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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Questions 5

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

Options:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Questions 6

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

Options:

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Questions 7

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 8

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 10

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Questions 11

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Questions 12

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

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Questions 13

Resource calendars are included in the:

Options:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

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Questions 14

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Questions 15

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 16

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Questions 17

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Questions 18

What is project management?

Options:

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Questions 19

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 20

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 21

An input of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Questions 22

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 23

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

Options:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Questions 24

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Questions 25

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 26

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Questions 27

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 28

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 29

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 30

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Questions 31

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Questions 32

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 33

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 34

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Questions 35

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Questions 36

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 37

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Questions 38

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 39

Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

Options:

A.

prevention over inspection.

B.

statistical sampling.

C.

management responsibility,

D.

continuous improvement.

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Questions 40

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 41

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Questions 42

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Questions 43

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Questions 44

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 45

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Questions 46

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

Options:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

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Questions 47

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 48

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Questions 49

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 50

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Questions 51

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Questions 52

The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

Options:

A.

Planning.

B.

Executing,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Closing.

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Questions 53

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 54

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Questions 55

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

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Questions 56

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Questions 57

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 58

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 59

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 60

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 61

The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 62

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Questions 63

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Questions 64

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 65

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 66

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

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Questions 67

Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 68

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 69

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 70

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 71

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 72

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 73

Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 74

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 75

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 76

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Questions 77

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

Options:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

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Questions 78

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 79

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

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Questions 80

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 81

Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Parametric

C.

Analogous

D.

Three-point

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Questions 82

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 83

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Questions 84

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 85

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Questions 86

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 87

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 88

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

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Questions 89

An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational communications,

D.

Organizational cultures and styles.

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Questions 90

Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Ground rules

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Team-building activities

D.

Interpersonal skills

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Questions 91

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 92

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Questions 93

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

Options:

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

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Questions 94

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

Options:

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

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Questions 95

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 96

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

Options:

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

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Questions 97

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Questions 98

What are the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements

B.

Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

C.

Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements

D.

Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements

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Questions 99

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Questions 100

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 101

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 102

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

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Questions 103

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Questions 104

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Questions 105

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Questions 106

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Questions 107

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 108

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Questions 109

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Questions 110

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 111

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

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Questions 112

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Questions 113

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 114

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 115

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Questions 116

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 117

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 118

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Questions 119

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 120

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

Options:

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 121

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Questions 122

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 123

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

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Questions 124

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 125

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Questions 126

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

Options:

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

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Questions 127

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Questions 128

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Questions 129

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

Options:

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Questions 130

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Questions 131

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

Options:

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Questions 132

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 133

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

Options:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Questions 134

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 135

Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?

Options:

A.

Cost-reimbursable contracts

B.

Time and Material contracts (T&M)

C.

Fixed-price contracts

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)

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Questions 136

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

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Questions 137

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Questions 138

What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?

Options:

A.

Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome

B.

Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome

C.

Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities

D.

Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time

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Questions 139

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

Options:

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

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Questions 140

What is the project manager's responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

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Questions 141

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

Options:

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Questions 142

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

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Questions 143

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

Options:

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

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Questions 144

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

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Questions 145

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 146

Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

Options:

A.

Project Schedule Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Resource Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 147

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

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Questions 148

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

Options:

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Questions 149

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Options:

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Questions 150

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives.

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Questions 151

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

Options:

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

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Questions 152

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Questions 153

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 154

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

Options:

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

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Questions 155

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

Options:

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

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Questions 156

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

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Questions 157

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

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Questions 158

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

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Questions 159

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

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Questions 160

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

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Questions 161

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

Options:

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

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Questions 162

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 163

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

Options:

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

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Questions 164

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

Options:

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

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Questions 165

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Questions 166

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

Options:

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

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Questions 167

What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?

Options:

A.

Critical chain method

B.

Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Project network diagram

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Questions 168

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

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Questions 169

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 170

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

Options:

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

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Questions 171

Match the project manager's sphere of influence with the associated primary role.

Options:

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Questions 172

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

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Questions 173

What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?

Options:

A.

Project complexity

B.

Procurement criteria

C.

Communication technology

D.

Knowledge management

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Questions 174

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 175

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

Options:

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

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Questions 176

Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.

