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IIA-ACCA ACCA CIA Challenge Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 5

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding the exit conference for an internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

A primary purpose of the exit conference is to provide for the timely communication of observations that call for immediate management action.

B.

Both the chief audit executive and the chief executive over the activity or function reviewed must attend the exit conference to validate the findings.

C.

The exit conference provides only anticipated results for inclusion in the final audit communication.

D.

During the exit conference, the performance of the internal auditors who executed the engagement is reviewed.

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Questions 6

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities is most likely to enhance stakeholders' perception of the value the internal audit activity (IAA) adds to the organization?

1. The IAA uses computer-assisted audit techniques and IT applications.

2. The IAA uses a consistent risk-based approach in both its planning and engagement execution.

3. The IAA demonstrates the ability to build strong and constructive relationships with audit clients.

4. The IAA frequently is involved in various project teams and task forces in an advisory capacity.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 7

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

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Questions 8

According to IIA guidance, organizations have the most influence on which element of fraud?

Options:

A.

Opportunity.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Incentives.

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Questions 9

An employee in the sales department completes a purchase requisition and forwards it to the purchaser. The purchaser places competitive bids and orders the requested items using approved purchase orders. When the employee receives the ordered items, she forwards the packing slips to the accounts payable department. The invoice for the ordered items is sent directly to the sales department, and an administrative assistant in the sales department forwards the invoices to the accounts payable department for payment. Which of the following audit steps best addresses the risk of fraud in the cash receipts process?

Options:

A.

Verify that approvals of purchasing documents comply with the authority matrix.

B.

Observe whether the purchase orders are sequentially numbered.

C.

Examine whether the sales department supervisor approves invoices for payment.

D.

Determine whether the accounts payable department reconciles all purchasing documents prior to payment.

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client's business objectives.

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Questions 11

A manufacturer is under contract to produce and deliver a number of aircraft to a major airline. As part of the contract, the manufacturer is also providing training to the airline's pilots. At the time of the audit, the delivery of the aircraft had fallen substantially behind schedule while the training had already been completed. If half of the aircraft under contract have been delivered, which of the following should the internal auditor expect to be accounted for in the general ledger?

Options:

A.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

B.

All completed training costs, and the cost of actual production hours completed to date.

C.

Training costs allocated to the number of aircraft delivered, and 50% of contracted production costs.

D.

All completed training costs, and 50% of the contracted production costs.

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Questions 12

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

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Questions 13

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor's differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client's differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

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Questions 14

Which of the following situations would justify the removal of a finding from the final audit report?

Options:

A.

Management disagrees with the report findings and conclusions in their responses.

B.

Management has already satisfactorily completed the recommended corrective action.

C.

Management has provided additional information that contradicts the findings.

D.

Management believes that the finding is insignificant and unfairly included in the report.

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Questions 15

A chief audit executive is preparing interview questions for the upcoming recruitment of a senior internal auditor. According to IIA guidance, which of the following attributes shows a candidate's ability to probe further when reviewing incidents that have the appearance of misbehavior?

Options:

A.

Integrity.

B.

Flexibility.

C.

Initiative.

D.

Curiosity.

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Questions 16

An organization's board would like to establish a formal risk management function and has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to be involved in the process. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles should the CAE not undertake?

Options:

A.

Manage and coordinate risk management processes.

B.

Audit risk management processes.

C.

Become involved in risk oversight committees, monitoring activities, and status reporting.

D.

Accept management's responsibility for risk management without board approval.

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Questions 17

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

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Questions 18

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is least likely to be a key financial control in an organization's accounts payable process?

Options:

A.

Require the approval of additions and changes to the vendor master listing, where the inherent risk of false vendors is high.

B.

Monitor amounts paid each period and compare them to the budget to identify potential issues.

C.

Compare employee addresses to vendor addresses to identify potential employee fraud.

D.

Monitor customer quality complaints compared to the prior period to identify vendor issues.

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Questions 19

The internal audit activity (IAA) wants to measure its performance related to the quality of audit recommendations. Which of the following client survey questions would best help the IAA meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Were audit findings relevant and useful to management?

B.

Does the audit report format present issues clearly and concisely?

C.

Does the IAA work with a high degree of professionalism and objectivity?

