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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Questions 5

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

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Questions 6

In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?

Options:

A.

Matrix-weak

B.

Matrix-balanced

C.

Matrix-strong

D.

Organic or simple

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Questions 7

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Questions 8

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

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Questions 9

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.

Government standards

B.

Organizational culture

C.

Employee capabilities

D.

Organizational knowledge bases

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Questions 11

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

Options:

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

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Questions 12

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Questions 13

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

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Questions 14

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

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Questions 15

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

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Questions 16

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

Options:

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

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Questions 17

Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?

Options:

A.

Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)

B.

Firm fixed price (FFP)

C.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF>

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Questions 18

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.

B.

Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.

C.

Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.

D.

Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits.

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Questions 19

Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?

Options:

A.

Ability to explain business aspects of the project, business strategy, goals and objectives, and business value.

B.

Ability to deal with people, to be collaborative, and to apply persuasion and negotiation.

C.

Ability to focus on relationships with people, inspire trust, and implement decisions and actions that support the business strategy.

D.

Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical success factors.

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Questions 20

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

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Questions 21

What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?

Options:

A.

Attribute sampling

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 22

A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?

Options:

A.

The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.

B.

Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.

C.

The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary priority.

D.

Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a secondary priority.

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Questions 23

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

Options:

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

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Questions 24

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

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Questions 25

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

Options:

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

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Questions 26

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

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Questions 27

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

Options:

A.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

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Questions 28

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

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Questions 29

The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?

Options:

A.

Technical project management skills

B.

Time management skills

C.

Strategic and business management skills

D.

Leadership skills

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Questions 30

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

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Questions 31

Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks

B.

Avoid all kind of risks

C.

Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks

D.

Identify positive and negative risks

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Questions 32

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 33

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

Options:

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

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Questions 34

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

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Questions 35

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

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Questions 36

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

Options:

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

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Questions 37

What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?

Options:

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Questions 38

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

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Questions 39

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

Options:

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Questions 40

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 41

Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?

Options:

A.

Training and establishing ground rules

B.

Networking activities and estimating team resources

C.

Conflict management activities and tracking team performance

D.

Recruit new team members and training

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Questions 42

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

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Questions 43

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 44

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 45

A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?

Options:

A.

0.88

B.

1.12

C.

0.58

D.

1.58

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Questions 46

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

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Questions 47

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder's relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

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Questions 48

What is an output of the plan resource management process

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 49

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 50

Howls program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Questions 51

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

Options:

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

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Questions 52

Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints for project execution and monitoring and controlling relates to which process?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Define Activities

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Questions 53

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Questions 54

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Questions 55

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 56

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 57

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

Options:

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Questions 58

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

Options:

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

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Questions 59

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 60

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 61

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

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Questions 62

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Questions 63

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

Options:

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

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Questions 64

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 65

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

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Questions 66

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Questions 67

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

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Questions 68

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 69

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

Options:

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Questions 70

Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 71

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 72

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 73

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Questions 74

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Questions 75

When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

Options:

A.

divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B.

repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.

C.

linked to specific phases or subprojects.

D.

integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

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Questions 76

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

Options:

A.

1

B.

0.4

C.

0.5

D.

0.8

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Questions 77

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Questions 78

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Questions 79

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 80

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 81

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

Options:

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

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Questions 82

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 83

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 84

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 85

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 86

Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?

Options:

A.

Project calendar

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 87

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 88

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Questions 89

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 90

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 91

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

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Questions 92

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Questions 93

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

Options:

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Questions 94

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Questions 95

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 96

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

Options:

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

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Questions 97

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

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Questions 98

A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

Options:

A.

state the guiding principles of the organization.

B.

identify alternatives to generate different approaches.

C.

state what is out of scope.

D.

outline the results of the Delphi technique.

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Questions 99

Change request status updates are an output of which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Integrated Change Control

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Questions 100

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

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Questions 101

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

Options:

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Questions 102

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Questions 103

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Questions 104

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

Options:

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

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Questions 105

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Questions 106

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Questions 107

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

Options:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

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Questions 108

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

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Questions 109

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

Options:

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

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Questions 110

Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements.

B.

Close Procurements.

C.

Administer Procurements,

D.