Options:

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Questions 177

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

Options:

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project's scope

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Questions 178

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Questions 179

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

Options:

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

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Questions 180

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

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Questions 181

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

Options:

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog

B.

On-demand scheduling

C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog

D.

Defining Iterative activities

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Questions 182

What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?

Options:

A.

Geographic distribution of facilities and resources

B.

Physical resource management policies and procedures

C.

Estimated lead times based on lessons learned

D.

Templates for the resource management plan

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Questions 183

A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?

Options:

A.

Initiating Process Group

B.

Planning Process Group

C.

Executing Process Group

D.

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

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Questions 184

A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Verified deliverables

C.

Lessons learned

D.

Work performance data

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Questions 185

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

Options:

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Questions 186

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

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Questions 187

A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each requirement with its corresponding type of change request.

Options:

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Questions 188

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 189

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

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Questions 190

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 191

What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.

B.

Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.

C.

Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.

D.

Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process.

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Questions 192

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

Options:

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

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Questions 193

A project team is discussing an upcoming planned product launch of a highly visible technologically advanced artificial intelligence tool. The team is debating the aspect of iterative and hybrid approaches. Which aspect of tailoring would this best represent?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approaches

B.

Resource availability

C.

Project dimensions

D.

Technology support

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Questions 194

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 195

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

Options:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Questions 196

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 197

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 198

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Questions 199

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Options:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

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Questions 200

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 201

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 202

Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 203

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Questions 204

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

Options:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Questions 205

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 206

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 207

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

Options:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

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Questions 208

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

Options:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

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Questions 209

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 210

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Questions 211

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Formal

B.

Informal r

C.

Horizontal

D.

Unofficial

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Questions 212

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Questions 213

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

Options:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

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Questions 214

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

Options:

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

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Questions 215

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Questions 216

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

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Questions 217

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 218

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

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Questions 219

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Questions 220

Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Critical chain method

C.

Resource leveling

D.

Schedule network analysis

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Questions 221

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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Questions 222

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

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Questions 223

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 224

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 225

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 226

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Questions 227

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Questions 228

High-level project risks are included in which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Questions 229

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

Options:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Questions 230

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

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Questions 231

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

Options:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Questions 232

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

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Questions 233

Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?

Options:

A.

100

B.

120

C.

1,000

D.

1,200

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Questions 234

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Questions 235

Which element does a project charter contain?

Options:

A.

Management reserves

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Stakeholder list

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 236

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

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Questions 237

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 238

The chart below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

RACI chart

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 239

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

Options:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

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Questions 240

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

Options:

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 241

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Questions 242

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Questions 243

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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Questions 244

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 245

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 246

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

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Questions 247

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 248

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Questions 249

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 250

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Budget estimates

B.

Risk matrix

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Procurement documents

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Questions 251

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 252

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

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Questions 253

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 254

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

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Questions 255

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 256

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Questions 257

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

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Questions 258

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

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Questions 259

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Questions 260

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 261

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

Options:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

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Questions 262

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Questions 263

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

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Questions 264

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

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Questions 265

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

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Questions 266

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

Options:

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 267

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Questions 268

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Questions 269

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

Options:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Questions 270

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Questions 271

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 272

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Questions 273

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Questions 274

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Questions 275

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Questions 276

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 277

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

Options:

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Questions 278

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 279

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 280

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

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Questions 281

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 282

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 283

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 284

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

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Questions 285

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

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Questions 286

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 287

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Questions 288

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Questions 289

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 290

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 291

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

Options:

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 292

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

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Questions 293

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Questions 294

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Questions 295

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Questions 296

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 297

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 298

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 299

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Questions 300

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 301

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 302

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart

B.

Glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 303

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 304

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 305

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 306

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

Options:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Questions 307

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

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Questions 308

What is the total float of the critical path?

Options:

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

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Questions 309

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Questions 310

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up

B.

Three-point

C.

Parametric

D.