D.

Were the findings reported in a timely manner?

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Questions 20

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

Options:

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the "communicate" phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

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Questions 21

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

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Questions 22

When establishing a quality assurance and improvement program, the chief audit executive should ensure the program is designed to accomplish which of the following objectives?

1. Add value.

2. Improve operations.

3. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

4. Provide assurance that the internal audit activity conforms with the IIA Code of Ethics.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 23

Which of the following is a detective control for managing the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Awareness of prior incidents of fraud.

B.

Contractor non-disclosure agreements.

C.

Verification of currency exchange rates.

D.

Receipts for employee expenses.

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Questions 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following individuals should receive the final audit report on a compliance engagement for the organization's cash disbursements process?

Options:

A.

The accounts payable supervisor, accounts payable manager, and controller.

B.

The accounts payable manager, purchasing manager, and receiving manager.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor, controller, and treasurer.

D.

The accounts payable manager, chief financial officer, and audit committee.

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Questions 25

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is false regarding a review of the controls in place to prevent fraud?

Options:

A.

The review should focus on the efficiency of the controls in place to prevent fraud.

B.

The scope of the review does not need to include all operating areas of the organization.

C.

The cost of the control should be compared to the benefit of mitigating the related risk.

D.

The review should assess whether the internal controls can be circumvented.

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Questions 26

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization's strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization's business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

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Questions 27

An internal auditor is assessing the organization's risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 28

When developing the scope of an audit engagement, which of the following would the internal auditor typically not need to consider?

Options:

A.

The need and availability of automated support.

B.

The potential impact of key risks.

C.

The expected outcomes and deliverables.

D.

The operational and geographic boundaries.

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Questions 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements best justifies a chief audit executive's request for external consultants to complement internal audit activity (IAA) resources?

Options:

A.

The organization's audit universe is extensive and diverse.

B.

There has been an increase in unanticipated requests for advisory work.

C.

Previous work provided by the external service provider has been of great quality and value.

D.

A recent benchmarking study found that using external service providers is a common practice of similarly-sized IAAs in other organizations.

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Questions 30

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity's (IAA's) objectives?

Options:

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization's governance structure.

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Questions 31

Which of the following would not be a typical activity for the chief audit executive to perform following an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Report follow-up activities to senior management.

B.

Implement follow-up procedures to evaluate residual risk.

C.

Determine the costs of implementing the recommendations.

D.

Evaluate the extent of improvements.

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Questions 32

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

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Questions 33

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process.

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process.

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Questions 34

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization's board?

Options:

A.

Requesting a private meeting with senior management, without the presence of the chief audit executive.

B.

Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

C.

Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

D.

Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

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Questions 35

A large sales organization maintains a system of internal control according to the COSO model and has updated its code of conduct. This change relates to which component of the COSO framework?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Information and communication.

C.

Commitment.

D.

Control environment.

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Questions 36

An organization invests its savings in a volatile stock with the potential for high gains rather than a mutual fund with a lower expected return and lower volatility. This best describes which of the following risk concepts?

Options:

A.

Risk identification.

B.

Risk appetite.

C.

Risk capacity.

D.

Risk tolerance.

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Questions 37

Which of the following is considered a violation of The IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

An auditor conveys public information about an organization's financial condition.

B.

An auditor reports a manager's illegal activity to senior management, rather than reporting the incident to the appropriate external authority.

C.

An auditor receives allegations of fraud from a whistleblower and immediately reports the allegations to senior management.

D.

An auditor reports material deficiencies, despite the fact that management is already aware of the defects.

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Questions 38

Which of the following are components of the ISO 31000 risk management process?

1. Setting the context.

2. Risk treatment.

3. Risk avoidance.

4. Communication.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3.

C.

3 and 4.

D.

1,2, and 4.

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Questions 39

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is ultimately responsible for seeing that the internal control system of an organization's social responsibility program is effective?

Options:

A.

Senior management.

B.

Internal audit activity.

C.

All employees.

D.

Board of directors.

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Questions 40

The manager for an organization's accounts payable department resigned her post in that capacity. Three months later, she was recruited to the internal audit activity and has been working with the audit team for the last eight months. Which of the following assignments would the newly hired internal auditor be able to execute without any impairments to independence or objectivity?

