, or address. Which of the following statements is true regarding this situation?

Options:

A.

The evidence may not be reliable.

B.

The evidence is not relevant.

C.

The evidence may not be sufficient.

D.

The information missing is not relevant to the audit.

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Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Internal Audit Engagement
Last Update: Feb 17, 2026
Questions: 747
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