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4A0-C02 Nokia SRA Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Click on the exhibit below.

Study the diagram shown. What consideration should be given to the transport tunnel of SDP 300?

Options:

A.

The SDP must be configured to use GRE encapsulation.

B.

The SDP must follow the same path as the user's SDP.

C.

The SDP should be configured to use an RSVP signaled transport with fast reroute.

D.

The SDP must be the same as the user's SDP.

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Questions 5

Click the exhibit.

For the CE hub and spoke VPRN, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The primary VRF on PE1 contains routes learned from spoke sites.

B.

All traffic between spoke sites must pass through CE1.

C.

The secondary VRF on PE1 is used to route data packets from the hub CE to the spoke sites.

D.

PE1 advertises the primary VRF routes to CE1.

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Questions 6

A customer has two sites connected to PE-1 and a third site dual-homed to PE-2 and PE-3. If BGP is used as the PE-CE protocol, what is the total number of BGP and MP-BGP sessions required on PE-1 for a functional VPRN service? Assume that route reflection is not used.

Options:

A.

0 BGP and 2 MP-BGP sessions

B.

2 BGP and 0 MP-BGP sessions

C.

2 BGP and 1 MP-BGP sessions

D.

2 BGP and 2 MP-BGP sessions

E.

1 BGP and 2 MP-BGP sessions

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Questions 7

Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.

Options:

A.

Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain

B.

Signal the egress VPRN ID

C.

Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain

D.

Transport route updates between PEs

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Questions 8

In inter-AS model C VPRN, which of the following about the command "advertise-label ipv4" is TRUE?

Options:

A.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes directly to PEs in remote AS.

B.

This command is required on the ASBRs to exchange labeled IPv4 routes between the ASs.

C.

This command is required on the route reflectors to exchange customer routes between ASs as labeled IPv4 routes.

D.

This command is required on all PE routers to distribute labeled IPv4 routes to connected CEs.

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Questions 9

Which command may be used on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR to verify the number of VRF routes allowed, based on the maximum routes value configured in the service instance?

Options:

A.

Show service id base

B.

Show router bgp routes

C.

Show service id maximum-routes

D.

Show router status

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Questions 10

It is required to prepare the provider core for LDP on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. Based on the configuration shown below, choose the answer that best describes the given configuration.

Options:

A.

This configuration is correct and complete

B.

This configuration is correct except that the system interface must be added

C.

This configuration is correct except that the interfaces facing the CE routers must be added.

D.

MPLS configuration is not required

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Questions 11

Click the exhibit.

AS-override is configured on PE1 to eliminate the BGP loops. What is the expected AS-Path in the VPN-IPv4 route 64496:10:192.168.2.0/27 received by PE1?

Options:

A.

64496 64497

B.

64496

C.

64497

D.

64497 64497

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Questions 12

Why would a selective export policy be applied to a customer VPRN service? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

To limit the number of routes advertised from a customer site

B.

To limit the number of routes learned from other customer sites CTo limit the size of the VRF table

C.

To limit connectivity to selected customer networks

D.

To perform packet filtering

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Questions 13

Click the exhibit.

Router R6 is a route reflector with clients R1, R2, R4 and R5. Router R4 receives three routes from router R6 and is configured with ECMP 3. Given the following BGP configuration on routerR4, how many primary and backup paths will be present in router R4's BGP routing table?

Options:

A.

Three primary paths,

B.

Two primary paths and one backup path.

C.

One primary path and two backup paths.

D.

One primary path and one backup path.

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Questions 14

Click the exhibit.

Assuming that none of the routers within AS 65200 is configured with next-hop-self", what will the BGP update for the 192.168.0.1/27 prefix contain when it arrives at router B?

Options:

A.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router A.

B.

AS Path of 65200 65100, Next Hop of router E.

C.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router E.

D.

AS Path of 65100, Next Hop of router A.

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Questions 15

Which of the following prefix lists include prefixes 192.168.128.0/17 and 192.168.64.0/18?

