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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A product owner wants to ensure that the project ' s requirements, including product requirements, are met and validated. To do this project manager wants.

Match each process to its definition.

Options:

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Questions 5

In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 6

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 7

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

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Questions 8

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 9

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Questions 10

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

Options:

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

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Questions 11

During project selection, which factor is most important?

Options:

A.

Types of constraints

B.

Internal business needs

C.

Budget

D.

Schedule

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Questions 12

Types of internal failure costs include:

Options:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

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Questions 13

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

Options:

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 14

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 15

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

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Questions 16

For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?

Options:

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Expected monetary value analysis

D.

Decision tree analysis

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Questions 17

During the execution of a predicted project, the need for a new product feature has been proposed by the customer. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Decline any request by the customer and continue the project as initially planned.

B.

Accept the customer ' s request and continue with elicitation of the new product features.

C.

Investigate the possibility of using the management reserve to pay for the extra hours the team will need to work.

D.

Investigate the effect that such an integration will have on the project plan and propose a change request.

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Questions 18

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

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Questions 19

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

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Questions 20

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

Options:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

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Questions 21

When establishing a contingency reserve, including time, money and resources, how is the risk being handled?

Options:

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

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Questions 22

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Questions 23

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder ' s relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

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Questions 24

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Questions 25

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

Options:

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Questions 26

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 27

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

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Questions 28

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

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Questions 29

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

Options:

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Questions 30

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

Options:

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Questions 31

During a kickoff meeting, the project sponsor presents a very ambitious project. Unfortunately, the stakeholders are not very excited as the work associated with the new project seems inefficient.

What could be missing from the business case?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Approval from the stakeholders

C.

Feasibility study of the solution

D.

Root cause analysis of the problem

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Questions 32

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

Options:

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Questions 33

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

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Questions 34

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

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Questions 35

Why is a project undertaken?

Options:

A.

To create a unique product, service, or result

B.

To teach the discipline of program and portfolio management

C.

To increase the understanding of project management

D.

To achieve better management of resources

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Questions 36

Which of the following lists of tools and techniques is used when conducting procurements?

Options:

A.

Expert judgement, procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation advertising and independent estimates

B.

Budgeting procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and seller ' s proposal C. Expert judgement, procurement negotiations bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and make-or-buy decisions

C.

Agreements procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising selected seller

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Questions 37

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

Options:

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Questions 38

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 39

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

Options:

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

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Questions 40

A project team is working on a new driverless vehicle and is organizing a workshop with experts to analyze the data received from the prototype. Who should the project manager invite to provide expert advice?

Options:

A.

The subject matter experts (SMEs) identified in the stakeholder register

B.

The senior experts with high status in the academic community

C.

The major stakeholders nominated by the project sponsor

D.

The usual review participants holding recognized certifications

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Questions 41

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

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Questions 42

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 43

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

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Questions 44

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

Options:

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

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Questions 45

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

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Questions 46

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

Options:

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 47

Which of the following factors within a company cloud trigger the creation of a project?

Options:

A.

Need to lower production costs to remain competitive

B.

Need to submit a warranty claim for a faulty product

C.

Need to submit the monthly production report

D.

Need to define next month ' s production goals

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Questions 48

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

Options:

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 49

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

Options:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Questions 50

When is a Salience Model used?

Options:

A.

In a work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

During quality assurance

C.

In stakeholder analysis

D.

During quality control (QC)

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Questions 51

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 52

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Scope

C.

Contract

D.

Program

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Questions 53

What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?

Options:

A.

Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.

B.

Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from the Validate Scope process.

C.

Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder; verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.

D.

Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are the outputs from the Control Quality process.

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Questions 54

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 55

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

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Questions 56

A project sponsor has asked the project manager to determine how soon the project can be completed. Which of the following methods can a project manager use to find this information?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Decomposition

C.

Critical path method (CPM)

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 57

A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Management

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Control Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 58

When can we say that a project is completed?

Options:

A.

When the planned time duration is completed

B.

When the project objectives have been reached

C.

When the project manager has left the team

D.

When the project team decides to stop the work on the project

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Questions 59

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

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Questions 60

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

Options:

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

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Questions 61

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

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Questions 62

A project manager is reviewing a past project with similar.... team choosing for tailoring?

