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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms?

Options:

A.

Oral corticosteroids

B.

Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers

C.

Salmeterol

D.

Sodium cromoglycate

E.

Anticholinergic agents

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Questions 5

The major pathway for the biotransformation of the following compound is by hydrolysis. Identify the site which would be most susceptible to hydrolysis.

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

E.

E

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Questions 6

The method of ionization of mass spectrometry which results in well-established diagnostic fragmentation patterns that are useful in the identification of compounds of unknown structure is called:

Options:

A.

atmospheric pressure chemical ionization (APCI)

B.

chemical ionization (CI)

C.

electron impact (EI) ionization

D.

electrospray ionization (ESI)

E.

fast atom bombardment (FAB. ionization

F.

Pharmacy Practice

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Questions 7

Mechanisms of drug interactions with acetylsalicylic acid (ASA. include:

Options:

A.

induction of microsomal enzymes

B.

inhibition of microsomal enzymes

C.

inhibition of liposomal enzymes

D.

displacement of other drugs bound to serum albumin

E.

enhanced platelet aggregation

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Questions 8

An oral chelating agent used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is:

Options:

A.

Allopurinol

B.

Sulphinpyrazone

C.

Indomethacin

D.

Penicillamine

E.

Methotrexate

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Questions 9

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 10

Side effects that may be expected to occur from the administration of oral contraceptives include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

fluid retention

B.

headache

C.

hypertension

D.

constipation

E.

depression

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Questions 11

Intra-articular means:

Options:

A.

In the joint space

B.

In the tissues space

C.

In the spinal fluid

D.

In the spinal column

E.

In the dermis

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Questions 12

Which of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe intermittent asthma?

Options:

A.

High doses of inhaled corticosteroid

B.

Long acting β2-agonists

C.

Short acting β2-agonists

D.

Oral corticosteroids

E.

Combination of all the above medication

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Questions 13

Goals of gout treatment may include:

I- Reduce inflammation during acute attacks

II- Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid

III- Reduce the conversion of purine to uric acid

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 14

When evaluating patients with angina for possible development of nitrate tolerance, true statements include:

I tolerance is rarely associated with isosorbide dinitrate.

II tolerance does not occur in patients who are concurrently on

metoprolol.

III tolerance is dependent upon the administration schedule of nitrate medication.

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 15

Sulfinpyrazone is used as a(n):

Options:

A.

analgesic agent

B.

antipyretic agent

C.

anti-inflammatory agent

D.

agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption of uric acid

E.

uricosuric agent

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Questions 16

Drug of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may include:

Options:

A.

Salbutamol

B.

Ipratropium

C.

Salmereol

D.

Sodium cromoglycate

E.

Fluticasone

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Questions 17

Side effect of clindamycin is:

Options:

A.

Colitis (by Chlostridium difficili)

B.

Malabsorption

C.

Constipation

D.

Hypoglycemia

E.

Hepatotoxicity

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Questions 18

Mechanism of action of amiloride is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase

B.

Modulation of CD3 receptor from the cell surface

C.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

D.

Aldosterone antagonist

E.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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Questions 19

Mechanism of action of ampicillin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits cholesterol synthesis

B.

Inhibits transpeptidase

C.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

D.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

E.

Inhibits renal epithelial Na channels

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Questions 20

Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

Options:

A.

Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water

B.

Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations

C.

Both carry out oxidative deaminations

D.

Both carry out N-dealkylations

E.

All of the above

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Questions 21

A drug ending in the suffix (navir) is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

Antidepressant

B.

Protease inhibitor

C.

Beta antagonist

D.

H2 antagonist

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Questions 22

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Cinchonism?

Options:

A.

Valproic acid

B.

Quinidine

C.

Isoniazid

D.

Ethosuximide

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Questions 23

Which of the following drugs is associated with the reaction of Tendon dyfunction?

Options:

A.

Digitalis

B.

Niacin

C.

Tetracycline

D.

Fluoroquinolones

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Questions 24

Which of the following statements refers to phenelzine?

Options:

A.

Mechanism of action probably involves NO.

B.

Rapid IV infusion predisposes to neuromuscular paralysis.

C.

May work when other antidepressants fail.

D.

Long half-life.

E.