Options:

A.

Prefix list 192.168.0.0/16 through 18.

B.

Prefix 192.168.0.0/17 longer.

C.

Prefix list 192.168.0.0/17 through 18.

D.

Prefix 192.160.0.0/13 longer.

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Questions 16

Click the exhibit.

After router A receives the BGP update for the 10.3.3.0/24 prefix, which routers will the route be propagated to?

Options:

A.

All routers with which it has a BGP session.

B.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router B.

C.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router C.

D.

All routers with which it has a BGP session, except the router it received the update from, which is router D.

E.

Only eBGP neighbors.

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Questions 17

Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured. Which of the following configurations is required on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router A to establish an IPv6 BGP session to router D?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 18

What class of attribute is Originator_ID?

Options:

A.

Well-known mandatory.

B.

Well-known discretionary.

C.

Optional transitive.

D.

Optional non-transitive.

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Questions 19

Which of the following statements regarding route reflectors is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Route reflectors propagate BGP learned routes to their clients.

B.

Route reflectors require "n" iBGP sessions, where "n" is the number of BGP routers in the AS.

C.

Route reflectors disable iBGP split horizon for all iBGP peers in the AS.

D.

Route reflectors do not work in conjunction with confederations.

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Questions 20

Click the exhibit.

Router R1 is a route reflector with clients R2, R5 and R6. Prefixes advertised by router R5 have a local preference of 200. Router R3 advertises the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 to routers R5 and R6.

Assuming that router R6 is configured with "advertise-external", what is the expected output of "show router bgp routes" when executed on router R1?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 21

Two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs are established BGP peers with the following add-paths configuration:

R1: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 4 receive

R2: configure router bgp add-paths ipv4 send 2

If router R1 advertises three routes for a given prefix X, how many routes is router R2 expected to have for prefix X?

Options:

A.

None

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 22

When implementing a BGP policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following types of address space would a typical address plan need to cover?

Options:

A.

RIR assigned CIDR space.

B.

External client address space.

C.

Loopback or link addresses.

D.

External link addresses.

E.

All of the above.

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Questions 23

Click the exhibit.

AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 contain when viewed on router R8?

Options:

A.

65200 (65206 65202) 65100

B.

(65206 65202)65100

C.

65250 (65206 65202) 65100

D.

65200 65100

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Questions 24

What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?

Options:

A.

Optional transitive attribute.

B.

Optional non-transitive attribute.

C.

Well-known mandatory attribute.

D.

Well-known discretionary attribute.

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Questions 25

Click the exhibit.

AS 65100 is advertising 192.168.1.0/27 into BGP. Which of the following AS Paths would the prefix 192.168.1.0/27 contain when viewed on router R7?

Options:

A.

65206 65202 65100

B.

(65206 65202)65100

C.

(65204 65206 65202) 65100

D.

(65200) 65100

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Questions 26

Click the exhibit.

Routers RR1 and RR2 are route reflectors with the same cluster-ID. How many updates for prefix 192.168.1.0/27 are received at router RR1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 27

Which of the following parameters does NOT have to match for an iBGP session to be successfully established?

Options:

A.

BGP version number.

B.

The local AS number.

C.

The Hold Time.

D.

Authentication.

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Questions 28

You are providing a customer two VPLS services in two different Metro networks. VPLS 500 has been configured in Metro 1 and VPLS 900 has been configured in Metro 2. The customer has requested that they have connectivity between the Metro Networks with their existing VPLS services. Which configuration on the PE routers linking the metro networks will allow for VPLS 500 and VPLS 900 to act as a single VPLS service? Assume default values for all VPLS parameters and SDP 999 exists between the metro networks.

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 29

Which of the following features can be enabled to eliminate MAC instability when using policy-based forwarding to redirect traffic to a Layer 2 DPI device?

Options:

A.

discard-unknown

B.

mac-move

C.

disable-learning

D.

enable-mac-stability

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Questions 30

MAC explosion is best described as a large amount of MAC addresses being withdrawn and relearned?