Plan Procurements.

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Questions 111

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 112

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 113

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

Options:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

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Questions 114

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 115

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

Options:

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

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Questions 116

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Questions 117

Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?

Options:

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Affinity diagram

C.

Tree diagram

D.

Activity network diagram

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Questions 118

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Questions 119

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 120

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 121

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 122

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

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Questions 123

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Questions 124

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

Options:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

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Questions 125

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 126

A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:

Options:

A.

Product analysis.

B.

Variance analysis.

C.

Document analysis,

D.

Decomposition.

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Questions 127

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Questions 128

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Questions 129

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 130

Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Forecasting methods

C.

Earned value management

D.

Analytical techniques

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Questions 131

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Questions 132

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

Options:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

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Questions 133

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Questions 134

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

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Questions 135

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

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Questions 136

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Questions 137

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

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Questions 138

An output of the Validate Scope process is:

Options:

A.

A requirements traceability matrix.

B.

The scope management plan.

C.

Work performance reports.

D.

Change requests.

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Questions 139

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Questions 140

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

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Questions 141

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

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Questions 142

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Questions 143

A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Plan

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 144

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Questions 145

The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 146

An input to Close Project or Phase is:

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables,

B.

Final products or services,

C.

Document updates,

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 147

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

Options:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Questions 148

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

Options:

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 149

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

Options:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Questions 150

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 151

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Questions 152

The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:

Options:

A.

Work performance information.

B.

Inspections and audits.

C.

Payment systems.

D.

Procurement performance reviews.

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Questions 153

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

Options:

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 154

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

Options:

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

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Questions 155

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

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Questions 156

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

Options:

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

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Questions 157

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Questions 158

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 159

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 160

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

Options:

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

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Questions 161

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

Options:

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

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Questions 162

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

Options:

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

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Questions 163

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 164

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 165

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

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Questions 166

A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?

Options:

A.

Traceability matrixB Lessons learned

B.

Change control proceduresD Resource availability

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Questions 167

A business case is being assembled. Which two elements are necessary to complete this process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Business goals and objectives

E.

Risk register

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Questions 168

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

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Questions 169

Which of the following answers includes an input, a technique, and an output of the Plan Stakeholders Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, data gathering, and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Business documents, meetings, and stakeholder register

C.

Organizational process assets, data gathering, and project document updates

D.

Project management plan, data analysis, and change requests

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Questions 170

A project veers off track due to scope creep. The project management team requests an immediate response from the major stakeholders.

What should the project manager do next to avoid project failure?

Options:

A.

Adopt a change management approach and delay the project to decide on the direction.

B.

Develop a focus group to face the issue and decide on the appropriate direction.

C.

Request a meeting with top management to state concerns about their ability to handle the situation.

D.

Delay the project by adopting a fast-fail approach, mitigating the risk of having a bigger impact on the company.

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Questions 171

If the estimate at completion (EAC) is 25, and the budget at completion (BAC) is 17, what is the variance at completion (VAC)?

Options:

A.

-8

B.

425

C.

1.4

D.

8

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Questions 172

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

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Questions 173

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

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Questions 174

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

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Questions 175

What does the creation of a project management plan accomplish?

Options:

A.

Defines the basis of all project work and how it will be performed

B.

Acknowledges the existence of a project and defines its high-level information

C.

Authorizes the project manager to apply organizational resources to project activities

D.

Provides the project manager with organizational standards, policies, processes, and procedures

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Questions 176

Which of the following is provided by the critical path method?

Options:

A.

Schedule float

B.

Earned value (EV)

C.

Total float

D.

Schedule value

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Questions 177

Which subsidiary management plan.... during the project ilfe cycle?

Which Subsidiary management plan would a project manager create to manage Information dissemination during the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

B.

Quality Management Plan

C.

Communications Management Plan

D.

Scope Management Plan

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Questions 178

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

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Questions 179

In addition to the project charter, what other artifact is produced as a result of the Develop Project Charter process'?

Options:

A.

Assumption log

B.

Milestone list

C.

Business case

D.

Risk register

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Questions 180

During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 181

A project is in its final stages when a competitor releases a similar product. This could make the project redundant. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Initiate change control.

B.

Address risk mitigation.