MOA is inhibited irreversibly. Response occurs when >80% platelet MOA is inhibited.

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Questions 25

Mechanism of resistance of sufentanil is:

Options:

A.

Penicillin binding proteins (PBPs)

B.

Decreased drug uptake by bacteria

C.

Transport protein mutations

D.

Tolerance

E.

Mutation of viral DNA polymerase

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Questions 26

For highly polar drugs (e.g. mannitol) what primarily determines elimination rate?

Options:

A.

Excretion rate

B.

Metabolism rate

C.

Absorption rate

D.

Distribution rate

E.

All of the above

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Questions 27

Which of the following is not related to a drug toxicity of Atenolol?

Options:

A.

CHF

B.

Tachycardia

C.

AV block

D.

Sedative appearance

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Questions 28

Indication of aspirin is:

Options:

A.

Insomnia

B.

Cyanide poisoning

C.

Cardiac arrest

D.

Inflammation

E.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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Questions 29

Class of nitrogen mustard is:

Options:

A.

Aquaretics

B.

Alkylating agents

C.

Lipid lowering drugs

D.

Drugs affecting calcium homeostasis

E.

Antivirals

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Questions 30

Indication of doxycycline is:

Options:

A.

Bacteroides (other than Bacteroides fragilis)

B.

Asthma

C.

Meniere's disease

D.

Water intoxication

E.

Broad spectrum antibacterial agent

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Questions 31

Indication of Norvir is:

Options:

A.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

B.

Cytomegalovirus retinitis

C.

Diarrhea

D.

Influenza A

E.

HIV

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Questions 32

A drug ending in the suffix (pril) is considered a ______.

Options:

A.

H2 agonist

B.

ACE inhibitor

C.

Antifungal

D.

Beta agonist

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Questions 33

Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

Options:

A.

Maltase

B.

Sucrose

C.

Glucose

D.

Cellulose

E.

Frutose

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Questions 34

An enzyme is:

Options:

A.

an oligopeptide

B.

a nucleic acid

C.

unable to hydrolyse polysaccharides

D.

a catalyst

E.

changed chemically in a reaction

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Questions 35

Folic acid has tetrahydrofolate coenzyme activity which is based on the:

Options:

A.

pyrimidine ring

B.

purine ring

C.

pyrazine ring

D.

pteridine ring

E.

pyridine ring

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Questions 36

The most abundant metal ion in human body

Options:

A.

Iron

B.

Magnesium

C.

Aluminum

D.

Phosphorous

E.

Potassium

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Questions 37

False statement regarding vitamin D3 metabolism include:

Options:

A.

Vitamin C facilitates absorption of vitamin D3 in the liver

B.

Hydroxylation of D3 is in kidney

C.

Hydroxylation of is D3 in the liver

D.

Parathyroid hormone activate metabolism of vitamin D3 in the kidney

E.

Skin activates synthesis of vitamin D3 by sunlight

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Questions 38

Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide:

Options:

A.

Glucose + frutose

B.

Glucose + glucose

C.

Glucose + galactose

D.

Frutose + frutose

E.

Galactose + galactose

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Questions 39

All of the following statements concerning the lyophilization of a parenteral product are correct, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

There is minimal loss of activity in heat labile materials.

B.

The liquid must be frozen to below the eutectic temperature.

C.

The solute usually forms an amorphous glass.

D.

The eutectic temperature is the freezing point of the drug solution.

E.

Water is removed from the frozen mixture by sublimation.

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Questions 40

The anatomical divisions of the small intestine include the:

I jejunum

II ileum

III duodenum

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood?

Options:

A.

Sorbitol

B.

Mannitol

C.

Frutase

D.

Glucase

E.

Lactase

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Questions 42

In which of the following organs or tissues is the action of acetylcholine NOT described as "nicotinic"?

I Motor endplates of skeletal muscle

II Celiac ganglia

III Circular muscles of the iris

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 43

In an enzymatic reaction, addition of competitive inhibitor leads to:

Options:

A.

Increase the rate of reaction

B.

Decrease the rate of reaction

C.

Same rate of reaction

D.

Decrease rate and increase substrate concentration

E.