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 31

IEEE 802.3ah frames must be untagged.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 32

The "discard-unknown" command has been enabled at the VPLS level. Which of the following statements is true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

Broadcast traffic will be flooded.

B.

If the unicastSA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

C.

If the unicast DA has not been learned in the FDB, the frame will be dropped.

D.

All traffic will be dropped, including multicast and broadcast.

E.

Broadcast traffic will be dropped.

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Questions 33

What configuration is required on the CE device when using MC-LAG?

Options:

A.

The CE must be configured with an MC-LAG to both PE devices.

B.

The CE must be configured with LACP in active mode.

C.

There is no configuration required on the CE.

D.

The CE must be an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

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Questions 34

How many designated ports are there in a spanning tree topology?

Options:

A.

The same as the number of alternate ports in the topology

B.

1 per segment

C.

The same as the number of root ports

D.

1 per switch

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Questions 35

Click on the exhibit below.

CE-A sends frames with 2 tags. If the SAP on PE-A is "sap 1/1/1:1 .*" and the SAP on PE-B is "sap 1/1/1:100.200" how many tags will there be on the frame when it egresses from the SAP on PE-B?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

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Questions 36

Redundant spoke-SDPs are used between 2 Metro networks for redundancy. How can load balancing be achieved across the redundant spoke-SDPs?

Options:

A.

A single management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.

B.

A single management VPLS using 802.1D-2004 can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services

C.

There is no way to have load balancing across redundant spoke-SDPs.

D.

Two management VPLS using RSTP can be used to block different SDPs for different VPLS services.

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Questions 37

If the command "disable-learning" has been added at the VPLS level, then MAC entries which have already been learned will not be aged.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 38

Click on the exhibit below.

Based on the service-mtu of this B-VPLS, what is the maximum service-mtu of any connecting I-VPLS attached to this B-VPLS?

Options:

A.

9100 bytes

B.

9104 bytes

C.

9108 bytes

D.

9118 bytes

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Questions 39

In RSTP, how is the root bridge selected?

Options:

A.

The switch with the highest bridge-id is selected as root.

B.

The switch with the lowest bridge-id is selected as root.

C.

The switch with the highest MAC address is selected as root

D.

The switch with the lowest MAC address is selected as root.

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Questions 40

When deploying Active/Standby pseudowires, the CE does not require any special configuration

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 41

MC-LAG is only supported on network ports.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 42

Which of the following needs to be considered when designing Ethernet networks with redundancy?

Options:

A.

Processing the TTL takes extra time.

B.

MAC learning rate is doubled.

C.

FDB size is doubled.

D.

Requires a protocol to remove loops.

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Questions 43

How is MAC learning achieved in traditional Ethernet switches?

Options:

A.

As frames leave the switch, the DA is populated into the FDB.

B.

As frames enter the switch, the DA is populated into the FDB.

C.

As frames leave the switch, the SA is populated into the FDB.

D.

As frames enter the switch, the SA is populated into the FDB.

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Questions 44

Click on the exhibit below.

A new site is added to PE-D of Metro B. Which of the following statement below is true?

Options:

A.

If a spoke-SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

B.

If a mesh- SDP is configured between the new site and PE-D no further SDPs will be required.

C.

A mesh- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

D.

A spoke- SDP must be configured between the new site and all other PEs within Metro B.

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Questions 45

How do user VPLSs become associated with a management VPLS for redundant spoke-sdp connections?

Options:

A.

The association must be defined in the user VPLS service.

B.

The association is done when the user VPLS is associated with the same sdp-id in the management VPLS

C.

The association is based on service IDs.

D.

The association is based on customer IDs.

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Questions 46

Two management VPLSs have been created. mVPLS 1 and mVPLS 2. Two user VPLS services exist. uVPLS 10 and uVPLS 20. What command can be used to determine which management VPLS is managing uVPLS 10?