A project manager is reviewing a past project with similar requirements to the project that is currently chartered. The project team decided to adopt quality tools, techniques and templates recommended at the organizational level after reviewing the lessons learned of the previous project What specific area of quality, is the project team choosing for tailoring?

Options:

A.

Policy compliance and auditing

B.

Standards and compliance

C.

Review of lessons learned

D.

Test and inspection planning

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Questions 63

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

Options:

A.

Expand the scope of the project.

B.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

C.

Increase quality review cycles.

D.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

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Questions 64

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent of staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to a volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 66

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

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Questions 67

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

Options:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

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Questions 68

A project manager was assigned to a project with high uncertainty. What is the recommended method to calculate the project budget?

Options:

A.

Detailed estimation

B.

Lightweight estimation

C.

Parametric estimation

D.

A mix of them

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Questions 69

How is program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program ' s projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-effectiveness, and customer satisfaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Questions 70

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 71

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

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Questions 72

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 73

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

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Questions 74

The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Initiating

D.

Planning

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Questions 75

A software development team is working on a project to adapt an application to new, government-established data-privacy rules. What factor led to the creation of this project?

Options:

A.

Legal requirement

B.

New technology

C.

Social need

D.

Economic change

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Questions 76

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

Options:

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

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Questions 77

Which project performance domain is the work breakdown structure (WBS) developed?

Options:

A.

Development approach and life cycle

B.

Delivery performance

C.

Project work

D.

Planning

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Questions 78

An organization that is being interviewed online has recently experienced a severe network outage. Consequently, the organization has stated that it is required to have a working data network.

Which classification should be assigned to data network requirements?

Options:

A.

Customer requirement

B.

Transition requirement

C.

Solution requirement

D.

Business requirement

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Questions 79

A project manager needs to determine the schedule variance (SV). The project manager ' s latest schedule indicates 14 units of work completed against a plan of 23 units.

What is the SV?

Options:

A.

-9

B.

37

C.

9

D.

322

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Questions 80

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 81

A project manager has joined the sponsor to verify the last deliverable of the project. The sponsor is measuring and examining the deliverable to determine whether it meets the requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which activity is being performed?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Prototyping

C.

Decision making

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 82

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Questions 83

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Update the project management plan.

B.

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

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Questions 84

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

Options:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Questions 85

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

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Questions 86

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager ' s disposal?

Options:

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Questions 87

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

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Questions 88

An output of the Create WBS process is:

Options:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

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Questions 89

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

Options:

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Questions 90

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Questions 91

Who defines the scope of the product

Options:

A.

The client

B.

The project manager

C.

The team

D.

The program manager

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Questions 92

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

Options:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

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Questions 93

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

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Questions 94

A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?

Options:

A.

Traceability matrixB Lessons learned

B.

Change control proceduresD Resource availability

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Questions 95

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

Options:

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Questions 96

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Questions 97

Typical outcomes of a project include:

Options:

A.

Products, services, and improvements.

B.

Products, programs, and services.

C.

Improvements, portfolios, and services.

D.

Improvements, processes, and products.

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Questions 98

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

Options:

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

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Questions 99

A project manager is performing a specific process and has..........is being referred to?

A project manager is performing a specific process and has a list of accepted deliverables One of the stakeholders points out that they have just reviewed the verified deliverables, and come up with the list of accepted deliverables Which process is being referred to?

Options:

A.

Control Quality

B.

Validate Scope

C.

Validate Quality

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 100

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests

B.

work performance information and change requests

C.

project management plan updates and work performance information

D.

issue logs and organizational process assets updates

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Questions 101

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

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Questions 102

What behavior refers to leadership style?

Options:

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

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Questions 103

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

Options:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 104

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 105

Which are the competing constraints that project manager should address when tailoring a project?

Options:

A.

Cost, scope, schedule

B.

Sponsorship, risk, quality

C.

Schedule, sponsorship, scope

D.

Resources, Quality, Communication

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Questions 106

Which is an example of analogous estimating?

Options:

A.

Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.

B.

Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.

C.

Estimates are created by analyzing data.

D.

Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.

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Questions 107

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Questions 108

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Questions 109

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

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Questions 110

Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Issue log

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 111

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

Options:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Questions 112

A project is in its final stages when a competitor releases a similar product. This could make the project redundant. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Initiate change control.