Decrease both rate and substrate concentration

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Questions 44

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Questions 45

Tetrodotoxin is a selective inhibitor of the:

Options:

A.

calcium ion channel

B.

sodium ion channel

C.

potassium ion channel

D.

chloride ion channel

E.

nicotinic ion channel

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Questions 46

Which of the following is the end product of proteins?

Options:

A.

Amino acids

B.

Urea

C.

Uric acid

D.

Purine

E.

Phosphorous

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Questions 47

In the typical cell, mitochondria may contain:

I- Enzymes of Kreb’s cycle

II- Enzymes of respiratory pathway as well cytochrome oxidase

III- Enzymes of fatty acid cycle

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 48

Which of the following is considered as essential vitamin for breast-feed babies?

Options:

A.

Vitamin A

B.

Vitamin B

C.

Vitamin C

D.

Vitamin D

E.

Vitamin E

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Questions 49

Mechanism of action of carbenicillin is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits transpeptidase

B.

Blocks Na channels

C.

Activates heparin cofactor II which inhibits thrombin (at high concentrations)

D.

Blocks sustained repetitive neuronal firing

E.

GM-CSF

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Questions 50

Resistance is the major problem with penicillins due to ability of bacteria to breakdown the lactam ring of penicillin and inactivates the drug. To overcome these problem penicillins can be administrated together with β-lactamase inhibitors.

Examples of β-lactamase inhibitors is/are:

I- Clavulanic acid

II- Sulbactam

III- Tazobactam

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 51

Mechanism of action of cocaine is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

B.

Muscarinic agonist

C.

beta-2 agonist

D.

beta-1 antagonist

E.

Blocks catecholamine uptake by axonal terminal

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Questions 52

Interactions with other drugs of Demerol is:

Options:

A.

Rifampin: stimulates metabolism

B.

Iron: decreases absorption

C.

Amiodarone: inhibits activation

D.

Phenytoin: stimulates metabolism

E.

Desipramine: enhances analgesia

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Questions 53

Mechanism of inhibit protein synthesis is characteristic of all the following antibiotics, EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Aminoglycosides

B.

Tetracycline

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Chloramphenicol

E.

Clindamycin

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Questions 54

Fluoroquinolone are anti-infective agents analogs of:

Options:

A.

PABA

B.

Folic acid

C.

Vitamin K

D.

Cyanide

E.

Nalidixic acid

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Questions 55

Class of urokinase is:

Options:

A.

Sedatives

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Antimycobacterial

D.

Antidepressants

E.

Thrombolytics

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Questions 56

Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?

Options:

A.

Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular.

B.

Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.

C.

Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent

D.

Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain

E.

Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.

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Questions 57

Which of the following statements refers to foscavir?

Options:

A.

Pyrophosphate analog

B.

Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization

C.

Not shown to reduce sudden death or prolong survival.

D.

Inhibition of DNA gyrase results in: 1. Inhibition of bacterial replication 2. Inhibition of DNA repair 3. Inhibition of expression of certain operons

E.

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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Questions 58

Class of bethanecol is:

Options:

A.

NSAID

B.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

C.

Antiarrhythmic agents

D.

Inotropic agents

E.

Beta blockers

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Questions 59

Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

Options:

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Questions 60

Mechanism of action of ganciclovir is:

Options:

A.

Inhibits viral uncoating

B.

Inhibits viral DNA polymerase

C.

Inhibits Na-Cl transporter

D.

Inhibits RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

Blocks K channels

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Questions 61

Which of the following best classify metronidazole?

Options:

A.

Antiprotozoa

B.

Antibiotic

C.

Antifungal

D.

Antiviral

E.

Antimicrobial

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Questions 62

Which of the following statements refers to atenolol?

Options:

A.

No intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.

B.

Can prevent recurrent infarction and sudden death in patients recovering from myocardial infarction.

C.

Is more likely to cause edema than verapamil

D.

Avoid Ca supplements made from dolomite or from bone meal as these may contain lead or other toxic metals.

E.

Should not be used as a sole agent in sustained forms of hyperthyroidism.

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Questions 63

Side effect of triamcinolone is:

Options:

A.

Asthma

B.

Nausea

C.

Cataracts

D.

Anxiety

E.

Hyperglycemia

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Exam Code: FPGEE
Exam Name: Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination
Last Update: May 5, 2024
Questions: 426
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