Options:

A.

show stp 10

B.

show service vpls 1 stp

C, show service id 10 stp

C.

show service id 1 stp or show service id 2 stp

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Questions 47

Why is it best practice to set the bridge priority in an STP network? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

This is not a best practice. Any switch can be used as the root bridge.

B.

So that you know which links will be active in your network.

C.

To prevent a new switch from becoming root when added to the network.

D.

To allow all ports on the root switch to become alternate ports.

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Questions 48

In a BGP VPLS, which of the following BGP attributes is used to carry the L2 MTU?

Options:

A.

The NRLI

B.

The AFI

C.

The SAFI

D.

The extended community

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Questions 49

Which of the following OAM tools can be used as a VPLS topology discovery mechanism (Choose 2)?

Options:

A.

oam mac-ping

B.

oam mac-populate

C.

oamsvc-ping

D.

oam mac-trace

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Questions 50

Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements in the Nokia 7750 SR QoS solution'

Options:

A.

Marking/Remarking

B.

Classification

C.

Encapsulation

D.

Scheduling

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Questions 51

Which of the following statements regarding policing and shaping on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR are TRUE? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The larger the configured MBS value, the lower the amount of shaping performed.

B.

When policing is enabled on the SAP-ingress, all traffic is considered as in-profile.

C.

Setting the CIR to 1000 and the PIR to max will enable shapeless policing at 1 Mbps within the SAP-egress policy.

D.

Configuring MBS to equal CBS will disable shaping.

E.

Setting the CIR and PIR to equal values disables soft-policing.

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Questions 52

For the Carrier supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which routes are advertised between CSC-PE1 and SCS-PE2?

Options:

A.

BGP IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

B.

VPN-IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

C.

BGP labeled IPv4 routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

D.

LDP labeled routes for all PE system addresses in AS 5000.

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Questions 53

Click the exhibit button below.

All interfaces are using their default trust states and MPLS is used as the transport tunnel. The SAP-ingress, SAP-egress, and network QoS policies have been configured as shown below. Assume that the default network-queue policy is used on each router.

At router PE 1, customer traffic is arriving marked with DSCP BE and tagged with a dot1p value of 3.

Based on the configuration shown below for the VPRN service, what will be the DSCP and dot1p marking for the packet egressing at router PE 2? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The DSCP value will be set to af21.

B.

The DSCP value will be set to be.

C.

TheDSCPvaluewillbesettoaf23.

D.

The DSCP value will be set to af 12.

E.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto5.

F.

Thedot1pvaluewillbesetto2.

G.

The dot1p value will be set to 3.

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Questions 54

Click the exhibit button below. Given that the slope-policy (below) has been enabled and applied on a network port, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All out-of-profile traffic will be dropped before any in-profile is dropped.

B.

The time average factor of 0 will discard all packets arriving in the shared buffer pool.

C.

When the shared buffer utilization reaches 51%, in-profile packets might be dropped.

D.

The highest probability with which an out-of-profile packet can be dropped is 20%.

E.

When an in-profile packet arrives and the shared buffer utilization is at 69%, the packet will have approximately a 60% likelihood of being discarded.

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Questions 55

Click the exhibit button below. The service provider has both a VLL (epipe) service and a VPLS, as shown in the diagram below.

At router PE B, traffic arriving from both services will have the same network-queue policy applied.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 56

Without_______, a customer's high priority traffic can be dropped before its low priority traffic.

Options:

A.

packet filtering

B.

prioritization of traffic flows

C.

least cost routing

D.

OAM functionality

E.

separation between the data plane and the control plane

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Questions 57

Individual application streams are considered microflows, whereas __________ are considered macroflows.

Options:

A.

SAPs

B.

SDPs

C.

Services

D.

Queues

E.

Schedulers

F.

Forwarding classes

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Questions 58

Click the exhibit button below. Given the SAP-ingress policy, which of the following statements are TRUE? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

All AF traffic will be marked "in-profile" at the SAP-ingress.