B.

Address risk mitigation.

C.

Escalate this to the project sponsor.

D.

Initiate project closure.

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Questions 113

A project team is meeting to seek solutions on a new problem that occurred recently. The meeting is comprised of two parts: the first is a generation of ideas and the second is an analysis.

Which technique is the team using?

Options:

A.

Checklists

B.

Interview

C.

Focus group

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 114

Due to organizational changes, a new product owner joins a project The product owner wants to review the process used to obtain team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.

What process should the project manager review with the product owner?

Options:

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Control Resources

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Questions 115

The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:

Options:

A.

in line with a measured degree of conformity.

B.

out of the hands of the customer.

C.

in a specified range of acceptable results.

D.

out of the process.

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Questions 116

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Questions 117

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

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Questions 118

Which format can a network diagram take?

Options:

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

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Questions 119

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Questions 120

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage.

What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

Options:

A.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

B.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

C.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

D.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

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Questions 121

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

Options:

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 122

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Questions 123

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

Options:

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

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Questions 124

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

Options:

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 125

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

Options:

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

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Questions 126

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 127

Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project reports

B.

Issue log

C.

Lessons learned documentation

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 128

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Questions 129

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members know their roles and responsibilities. What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

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Questions 130

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Questions 131

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

Options:

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Questions 132

Which of the following projects is a quality candidate for adaptive approaches?

Options:

A.

Installing new computers across offices

B.

Retrofitting an old building

C.

Upgrading an information system

D.

Designing a new suspension bridge

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Questions 133

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

One

B.

Five

C.

Six

D.

Seven

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Questions 134

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 135

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

Options:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

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Questions 136

Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?

Options:

A.

Adjust duration estimates

B.

Define activities

C.

Complete rolling wave planning

D.

Develop milestone list

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Questions 137

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

Options:

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Questions 138

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

Options:

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Questions 139

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

Options:

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 140

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

Options:

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

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Questions 141

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 142

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

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Questions 143

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

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Questions 144

Match the life cycle type to when its requirements are defined.

Options:

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Questions 145

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 146

Which of the following lists represents trends and emerging practices in Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Integrated risk management, non-event risks, and project resilience

B.

Representation of uncertainty, strategies for opportunities, and strategies for overall project risk

C.

Dormancy, proximity, and propinquity

D.

Simulation, sensitivity analysis, and decision tree analysis

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Questions 147

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

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Questions 148

The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:

Options:

A.

Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.

B.

Occur at random times in the project plans.

C.

Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.

D.

Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.

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Questions 149

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team

B.

Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives

C.

Ensures that the project ' s business operations are efficient

D.

Provides management oversight for a project’s functional or business units

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Questions 150

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Questions 151

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

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Questions 152

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

Options:

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 153

What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables ' ?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 154

The organization ' s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

Options:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

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Questions 155

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

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Questions 156

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

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Questions 157

In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

The frequency of the quality and review steps

B.

The number of deliverables

C.

The duration of each of the quality and review steps

D.

The tools used in the quality and review steps

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Questions 158

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 159

Which additional considerations should the project manager make when managing risks in an agile/adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Add more risk categories

B.

Identify, analyze, and manage risk during each iteration of the project

C.

Add new values to the probability and impact matrix

D.

Increase the reserves because of the high variability environment

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Questions 160

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

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Questions 161

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Questions 162

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Questions 163

During the project planning process, which three of the following stakeholders are required to take part in the risk assessment meeting? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

End user

B.

Product owner

C.

Subject matter experts (SMEs)

D.

Project sponsor

E.

Project team

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Questions 164

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

Options:

A.

Budget plan

B.

Resource plan

C.

Scope plan

D.

Strategic plan

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Questions 165

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

Options:

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

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Questions 166

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Questions 167

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Questions 168

A new project manager is assigned to a high-visibility project. The project manager starts with the requirements analysis process. Who should the project manager onboard to assist with the requirements traceability matrix or analysis?

Options:

A.

Systems analyst

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Technical consultant

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Questions 169

A construction project is underway, and during... tasks impacted the painting work

A construction project is underway, and during the progress review the painter complained that the task could not be started because the mason has not finished the plastering job What kind ot relationship between the tasks impacted the painting work?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-Finish (FF)

B.

Start-to-Finish (SF)

C.