Options:

A.

An operations audit of the accounts payable department.

B.

A consulting engagement related to a new accounts payable optimization initiative.

C.

A review of the employees' sports club finances, which are overseen by the chief audit executive.

D.

An assurance review for a sales program on which she previously provided consultation.

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Questions 41

Which of the following enhances the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) approves the annual internal audit plan.

B.

The CAE administratively reports to the board.

C.

The audit committee approves the CAE's annual salary increase.

D.

The chief executive officer approves the internal audit charter.

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Questions 42

Sometimes, internal audit staff may partner with operating managers to rank risks. Which of the following outcomes may be the most beneficial aspects of this strategy?

1. Reappraising risks levels.

2. Providing accurate information to management.

3. Marketing the internal audit activity.

4. Planning safeguards for assets in high-risk areas.

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 3.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 43

Which of the following is the best way to detect fraud?

Options:

A.

Conduct anti-fraud training.

B.

Perform background investigations.

C.

Implement process controls.

D.

Activate a whistleblower hotline.

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements accurately describes an internal auditor's responsibility with regard to due professional care?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor should express an opinion only when consensus with top management has been achieved.

B.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on experience and free of all bias.

C.

An internal auditor's opinion should be based on factual evidence.

D.

An internal auditor's opinion should be limited to the effectiveness of internal controls.

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Questions 45

During an audit, the client questions the internal audit activity's authority to perform procedures over fraud allegations. According to HA guidance, which of the following would provide the most relevant support to respond to the client's concerns?

Options:

A.

Definition of Internal Auditing.

B.

MA Standards.

C.

Internal audit charter.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

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Questions 46

When developing the organization's first risk universe, which of the following would the chief audit executive be least likely to consider?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk that an organization is willing to seek or accept.

B.

The extent and degree of interdependency for identified key risks.

C.

The boundaries established to manage the amount of risk taken.

D.

The exposure to risks following management's risk responses.

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Questions 47

Which of the following best describes the misdirection of payments on accounts receivable to an employee's bank account?

Options:

A.

Fraud open on the books.

B.

Fraud hidden on the books.

C.

Fraud off the books.

D.

Fraud on the balance sheet.

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Questions 48

An internal auditor is reviewing the accounts receivable when she discovers account balances more than three years old. The auditor was previously supervising the area during this time, and she subsequently advises the chief audit executive (CAE) of a potential conflict.

Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Replace the auditor with another audit staff member.

B.

Continue with the present auditor, as more than one year has passed.

C.

Withdraw the audit team and outsource the financial audit of the division.

D.

Work with the division's management to resolve the situation.

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Questions 49

According to the HA Code of Ethics, which of the following statements best describes the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors shall perform their work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

B.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the Standards.

C.

Internal auditors shall perform their work in accordance with the law and make disclosures expected by the law.

D.

Internal auditors shall be prudent in the use of information acquired while performing their work.

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Questions 50

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes internal auditors' responsibility regarding fraud?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should take a leading role in investigating all fraud-related cases.

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud.

C.

Internal auditors should report all fraud cases to law enforcement agents, in accordance with the Code of Ethics.

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for ensuring that fraud does not occur.

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Questions 51

Non-statistical sampling does not require which of the following?

Options:

A.

The sample to be representative of the population.

B.

The sample to be selected haphazardly.

C.

A smaller sample size than if selected using statistical sampling.

D.

Projecting the results to the population.

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Questions 52

Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibility of the internal audit activity regarding IT governance?

1. The internal audit activity does not have any responsibility because IT governance is the responsibility of the board and senior management of the organization.

2. The internal audit activity must assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

3. The internal audit activity may assess whether the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

4. The internal audit activity may accept requests from management to perform advisory services regarding how the IT governance of the organization supports the organization's strategies and objectives.

Options:

A.

1 only.

B.

4 only.

C.

2 and 4.

D.

3 and 4.

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Questions 53

An internal audit activity includes in its audit reports the assertion that its work is performed in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing {Standards). A recent external quality assessment concluded that the internal audit activity had substantial deficiencies that impact its overall operations. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action for issuing future audit reports?