C.

Escalate this to the project sponsor.

D.

Initiate project closure.

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Questions 182

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

Options:

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

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Questions 183

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 184

The project manager is working in the Resource Management process. Which items may the project manager need to include in the team charter?

Options:

A.

Cultural norms, roles and responsibilities, and organizational chart

B.

Assumption logs, resource calendars and training schedule

C.

Communication guidelines, conflict resolution process, and team agreements

D.

Company policies, recognition plan, and roles and responsibilities

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Questions 185

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

Options:

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

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Questions 186

To ensure stakeholder satisfaction; identified stakeholder needs should all be

Options:

A.

Vetted

B.

Ranked from greatest to least

C.

Qualified

D.

Documented in the stakeholder engagement plan

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Questions 187

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Questions 188

Which statement describes the various purposes of project scheduling?

Options:

A.

Define the policies, rules, and techniques to run a schedule; serve as a tool to manage stakeholder expectations; and serve as a base for backlog management

B.

Define how and when deliverables will be completed, serve as communication tool, and serve as a base for performance reporting

C.

Define the life cycle, traditional or agile approach, and tools to control schedule; serve as a reference for scope management; and serve as a base for risk management

D.

Define activities, sequences, duration, and dependencies, serve as a reference for resource allocation, serve as a base for earned value analysis.

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Questions 189

What is a tailoring consideration for Project Scope Management'?

Options:

A.

Life cycle approach

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Validation and control

D.

Project complexity

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Questions 190

When establishing a contingency reserve, including time, money and resources, how is the risk being handled?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

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Questions 191

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality (COQ)

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 192

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

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Questions 193

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Questions 194

An organization that is being interviewed online has recently experienced a severe network outage. Consequently, the organization has stated that it is required to have a working data network.

Which classification should be assigned to data network requirements?

Options:

A.

Customer requirement

B.

Transition requirement

C.

Solution requirement

D.

Business requirement

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Questions 195

Which is a major component of an agreement?

Options:

A.

Change request handling

B.

Risk register templates

C.

Lessons learned register

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 196

A project's business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

Options:

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won't have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

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Questions 197

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

Options:

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

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Questions 198

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

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Questions 199

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

Options:

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

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Questions 200

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Questions 201

Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?

Options:

A.

Political climate

B.

Leadership style

C.

Financial data repository

D.

Organizational structure types

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Questions 202

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure an effective requirements elicitation.

What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

B.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

C.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

D.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

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Questions 203

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

Options:

A.

Human resource planning

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Critical chain method

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 204

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Questions 205

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

Options:

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Questions 206

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

Options:

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Questions 207

An output of Control Schedule is:

Options:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

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Questions 208

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Questions 209

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 210

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

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Questions 211

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

Options:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Questions 212

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 213

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Questions 214

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Probability and impact matrix

C.

Risk data quality assessment

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 215

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 216

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Questions 217

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 218

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

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Questions 219

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

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Questions 220

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

Options:

A.

The customer and functional managers

B.

The risk owners and stakeholders

C.

The sponsors and stakeholders

D.

The project management team

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Questions 221

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 222

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

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Questions 223

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

Options:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

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Questions 224

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Push

B.

Pull

C.

Interactive

D.

Iterative

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Questions 225

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

Options:

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

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Questions 226

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

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Questions 227

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

Options:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Questions 228

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

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Questions 229

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

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Questions 230

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

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Questions 231

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

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Questions 232

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

Options:

A.

Procurement management plan

B.

Evaluation criteria

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Procurement statement of work

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Questions 233

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 234

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 235

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Questions 236

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Questions 237

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Share

D.

Avoid

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Questions 238

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

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Questions 239

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

Options:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

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Questions 240

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Questions 241

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Questions 242

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

Options:

A.

Histogram

B.

Quality audits

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Performance measurement analysis

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Questions 243

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

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Questions 244

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Questions 245

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

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Questions 246

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Questions 247

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 248

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Questions 249

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

Options:

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Questions 250

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

Options:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

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Questions 251

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Questions 252

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

Options:

A.

project charter.

B.

stakeholder register.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements traceability matrix.

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Questions 253

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

Options:

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

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Questions 254

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 255

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram.... the duration of this task?