Finish-to-Start(FS)

D.

Start-to-Slart(SS)

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Questions 170

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project ' s scope is managed?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Project management processes

D.

Project scope management plan

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Questions 171

Which two of the following can be used as communication tools between the business analyst and the rest of the project team? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Responsible, accountable, consult, inform (RACI) matrix

E.

Process flows

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Questions 172

The Agile principle " welcome changing requirement, even late in development " relates to which agile manifesto?

Options:

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

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Questions 173

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

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Questions 174

A practitioner organized a requirements workshop with the client ' s frontline application users. The users explained that one of the challenges of the current application is that they must click on each input before entering data, which happens thousands of times a day.

Which technique did the practitioner use to identify this pain point?

Options:

A.

System thinking

B.

User acceptance testing

C.

Decision-making

D.

Active listening

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Questions 175

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

Options:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

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Questions 176

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

Options:

A.

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

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Questions 177

A team is feeling pressured to begin development work due to tight project deadlines. There are stakeholders with similar functions located in multiple countries. To accelerate the process, the business analyst has limited the requirements elicitation sessions to times that work for stakeholders in one time zone.

To reduce the risk with this approach, which step should the business analyst take?

Options:

A.

Add the risk to the risk register so other stakeholders are aware of the approach.

B.

Distribute the documented requirements to relevant stakeholders in all time zones for review and comment.

C.

Ask the stakeholders in the elicitation sessions to speak on behalf of stakeholders in other time zones.

D.

Request the project sponsor to approve this requirements elicitation approach for this project.

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Questions 178

A project manager is reviewing the change requests, deliverables, and the project plan in Which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Closes Project or Phase

D.

Perform itegrated Change Control

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Questions 179

The project sponsor wants to know when an in-flight adaptive project will be done. Which of the following metrics will help the team to predict how much longer the project will take?

Options:

A.

Risk burnup and control chart

B.

Customer satisfaction index and workload

C.

Average burndown and velocity

D.

Average velocity and cycle time

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Questions 180

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

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Questions 181

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

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Questions 182

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Questions 183

Project management processes ensure the:

Options:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Questions 184

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Options:

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

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Questions 185

Select three processes that are associated with Project Schedule Management.

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

E.

Acquire Resources

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Questions 186

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 187

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence.

What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

B.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

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Questions 188

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

Options:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

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Questions 189

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

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Questions 190

A project team has completed the sprint review and the users are impressed by the demo. However, another functionality included in the sprint that was not discussed in the review is not ready for production deployment.

What should the project team do?

Options:

A.

Demo the incomplete feature at the sprint retrospective.

B.

Deploy the functionality that was presented to the users.

C.

Wait to complete all user stories that are in development.

D.

Continue with sprints until the product backlog is empty.

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Questions 191

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

Options:

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

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Questions 192

As the project takes place and some issues arose, the project manager (Joe) finds out that some team members were not 100% committed to the project, and some of them were underperforming.

What should the project manager have done to avoid this situation?

Options:

A.

Coupled inexperienced team members with individuals having extensive knowledge in the required field

B.

Had open and transparent planning that engages internal and external stakeholders

C.

Held regular meetings more often with team members to check on their progress and obstacles

D.

Diversified more of the project team to capture a broad range of experiences

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Questions 193

A project manager is working with the team to prepare the estimates for various work items. The team needs to compare the relative sizing of the items. What should the project manager suggest the team use?

Options:

A.

Project task estimation

B.

Dependency planning

C.

Story point estimation

D.

Sprint planning

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Questions 194

While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:

Options:

A.

ends.

B.

begins.

C.

delays.

D.

deviates.

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Questions 195

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

Options:

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 196

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

Options:

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources Communications

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Acquire Resources

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Questions 197

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 198

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller ' s proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

Options:

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Questions 199

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

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Questions 200

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

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Questions 201

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (TandM).

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Questions 202

The activity tailoring is necessary because:

Options:

A.

the members of the project team need to select the appropriate order of every tool, technique, input, and output listed in the PMBOK Guide, this is required for all projects

B.

each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide

C.

the members of the project team need to understand the PMBOK Guide processes, which are applied to all projects

D.

each project is unique, and the project team must plain how to apply all the tools, techniques, inputs, and outputs in the PMBOK Guide

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Questions 203

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

Options:

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Questions 204

Which of the following techniques should a project manager of a large project with virtual teams use to enhance collaboration?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Physical resources assignment

C.