Options:

A.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until the chief audit executive confirms that the internal audit activity has addressed all areas of nonconformance and the audit committee has been notified.

B.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until another external assessment confirms that the significant areas of nonconformance have been addressed.

C.

Indicate that the internal audit activity operates in partial conformance with the Standards, as the internal audit activity has a quality assurance and improvement program in place to address deficiencies and has met the requirement for conducting an external assessment.

D.

Update and reissue previous audit reports, removing the assertion that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards, and distribute them to all parties who received the original reports.

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Questions 54

An internal auditor is evaluating techniques management uses to mitigate risks within a particular product division. Which of the following is an example of risk reduction?

Options:

A.

Management sells the product division to a competitor.

B.

Management outsources the product division to a third party.

C.

Management allows the product division to remain unchanged.

D.

Management modifies the product division to minimize errors.

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Questions 55

Which of the following combinations of conditions is most likely a red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The practice of surprise audits and the implementation of an employee support program.

B.

Hiring an employee with a prior fraud conviction and yearly management review.

C.

Occasional accounting department overrides and discontinuation of the anonymous fraud hotline due to infrequent use.

D.

A veteran employee in upper management experiencing financial difficulties and recently implemented enhanced controls.

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Questions 56

To fill a critical vacancy, an internal auditor is assigned temporarily to a nonaudit role in the purchasing department, where she worked previously before joining the internal audit activity. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding these circumstances?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should review all work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment to ensure no impairments.

B.

The CAE may conduct audits in the purchasing department during the auditor's temporary assignment.

C.

The auditor should obtain the CAE's approval as to the nature and scope of the duties she is permitted to perform during her temporary assignment.

D.

Any work performed by the auditor during her temporary assignment must conform to the internal audit charter.

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Questions 57

Which of the following situations is most likely to impair internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor reports both functionally and administratively to the chief financial officer (CFO).

B.

An internal auditor, who was an accounts receivable intern for the organization three years prior, performs an audit of the accounts receivable cycle.

C.

According to policy, the internal auditor must obtain approval from the CFO prior to requesting information for internal audit purposes.

D.

An internal auditor performs an audit in a department that is led by the auditor's close friend.

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Questions 58

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently. Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

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Questions 59

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the reporting of results from an external quality assessment of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The external assessment results are reported upon completion in confidence directly to the board, and senior management is advised only of the recommendations and improvement action plans.

B.

The results of self-assessments with independent external validation are shared with the board upon completion, and monitoring of recommended improvements must be reported monthly.

C.

The external assessment results are communicated upon completion to senior management and the board, but action plans for recommended improvements do not have to be reported.

D.

The requirements for reporting quality assessment results are the same for external assessments and self-assessments with independent external validation.

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Questions 60

Which of the following is an example of a risk management avoidance response?

Options:

A.

Exiting a marketplace.

B.

Recalling a product.

C.

Obtaining product insurance.

D.

Outsourcing production.

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Questions 61

Which of the following techniques would provide the most compelling evidence that a safety hazard exists within a manufacturing facility?

Options:

A.

Observation of the facility during operations.

B.

Questioning of facility management, including the facility safety officer.

C.

Analysis of facility operating reports, focusing on instances when breakdowns occurred.

D.

Review of records involving safety violations, filed by facility production employees.

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Questions 62

A snow removal company is conducting a scenario planning exercise where participating employees consider the potential impacts of a significant reduction in annua snowfall for the coming winter. Which of the following best describes this type of risk?

Options:

A.

Residual.

B.

Net.

C.

Inherent.

D.

Accepted.

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Questions 63

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) evaluation activities may be performed by the internal audit activity?

1. Consult on CSR program design and implementation.

2. Serve as an advisor on CSR governance and risk management.

3. Review third parties for contractual compliance with CSR terms.

4. Identify and mitigate risks to help meet the CSR program objectives.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

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Questions 64

Which of the following is useful for forecasting the required level of inventory?

1. Statistical modeling.

2. Information about seasonal variations in demand.

3. Knowledge of the behavior of different business cycles.

4. Pricing models linked to seasonal demand.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2, and 3 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

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Questions 65

The economic order quantity for inventory is higher for an organization that has:

Options:

A.

Lower annual unit sales.

B.