Analogous

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Questions 311

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 312

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

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Questions 313

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 314

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Questions 315

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 316

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Questions 317

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 318

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Questions 319

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 320

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 321

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

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Questions 322

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 323

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Questions 324

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 325

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

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Questions 326

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Questions 327

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

Options:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Questions 328

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Questions 329

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Questions 330

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

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Questions 331

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Questions 332

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 333

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Questions 334

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Questions 335

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 336

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Questions 337

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 338

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 339

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 340

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Questions 341

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 342

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Questions 343

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

Options:

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Questions 344

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

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Questions 345

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage. What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

Options:

A.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

B.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

C.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

D.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

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Questions 346

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 347

Which method should be used to elicit a cross-functional requirement?

Options:

A.

Prototyping

B.

Interviews

C.

Focus groups

D.

Facilitated workshops

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Questions 348

A project team is meeting to seek solutions on a new problem that occurred recently. The meeting is comprised of two parts: the first is a generation of ideas and the second is an analysis. Which technique is the team using?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Focus group

D.

Interview

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Questions 349

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

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Questions 350

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

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Questions 351

A project manager proactively meets with other project managers who manage other projects in the same program. To minimize the impact that other projects within the program may have on their project of what should the project manager be aware?

Options:

A.

Demands on the same resources

B.

Requirements that impact the scope

C.

Uncertainty of emerging issues

D.

Project charter

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Questions 352

Which of these is true project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects

B.

Project Integration Management and Expert Judgement are mutually exclusive

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero

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Questions 353

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Questions 354

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

B.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

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Questions 355

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

Options:

A.

Financing, bottom-up estimating, and expert judgment

B.

Cost aggregation, analogous estimating, and financing

C.

Expert judgment, financing, and cost aggregation

D.

Expert judgment, analogous estimating, and bottom-up estimating

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Questions 356

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

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Questions 357

The project manager and the project team are in the process of documenting procurement decisions. Which of the following will be the procurement strategy?

Options:

A.

Payment types, delivery methods, and procurement phases

B.

Procurement metrics, make-or-buy decisions, and procurement statement of work

C.

Vendor selection criteria, stakeholder roles and responsibilitys, and prequalified sellers

D.

Timetable procurement activities, product cost, and knowledge transfer schedule

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Questions 358

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

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Questions 359

Based on a previous project that has been completed, a project manager decides the best way to estimate costs is through historical data. What kind of estimating is this?

Options:

A.

Parametric

B.

Bottom-up

C.

Three-point

D.

Analogous

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Questions 360

Which is a major component of an agreement?

Options:

A.

Change request handling

B.

Risk register templates

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 361

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor's responsibility?

Options:

A.

Tracking the business value

B.

Auditing the business value

C.

Advocating the business value

D.

Monitoring the business value

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Questions 362

What is the purpose of an adaptive standup meeting?

Options:

A.

To review what work has been completed, remove impediments, and calculate velocity

B.

To ask the team what work has been completed, calculate velocity, and determine what work will be completed

C.

To ask the team what work has been completed, ask what work will be completed, and report impediments

D.

To update the burndown chart, calculate velocity, and report impediments

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Questions 363

A Project manager is failing to secure critical equipment on time, and this resulting in delays in the manufacturing of the final product. Which knowledge area is the project manager handling?

Options:

A.

Project Resource Management

B.

Project Quality Management

C.

Project Schedule Management

D.

Project integration Management

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Questions 364

Match the method for categorizing stakeholders with its corresponding description

Options:

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Questions 365

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 366

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Questions 367

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

Options:

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

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Questions 368

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

Options:

A.

Definition of done (DoD)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Velocity chart

D.

Definition of ready (DoR)

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Questions 369

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 370

What does leadership involve?

Options:

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

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Questions 371

A software development team is pulling work from its backlog to be performed immediately as they become available. What emerging practice for project scheduling is the team using?

Options:

A.

Iterative

B.

On-demand

C.

Interactive

D.

Quality

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Questions 372

Which of the following is a goal of the project charter?

Options:

A.

Detail requirements for the project tasks.

B.

Empower the project manager to manage the project.

C.

List all tasks the team should perform in the project.

D.

Develop a business case to support the project.

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Questions 373

Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/Avoid

B.

Smooth/Accommodate

C.

Compromise/Reconcile

D.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

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Questions 374

What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables'?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 375

What risk response strategy involves removing high- risk scope elements from a project?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Avoid

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Questions 376

Which behavior is a management trait?

Options:

A.

Asking what and why

B.

Challenging the status quo

C.