Team building activities

D.

Integrated Change Control

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Questions 205

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 206

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

Options:

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Questions 207

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

Options:

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

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Questions 208

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Questions 209

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 210

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.

Expert judgempnt and decision making

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Questions 211

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 212

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Questions 213

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 214

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

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Questions 215

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

Options:

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Questions 216

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of quality (COQ)

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Benchmarking

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Questions 217

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

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Questions 218

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Share

C.

Enhance

D.

Transfer

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Questions 219

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Questions 220

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

Options:

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Questions 221

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 222

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 223

A project manager is assigned to a new project with a defined scope. The project requires advanced planning at the start of the project. Which approach should the project manager select for the project?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Kanban

D.

Adaptive

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Questions 224

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Questions 225

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

Options:

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Questions 226

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Questions 227

Which key benefit can a project manager obtain by identifying stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder.

B.

Assess the risk exposure for each stakeholder.

C.

Map stakeholder power and influence grid.

D.

Identify the appropriate channels of communication with all stakeholders.

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Questions 228

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Questions 229

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

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Questions 230

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project ' s:

Options:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

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Questions 231

A project ' s business analyst has to understand the newly acquired technology and the impact it will have on the organization. Which tool should be used to understand the new technology?

Options:

A.

Must have, should have, could have, won ' t have (MoSCoW)

B.

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats (SWOT)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Responsible, accountable, consulted, informed (RACI)

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Questions 232

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

Options:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Questions 233

Which item is a cost of conformance?

Options:

A.

Training

B.

Liabilities

C.

Lost business

D.

Scrap

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Questions 234

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team ' s issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Questions 235

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

Options:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Questions 236

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

Options:

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 237

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Functional

C.

Project

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 238

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

Options:

A.

Government standards

B.

Organizational culture

C.

Employee capabilities

D.

Organizational knowledge bases

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Questions 239

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

Options:

A.

Resource calendar.

B.

Project organization chart.

C.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

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Questions 240

What happens to a stakeholder ' s project influence over time?

Options:

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Questions 241

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

Options:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

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Questions 242

What describes the relationship between projects, programs, and portfolios?

Options:

A.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the " right " programs and projects.

B.

Project management focuses on doing the " right " programs and portfolios.

C.

Program management focuses on doing the " specific " portfolios and projects.

D.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the ' ' specific’’ programs and projects.

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Questions 243

How can emotional intelligence (EI) be effective in project management?

Options:

A.

By preparing a project plan and managing the team members

B.

By planning for user acceptance testing

C.

By establishing project resource allocation

D.

By reducing tension and increasing cooperation among team members

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Questions 244

What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Determining and managing stakeholder needs

B.

Contorting the status of the product scope and managing changes to its be seine

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D.

Differentiating between the product scope and project scope

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Questions 245

An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance. Which type ot communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?

Options:

A.

Informal conversation

B.

Face-to-face meeting

C.

Short email update

D.

Written report

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Questions 246

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 247

After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule

C.

Develop Schedule and Control schedule

D.

Review Activities and Develop Schedule

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Questions 248

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

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Questions 249

To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:

Options:

A.

scope creep.

B.

a change request.

C.

work performance information.

D.

deliverables.

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Questions 250

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

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Questions 251

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

Options:

A.

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

B.

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

D.

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

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Questions 252

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 253

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives

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Questions 254

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 255

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 256

To ensure stakeholder satisfaction; identified stakeholder needs should all be

Options:

A.

Vetted

B.

Ranked from greatest to least

C.

Qualified

D.

Documented in the stakeholder engagement plan

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Questions 257

An organization is faced with increasing demand from the board of directors. They say budgets are flexible as long as the work gets completed.

What project management approach should the organization use?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Iterative

D.

Adaptive

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Questions 258

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager ' s sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Questions 259

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

Options:

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

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Questions 260

While executing a building construction project, the supplier may delay the delivery and increase the cost of materials due to new safety regulations. The team has identified an option to absorb the cost by reducing the lag for some of the tasks.

What should the team do to ensure that this situation is managed?

Options:

A.

Implement Appropriate Response

B.