Higher fixed inventory ordering costs.

C.

Higher annual carrying costs as a percentage of inventory value.

D.

A higher purchase price per unit of inventory.

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Questions 66

According to the waterfall cycle approach to systems development, which of the following sequence of events is correct?

Options:

A.

Program design, system requirements, software design, analysis, coding, testing, operations.

B.

System requirements, software design, analysis, program design, testing, coding, operations.

C.

System requirements, software design, analysis, program design, coding, testing, operations.

D.

System requirements, analysis, coding, software design, program design, testing, operations.

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Questions 67

In creating a risk-based plan, which of the following best describes a top-down approach to understanding business processes?

Options:

A.

Identifying the processes at the activity level.

B.

Analyzing the organization's strategic plan where the business processes are defined.

C.

Analyzing the organization's objectives and identifying the processes needed to achieve the objectives.

D.

Identifying the risks affecting the organization, the objectives, and then the processes concerned.

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Questions 68

A large hospital has an existing contract with a vendor in another country to provide software support and maintenance of the hospital's patient records information system. From the hospital management's perspective, which of the following controls would be most effective to address privacy risks related to this outsourcing arrangement^

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic reviews of the privacy policy to ensure that the existing policy meets current legislation requirements in both regions.

B.

Include a "right to audit" clause in the contract and impose detailed security obligations on the outsourced vendor

C.

Implement mandatory privacy training for management to help with identifying privacy risks when outsourcing services

D.

Develop an incident monitoring and response plan to track breaches from internal and external sources

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Questions 69

Which of the following factors would reduce dissatisfaction for a management trainee but would not particularly motivate the trainee?

Options:

A.

A sense of achievement.

B.

Promotion.

C.

Recognition.

D.

An incremental increase in salary.

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Questions 70

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a primary component of a network security strategy?

Options:

A.

Application input controls

B.

Firewall controls.

C.

Transmission encryption controls

D.

Change management controls

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Questions 71

The first stage in the development of a crisis management program is to:

Options:

A.

Formulate contingency plans.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Create a crisis management team.

D.

Practice the response to a crisis.

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Questions 72

Under a value-added taxing system:

Options:

A.

Businesses must pay a tax only if they make a profit.

B.

The consumer ultimately bears the cost of the tax through higher prices.

C.

Consumer savings are discouraged.

D.

The amount of value added is the difference between an organization's sales and its cost of goods sold.

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Questions 73

Which of the following is an element of effective negotiating?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that the other party has a personal stake in the agreement.

B.

Focusing on interests rather than on obtaining a winning position.

C.

Considering a few select choices during the settlement phase.

D.

Basing the agreement on negotiating power and positioning leverage.

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Questions 74

Which audit approach should be employed to test the accuracy of information housed in a database on an un-networked computer?

Options:

A.

Submit batches of test transactions through the current system and verify with expected results.

B.

Use a test program to simulate the normal data entering process.

C.

Select a sample of records from the database and ensure it matches supporting documentation.

D.

Evaluate compliance with the organization's change management process.

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Questions 75

According to IIA guidance on IT auditing, which of the following would not be an area examined by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Access system security.

B.

Policy development.

C.

Change management.

D.

Operations processes.

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Questions 76

Which of the following examples demonstrates that the internal audit activity uses descriptive analytics in its engagements?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor analyzed electricity production and sales interim reports and compiled a risk assessment.

B.

An internal auditor extracted sales data to a spreadsheet and applied judgmental analysis for sampling.

C.

An internal auditor classified solar panel sales by region and discovered unsuccessful sales representatives.

D.

An internal auditor broke down a complex process into smaller pieces to make it more understandable.

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Questions 77

As it relates to the data analytics process, which of the following best describes the purpose of an internal auditor who cleaned and normalized data?

Options:

A.

The auditor eliminated duplicate information.

B.

The auditor organized data to minimize useless information.

C.

The auditor made data usable for a specific purpose by ensuring that anomalies were identified and corrected.

D.

The auditor ensured data fields were consistent and that data could be used for a specific purpose.

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Questions 78

Which of the following is true regarding an organization's relationship with external stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Specific guidance must be followed when interacting with nongovernmental organizations.

B.

Disclosure laws tend to be consistent from one jurisdiction to another.