The project manager is looking at a precedence diagram and needs to report back about the project status The total duration of the task is ten days, and both Activity A and B need be completed. Activity A has a duration of six days, and activity B has a duration of four days Activity B has a finish-to-start relationship with activity A Under current circumstances, activity A will take about seven days to complete.

What is the outcome of the duration of this task'?

Options:

A.

The task will be completed on time.

B.

The task will not be completed on time.

C.

Activity A is not a critical path task

D.

The precedence diagram cannot be used to provide answers for duration calculations

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Questions 256

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 257

How can working in iterations increase the quality of the product being built?

Options:

A.

Teams have to do less planning and focus more on quality.

B.

The project manager has more time to document goals in advance.

C.

Less testing is required since it is done at the end of the project.

D.

Requirements are frequently clarified by users of the product.

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Questions 258

A company has implemented an adaptive project management framework for a new project. When planning for an iteration, how should risks be addressed? Choose two.

Options:

A.

Risks should be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

B.

Risks should be tailored for each iteration.

C.

Risks should be identified, analyzed, and managed during each iteration.

D.

Risks should be documented prior to each iteration.

E.

Risks should be reviewed only once during each iteration.

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Questions 259

The executive committee of a company is reviewing its portfolios. Which of the following would be helpful to evaluate success?

Options:

A.

Charter the strategic objectives.

B.

Control environmental changes.

C.

Monitor changes continuously.

D.

Aggregate benefits realization.

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Questions 260

How is program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Questions 261

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

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Questions 262

As the project takes place and some issues arose, the project manager (Joe) finds out that some team members were not 100% committed to the project, and some of them were underperforming.

What should the project manager have done to avoid this situation?

Options:

A.

Coupled inexperienced team members with individuals having extensive knowledge in the required field

B.

Had open and transparent planning that engages internal and external stakeholders

C.

Held regular meetings more often with team members to check on their progress and obstacles

D.

Diversified more of the project team to capture a broad range of experiences

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Questions 263

On a clinical trial project, the project manager is worried about maintaining control of the project. The project manager decides to use a requirements traceability matrix.

What is the advantage of using this tool?

Options:

A.

Scope creep will be prevented.

B.

Resource allocation will be kept to a minimum.

C.

Project closure will be established.

D.

Project costs will be controlled.

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Questions 264

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

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Questions 265

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

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Questions 266

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

Options:

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

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Questions 267

A production support system is being managed by a team. The team members cannot plan their work in advance, even for a week, because they do not know when new support issues will be submitted. The team cannot start working on new issues until they finish existing issues, no matter how long it takes to finish the existing issues.

Which method should be used in this situation?

Options:

A.

SAFe®, as it does not allow for scaling work across different teams in the organization.

B.

Extreme Programming (XP), as it does not allow for moving on to new items until the existing items are finished.

C.

Kanban, because the team does not start new work until the existing work is finished.

D.

Scrum, as it allows for completing the whole architecture up front without leaving any technical debt for the future.

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Questions 268

A program consists of four agile teams. Each team has a separate daily standup. Later each day, there is another standup meeting attended by one member from each team.

Which Scrum technique is this?

Options:

A.

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe®)

B.

Disciplined Agile® (DA™)

C.

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

D.

Scrum of Scrums

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Questions 269

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.

Expert judgempnt and decision making

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Questions 270

Which of the following is example of communication tools and techniques?

Options:

A.

Conflict management

B.

Stakeholder mapping

C.

Advertising plan

D.

Developing team

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Questions 271

A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets

B.

Project schedule and stakeholder register

C.

Quality management plan and risk register

D.

Basis of estimates and scope baseline

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Questions 272

A project team member is discussing a new project with their manager. The project is very similar to a project that was delivered last year and the scope is very well documented.

Which of the following project delivery approaches should be recommended?

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Extreme

D.

Traditional

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Questions 273

What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan with a lot of technical uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Get expert judgment.

B.

Count on personal experience.

C.

Ask project sponsors.

D.

Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified

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Questions 274

If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefits is that:

Options:

A.

all stakeholders have access to the same information.

B.

the project team is able to understand the project status.

C.

project stakeholders have a clear picture of the project.