Plan Project Risk Management

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 261

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

Options:

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

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Questions 262

What method for categorizing stakeholders is suitable for small projects with simple relationships among stakeholders ' ?

Options:

A.

Prioritization

B.

Directions of influence

C.

Salience model

D.

Power/influence grid

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Questions 263

Product requirements specify a functionality that depends upon expertise that is unavailable internally. What process should be implemented to generate a make-or-buy decision?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements B Plan Procurement Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

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Questions 264

What is a characteristic of the relationship among projects, programs, and portfolios?

Options:

A.

A portfolio is a group of programs, and a program is a large project

B.

Portfolios often engage with the same stakeholders as the programs and projects in the portfolio.

C.

Programs focus on the internal interdependencies within each project in a portfolio

D.

Portfolios focus on program results and project deliveries

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Questions 265

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 266

Organizations perceive risks as:

Options:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Questions 267

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

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Questions 268

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Questions 269

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

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Questions 270

Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:

Options:

A.

buyers

B.

sellers

C.

business partners

D.

product users

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Questions 271

What are the objectives of Initiation processes?

Options:

A.

Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.

B.

Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.

C.

Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify stakeholders ' goals.

D.

Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.

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Questions 272

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

Options:

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

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Questions 273

In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 274

A project team is working on relocating offices to another building and providing new furniture. The new furniture was purchased from an international vendor. The price was negotiated in a foreign currency, and due to changes in the exchange rate, the cost has increased by 10%. There is no contingency in the project budget. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

B.

Escalate this issue to the chief financial officer (CFO).

C.

Escalate this issue to the procurement team.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

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Questions 275

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

Options:

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Questions 276

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 277

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

Options:

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

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Questions 278

What tools or techniques are necessary to create the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Meetings and data analysis

B.

Expert judgment and data gathering

C.

Interpersonal skills and change control

D.

Data analysis and expert judgment

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Questions 279

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 280

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Questions 281

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

Options:

A.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.

C.

The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.

D.

The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

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Questions 282

Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

Options:

A.

Activity cost estimates

B.

Earned value management

C.

Cost management plan

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 283

To which process is work performance information an input?

Options:

A.

Administer Procurements

B.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

C.

Create WBS

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 284

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Questions 285

A new project was approved and the project manager is discussing the most suitable delivery approach with the project sponsor. Which three of the following are characteristics of a traditional project delivered using a linear delivery approach? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Many expected simple scope change requests

B.

Few expected simple scope change requests

C.

Routine and repetitive activities

D.

Collocated project teams

E.

Use of established templates

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Questions 286

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

Options:

A.

InitiatingB Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

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Questions 287

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 288

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

Options:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

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Questions 289

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

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Questions 290

Which of the following is least influenced by a project manager, according to the project manager ' s sphere of influence?

Options:

A.

Sponsors

B.

Project team

C.

Steering committees

D.

Stakeholders

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Questions 291

A stakeholder asked the project manager to add an additional feature to the project scope. The project manager is unsure whether the project budget will allow this additional scope.

What component of the project management plan should the project manager reference to determine whether the budget will allow a new feature to be added?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Cost estimate

C.

Risk register

D.

Cost management plan

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Questions 292

A business analyst is evaluating solutions against the expected results and logging defects along the way. The next task is to analyze the discrepancies prior to facilitating a go/no-go decision.

Which technique should be used as a starting point to uncover problem areas?

Options:

A.

Elicitation

B.

Opportunity analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Feasibility analysis

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Questions 293

What is main purpose of Project Quantity Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 294

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (TandM)

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Questions 295

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Create WBS

D.

Applying leads and lags

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Questions 296

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

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Questions 297

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Questions 298

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

Options:

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

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Questions 299

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 300

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

Options:

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Questions 301

An organization ' s project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

Options:

A.

Organizational systems access

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Resources management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 302

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders ' ?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 303

The project manager and the project team are in the process of documenting procurement decisions. Which of the following will be the procurement strategy?

Options:

A.

Payment types, delivery methods, and procurement phases

B.

Procurement metrics, make-or-buy decisions, and procurement statement of work

C.

Vendor selection criteria, stakeholder roles and responsibilitys, and prequalified sellers

D.

Timetable procurement activities, product cost, and knowledge transfer schedule

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Questions 304

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client ' s project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

Options:

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Questions 305

During a retrospective, the team finds that all of the user stories are not complete. What should be done with the incomplete user stories?