C.

There are several internationally recognized standards for dealing with financial donors.

D.

Legal representation should be consulted before releasing internal audit information to other assurance providers.

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Questions 79

Capacity overbuilding is most likely to occur when management is focused on which of the following?

Options:

A.

Marketing.

B.

Finance.

C.

Production.

D.

Diversification.

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Questions 80

If legal or regulatory standards prohibit conformance with certain parts of The IIA's Standards, the auditor should do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Conform with all other parts of The IIA's Standards and provide appropriate disclosures.

B.

Conform with all other parts of The IIA's Standards; there is no need to provide appropriate disclosures.

C.

Continue the engagement without conforming with the other parts of The IIA's Standards.

D.

Withdraw from the engagement.

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Questions 81

In terms of international business strategy, which of the following is true regarding a multi-domestic strategy?

Options:

A.

It uses the same products in all countries.

B.

It centralizes control with little decision-making authority given to the local level.

C.

It is an effective strategy when large differences exist between countries.

D.

It provides cost advantages, improves coordinated activities, and speeds product development.

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Questions 82

During an audit of the organization's annual financial statements, the internal auditor notes that the current cost of goods sold percentage is substantially higher than in prior years. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this increase?

Options:

A.

Cost of raw material inventory items is decreasing.

B.

Process to manufacture goods is more efficient.

C.

Labor productivity to produce goods is increasing.

D.

Write-off of inventory is increasing.

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Questions 83

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be a primary reason for an internal auditor to test the organization's IT contingency plan?

Options:

A.

To ensure that adequate controls exist to prevent any significant business interruptions.

B.

To identify and address potential security weaknesses within the system.

C.

To ensure that tests contribute to improvement of the program.

D.

To ensure that deficiencies identified by the audit are promptly addressed.

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Questions 84

One change control function that is required in client/server environments, but is not required in mainframe environments, is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

Program versions are synchronized across the network.

B.

Emergency move procedures are documented and followed.

C.

Appropriate users are involved in program change testing.

D.

Movement from the test library to the production library is controlled.

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Questions 85

According to IIA guidance, which of the following corporate social responsibility (CSR) activities is appropriate for the internal audit activity to perform?

Options:

A.

Determine the optimal amount of resources for the organization to invest in CSR.

B.

Align CSR program objectives with the organization's strategic plan.

C.

Integrate CSR activities into the organization's decision-making process.

D.

Determine whether the organization has an appropriate policy governing its CSR activities.

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Questions 86

Which of the following statements is true with regard to information protection?

Options:

A.

All personal information, by definition is considered to be sensitive, requiring specialized controls.

B.

Information is not considered personal if it can only be linked to or used to identify an individual indirectly.

C.

Individuals who provide personal information to organizations share in the risk of inappropriate disclosure.

D.

Good protection controls remove any restrictions on the quantity of personal information that can be collected

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Questions 87

Which of the following is the primary benefit of including end users in the system development process?

Options:

A.

Improved integrity of programs and processing.

B.

Enhanced ongoing maintenance of the system.

C.

Greater accuracy of the testing phase.

D.

Reduced need for unexpected software changes.

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Questions 88

Which of the following phases of a business cycle are marked by an underuse of resources?

1. The trough.

2. The peak.

3. The recovery.

4. The recession.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

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Questions 89

An organization with global headquarters in the United States has subsidiaries in eight other nations. If the organization operates with an ethnocentric attitude, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Standards used for evaluation and control are determined at local subsidiaries, not set by headquarters.

B.

Orders, commands and advice are sent to the subsidiaries from headquarters.

C.

People of local nationality are developed for the best positions within their own country

D.

There is a significant amount of collaboration between headquarters and subsidiaries.

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Questions 90

Which of the following statements are true regarding the use of heat maps as risk assessment tools?

1. They focus primarily on known risks, limiting the ability to identify new risks.

2. They rely heavily on objective assessments and related risk tolerances.

3. They are too complex to provide an easily understandable view of key risks.

4. They are helpful but limited in value in a rapidly changing environment.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

3 and 4 only

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Exam Code: IIA-ACCA
Exam Name: ACCA CIA Challenge Exam
Last Update: May 1, 2024
Questions: 604
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