Innovating

D.

Relying on control

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Questions 377

What is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management'?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approach

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Validation and control

D.

Project complexity

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Questions 378

Company A’s accountant sends notification about a change in the company’s tax classification.

What would a project have to be initiated?

Options:

A.

To change business and technological strategies

B.

To improve processes and services

C.

To meet regulatory and legal requirements

D.

To satisfy stakeholder requests

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Questions 379

Which of these is a hybrid contract?

Options:

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)

D.

Time and material (T&M)

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Questions 380

A project manager is preparing a monthly status report for the project, which includes project performance compared to the baseline schedule. How can the project manager calculate the schedule variance (SV) for tasks on the critical path?

Options:

A.

Earned Schedule + Actual Time

B.

Actual Time - Earned Schedule

C.

Planned Value - Earned Value

D.

Earned Value - Planned Value

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Questions 381

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

C.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

D.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

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Questions 382

The project sponsor wants to know when an in-flight adaptive project will be done. Which of the following metrics will help the team to predict how much longer the project will take?

Options:

A.

Risk burnup and control chart

B.

Customer satisfaction index and workload

C.

Average burndown and velocity

D.

Average velocity and cycle time

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Questions 383

What tools or techniques are necessary to create the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Meetings and data analysis

B.

Expert judgment and data gathering

C.

Interpersonal skills and change control

D.

Data analysis and expert judgment

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Questions 384

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

B.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

C.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

D.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

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Questions 385

The project manager released a report. A few stakeholders express the view that the report should not have been directed to them.

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Questions 386

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

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Questions 387

A project manager has a project schedule baseline. How can the critical path be determined from the finalized schedule?

Options:

A.

Identify the crashed project schedule to find the shortest duration to complete the project.

B.

Identify the longest activity path in the schedule with the shortest possible duration.

C.

Identify the tasks with float duration, which do not impact the duration of the project.

D.

Identify the path through the schedule with leveled resources and the shortest duration.

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Questions 388

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

Options:

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment ol Iheir power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

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Questions 389

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Shop floor observation

B.

Scheduled interviews

C.

Facilitated workshops

D.

Brainstorming sessions

E.

Current state analysis

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Questions 390

Which of the following can a project manager conduct if they have a stakeholder who is unresponsive and/or unsupportive?

Options:

A.

Interactive communications

B.

Pull communications

C.

Push communications

D.

Communication style assessment

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Questions 391

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes'?

Options:

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

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Questions 392

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

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Questions 393

During a project's execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

Options:

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

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Questions 394

What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 395

A business analyst sent multiple meeting requests via instant message to a subject matter expert (SME) working in another country but did not receive a response. What should the business analyst do to reduce the likelihood of this occurring in the future with other stakeholders distributed across multiple locations?

Options:

A.

Check with the IT department to see if there is a technical issue.

B.

Ask each stakeholder for their preferred communication method.

C.

Assume the meeting request is accepted unless declined.

D.

Confirm the time zone and work days in each location.

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Questions 396

A project manager is reviewing some techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to determine if the solution provides the functionality for typical usage by a stakeholder with in-depth business knowledge.

Which evaluation technique is most effective for this situation?

Options:

A.

Day-in-the-life testing

B.

Exploratory testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Integration testing

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Questions 397

A team is feeling pressured to begin development work due to tight project deadlines. There are stakeholders with similar functions located in multiple countries. To accelerate the process, the business analyst has limited the requirements elicitation sessions to times that work for stakeholders in one time zone. To reduce the risk with this approach, which step should the business analyst take?

Options:

A.

Request the project sponsor to approve this requirements elicitation approach for this project.

B.

Add the risk to the risk register so other stakeholders are aware of the approach.

C.

Ask the stakeholders in the elicitation sessions to speak on behalf of stakeholders in other time zones.

D.

Distribute the documented requirements to relevant stakeholders in all time zones for review and comment.

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Questions 398

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

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Questions 399

A key project team member complains about being left out of the communication loop. In order to ensure that each key member is involved, who should review the business analysis communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Business analyst, project manager, and sponsor

B.

Business analyst, project manager, and stakeholders

C.

Business analyst and project manager

D.

Only the business analyst

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Jul 1, 2025
Questions: 1250
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