Options:

A.

Move these user stories back to the product backlog for reprioritization.

B.

Remove these user stories as they are not important.

C.

Advance these user stories to the top of the next sprint backlog.

D.

Complete these user stories in the current sprint and extend the sprint length.

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Questions 306

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

Options:

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Questions 307

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Questions 308

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

Options:

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

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Questions 309

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

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Questions 310

When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

lead

B.

lag

C.

mandatory dependency

D.

internal dependency

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Questions 311

What is the purpose of the project management process groups?

Options:

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

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Questions 312

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

Options:

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Questions 313

An element of the project scope statement is:

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria.

B.

A stakeholder list.

C.

A summary budget,

D.

High-level risks.

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Questions 314

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

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Questions 315

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

Options:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

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Questions 316

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 317

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

Options:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

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Questions 318

An employee was hired to work on ongoing, repetitive activities in the accounting department. The employee ' s duties are managing and controlling day-to-day activities. Which type of managing is the employee performing?

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Finance

C.

Project

D.

Operations

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Questions 319

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 320

A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place. What technique was followed?

Options:

A.

Collective decision making

B.

Multicriteria decision analysis

C.

Mind mapping

D.

Affinity diagram

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Questions 321

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

Options:

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Questions 322

During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 323

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Questions 324

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Cash Flow Statement of the Project Investment Unit: US$ Billion

Period: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Cash inflow: 0, 0, 0, 0, 1200, 1200, 1200, 1200

Cash outflow: 0, 700, 800, 500, 700, 700, 700, 700, 700

Net cash flow (NCF): 0, -700, -800, 300, 500, 500, 500, 500, 500

Accumulative total of net cash flow: 0, -700, -1500, -1200, -700, -200, 300, 800, 1300

Options:

A.

Static payback period = 3 + |-1200| / 500 = 5.4

B.

Static payback period = 6 + |300| / 500 = 6.6

C.

Static payback period = 5 + |-200| / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 4 + |-700| / 500 = 5.4

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Questions 325

A project manager has just consolidated the project risk management plan and sent it to the sponsor. The sponsor wants to reduce the likelihood of a specific risk.

Which approach should the project manager take?

Options:

A.

Escalate

B.

Mitigate

C.

Avoid

D.

Transfer

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Questions 326

In a project, the cost performance indicator (CPI) is less than 1 and the schedule performance indicator (SPI) is more than 1. What is the status of the project?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget and behind schedule.

B.

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

The project is under budget and behind schedule.

D.

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

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Questions 327

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

Options:

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Questions 328

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

Options:

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Questions 329

What is the equation to calculate cost variance (CV)?

Options:

A.

CV = EV / BAC

B.

CV = EV - AC

C.

CV = EV - BAC

D.

CV = EV / AC

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Questions 330

What tool or technique is used in the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Decomposition

C.

Product analysis

D.

Prototypes

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Questions 331

In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors.

B.

organizational process assets.

C.

project management plan,

D.

project funding requirements.

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Questions 332

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Business case

C.

Accepted deliverable

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 333

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

Options:

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

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Questions 334

Match each tool or technique with its corresponding Project Cost Management process.

Options:

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Questions 335

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 336

Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The life cycle involves three project management process groups.

B.

Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.

C.

Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.

D.

The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.

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Questions 337

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Questions 338

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

Options:

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 339

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

Options:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

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Questions 340

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

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Questions 341

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 342

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Questions 343

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 344

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

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Questions 345

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

Options:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

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Questions 346

What is one reason why stakeholders must be identified when performing business analysis?

Options:

A.

To identify project timelines through business reviews

B.

To allow the business analyst to determine the project budget

C.

To identify who should define the business requirements for the project

D.

To determine a cost-benefit analysis for the project

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Questions 347

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 348

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

Options:

A.

EV

B.

SPI

C.

PV

D.

ETC

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Questions 349

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 350

Recently, the government published a new tax law giving companies one year to implement the changes. A project was initiated to change the accounting system. Which delivery approach is most suitable in this context?

Options:

A.

Predictive, because of the high risk that the company can be fined.

B.

Predictive, because the requirements are clearly defined up-front.

C.

Adaptive, because the government will provide constant feedback.

D.