D.

new knowledge is added to organizational process assets.

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Questions 275

What characteristic of servant leadership supports resource management in an agile environment?

Options:

A.

Lecturing

B.

Construing

C.

Measuring

D.

Coaching

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Questions 276

A project team is brainstorming about the best methods and practices to adopt for an upcoming project. What is the project team trying to follow?

Options:

A.

Portfolios

B.

Standards

C.

Concepts

D.

Programs

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Questions 277

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Questions 278

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Questions 279

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Questions 280

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

Options:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Questions 281

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 282

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

Options:

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 283

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 284

Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?

Options:

A.

Activity-on-arrow diagramming

B.

Precedence diagramming

C.

Project schedule network diagramming

D.

Mathematical analysis diagramming

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Questions 285

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

Options:

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Questions 286

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 287

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Questions 288

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 289

The completion of the project scope is measured against the:

Options:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

project scope statement.

C.

project management plan.

D.

work performance measurements.

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Questions 290

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Questions 291

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 292

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

Options:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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Questions 293

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 294

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

Options:

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Questions 295

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 296

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Questions 297

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Questions 298

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Questions 299

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Questions 300

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Questions 301

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Questions 302

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

Options:

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

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Questions 303

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Questions 304

A project lifecycle is defined as:

Options:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Questions 305

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

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Questions 306

The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:

Options:

A.

Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.

B.

Develop a risk register for risk planning.

C.

Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 307

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Questions 308

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

Options:

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Questions 309

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 310

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Questions 311

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 312

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 313

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Questions 314

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

Options:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Questions 315

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Questions 316

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

Options:

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

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Questions 317

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Questions 318

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 319

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Questions 320

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Questions 321

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Questions 322

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 323

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 324

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Questions 325

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Product analysis

B.

Project charter

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Project scope statement

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Questions 326

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Questions 327

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Questions 328

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Questions 329

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 330

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Questions 331

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Questions 332

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Questions 333

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Questions 334

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

Options:

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Questions 335

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

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Questions 336

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 337

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 338

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Questions 339

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

Options:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

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Questions 340

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project reports

B.

Issue log

C.

Lessons learned documentation

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 341

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

Options:

A.

0.03

B.

0.06

C.

0.10

D.

0.50

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Questions 342

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

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Questions 343

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

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Questions 344

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Questions 345

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 346

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

Options:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Questions 347

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 348

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 349

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

Options:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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Questions 350

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

Options:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Questions 351

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

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Questions 352

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

Options:

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

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Questions 353

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Questions 354

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 355

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

Options:

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Questions 356

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

Options:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Questions 357

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

Options:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

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Questions 358

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

Options:

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Questions 359

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

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Questions 360

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 361

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Questions 362

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Questions 363

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

Options:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 364

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 365

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Questions 366

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Questions 367

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 368

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 369

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 370

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

Options:

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 371

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Questions 372

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 373

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 374

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

Options:

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

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Questions 375

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Questions 376

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

Monitor the stakeholder.

B.

Manage the stakeholder closely.

C.

Keep the stakeholder satisfied.

D.

Keep the stakeholder informed.

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Questions 377

Which items are components of a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 378

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

Options:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

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Questions 379

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

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Questions 380

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

Options:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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Questions 381

The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B.

tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.

C.

guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.

D.

creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

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Questions 382

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Questions 383

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

Options:

A.

outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.

B.

establishes project roles and responsibilities.

C.

improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.

D.

provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

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Questions 384

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

Options:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

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Questions 385

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

Options:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

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Questions 386

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

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Questions 387

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

Options:

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Questions 388

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

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Questions 389

Calculate the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) based on the following information: earned value (EV) is 30 and planned value (PV) is 15.

Options:

A.

2.0

B.

45

C.

0.5

D.

15

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Questions 390

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives

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Questions 391

The project manager has following information about duration for an activity:

* Most likely [tM] - 15 days

* Pessimistic [tP] - 20 days

* Optimistic [tO] - 10 days

What is the estimated duration of this activity, according to the triangular distribution technique?

Options:

A.

10 days

B.

15 days

C.

12.5 days

D.

5 days

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Nov 18, 2025
Questions: 1305
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