Adaptive, because the changes have never been implemented before.

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Questions 351

What charts and (igures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

Options:

A.

Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams

B.

Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix

C.

Hierarchical charts and burndown charts

D.

Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts

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Questions 352

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project ' s budget?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Questions 353

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

Options:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Questions 354

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

Options:

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

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Questions 355

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 356

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

Options:

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Questions 357

What tools or techniques can be used in all cost management processes ' ?

Options:

A.

Decision making and expert judgment

B.

Expert judgment and data analysis

C.

Data analysis and meetings

D.

Meetings and cost aggregation

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Questions 358

The project manager released a report. A few stakeholders express the view that the report should not have been directed to them.

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Questions 359

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

Options:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Questions 360

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Questions 361

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

Options:

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Questions 362

A program consists of four agile teams. Each team has a separate daily standup. Later each day, there is another standup meeting attended by one member from each team.

Which Scrum technique is this?

Options:

A.

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe®)

B.

Disciplined Agile® (DA™)

C.

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

D.

Scrum of Scrums

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Questions 363

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

Options:

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

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Questions 364

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Questions 365

Two members of the team are having a conflict..............or partially resolve the problem

Two members of the team are having a conflict. The project manager decides that, in this case, the best solution is to bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties, in order to temporarily or partially resolve the problem.

Which technique should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/Avoid

B.

Smooth/Accommodate

C.

Compromise/Reconcile

D.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

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Questions 366

Select three elements that apply to agile/ adaptive environments

Options:

A.

Frequent team checkpoints

B.

Colocation

C.

Access to information

D.

Virtual team members

E.

Geographically dispersed team

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Questions 367

What is the project manager ' s responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

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Questions 368

What does ’verified’ in verified deliverable represent?

Options:

A.

The correctness of a deliverable

B.

The completeness of a deliverable

C.

The deliverable requirements

D.

The customer acceptance of a deliverable

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Questions 369

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

Options:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

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Questions 370

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

Options:

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Questions 371

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

Options:

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

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Questions 372

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

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Questions 373

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

Options:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

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Questions 374

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

Options:

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

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Questions 375

A project manager has recently been assigned a new agile project and needs to determine an appropriate leadership style. The project manager aims to empower the team members so they feel committed and motivated to deliver value.

Which leadership style should be used for this project?

Options:

A.

A servant leadership style

B.

A laissez-faire leadership style

C.

A collaborative leadership style

D.

A directive leadership style

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Questions 376

A project manager needs to request outside support......manager need to create

A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement ot work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?

Options:

A.

Time and material (TandM)

B.

Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

C.

Fixed price

D.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF)

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Questions 377

The executive committee of a company is reviewing its portfolios. Which of the following would be helpful to evaluate success?

Options:

A.

Charter the strategic objectives.

B.

Control environmental changes.

C.

Monitor changes continuously.

D.

Aggregate benefits realization.

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Questions 378

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 379

What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?

Options:

A.

Critical chain method

B.

Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Project network diagram

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Questions 380

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 381

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

Options:

A.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

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Questions 382

A business analyst has encountered a conflict related to competing requirements on an existing project. What tool should the business analyst use to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Peer review

B.

Procurement management

C.

Weighted ranking

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 383

The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:

Options:

A.

Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.

B.

Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.

C.

Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.

D.

Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.

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Questions 384

A project manager is developing the work breakdown structure (WBS) for a project. The team is asking at what level should they decompose their assigned work.

What should the project manager answer?

Options:

A.

Activity level

B.

Deliverable level

C.

Task level

D.

Work package level

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Questions 385

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?

Options:

A.

A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.

B.

A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.

C.

A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.

D.

A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

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Questions 386

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project ' s success?

Options:

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Questions 387

The definition of operations is a/an:

Options:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

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Questions 388

Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

Options:

A.

Direct

B.

Interactive

C.

Pull

D.

Push

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Questions 389

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Questions 390

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

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Questions 391

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

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Questions 392

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 393

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

Options:

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

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Questions 394

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 395

If the estimate at completion (EAC) is 25, and the budget at completion (BAC) is 17, what is the variance at completion (VAC)?

Options:

A.

-8

B.

425

C.

1.4

D.

8

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Questions 396

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

Options:

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

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Questions 397

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Jul 5, 2026
Questions: 1320
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