B.

All TCP traffic will be mapped to forwarding class EF.

C.

UDP traffic is placed in queue 3 while ICMP traffic is placed in queue 5.

D.

EF traffic will receive higher scheduling priority than H2 traffic.

E.

Traffic that does not match any of the IP criteria will be placed in queue 3.

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Questions 59

Which of the following about self-generated traffic QoS is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The DSCP marking stays ncl for all applications; only the internal forwarding class is manipulated across different applications.

B.

DSCP bits can be set per application, per routing instance.

C.

The internal forwarding class for self-generated traffic is set once and applied to the base router and all VPRN instances.

D.

Self-generated traffic can be marked at Layer 2 no matter what encapsulation is used on the network interfaces.

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Questions 60

What is an SLA? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

An SLA is used to provide automated, real-time testing and alarming for throughput, latency, and jitter across a provider's network.

B.

An SLA is an agreement between a customer and a provider that dictates the treatment of customer traffic across the provider's network.

C.

An SLA allows customers to control all traffic within the service provider's network by prioritizing their traffic over others as desired.

D.

An SLA allows a customer to pre-mark traffic and ensure that traffic is treated as per the agreement within the provider's network.

E.

An SLA is a standard set of network QoS policies that a provider shares to all its customers, allowing them to better understand the treatment of traffic within the provider's network.

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Questions 61

Which of the following statements about LAGs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

A network LAG can only connect to another network LAG.

B.

All port numbers must match between LAG endpoints.

C.

All port physical speeds must match between members of a LAG.

D.

It aggregates traffic from multiple physical ports into a single virtual port.

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Questions 62

Traffic assigned to forwarding classes is placed into queues, while the contents of the queues are serviced in a controlled manner using____________.

Options:

A.

WRED

B.

shapers

C.

schedulers

D.

markers

E.

weighted fair queues (WFQ)

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Questions 63

When allocating scheduling resources, which of the following statements BEST describes how the egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth?

Options:

A.

The egress port scheduler takes the ratio of requested bandwidth to total bandwidth request from all children. It allocates bandwidth fairly, using these percentages and not exceeding the egress interface speed.

B.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth based on a WRR distribution method that takes into account the CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max speed, either default or configured, on egress.

C.

The egress port scheduler allocates bandwidth on a first come, first served distribution method that takes into account the total CIR and PIR requested at each level and the max PIR requested from a single level.

D.

The egress port scheduler will limit the bandwidth offered to the egress port based on the over-subscription factor, provisioned under the router interface, while using a WRR scheduler for the remaining bandwidth.

E.

The egress port scheduler will use the Russian Dolls Method to allocate bandwidth to each level of requested bandwidth. HPO-Only is automatically set to 100%, allowing only high priority traffic to be buffered during congestion.

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Questions 64

On an Alcatel-Lucent IOM 3, how is buffer memory allocated per forwarding complex?

Options:

A.

512 MB ingress, 512 MB egress

B.

256 MB ingress, 256 MB egress

C.

1 GB dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

D.

768 MB dynamically allocated between ingress and egress.

E.

768 MB, with a minimum of 256 MB ingress and egress, and an additional 256 MB dynamically allocated.

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Questions 65

To manage the shared buffer space at network ports, slope policies are applied on _________ for the ingress direction, and on ________ or _________ for the egress direction.

Options:

A.

Interfaces, ports, SAPs

B.

Ports, ports, MDAs

C.

MDAs, MDAs, ports

D.

Interfaces, interfaces. MDAs

E.

MDAs, ports, interfaces

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Questions 66

Which of the following is uniquely identified by the VPLS-ID in an LDP VPLS using Auto-Discovery^*

Options:

A.

VPLS switch identifier.

B.

VPLS service identifier.

C.

VPLS router identifier to all PEs.

D.

A locally unique VPLS service identifier.

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Questions 67

Which of the following are categories of forwarding classes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Real-time

B.

Assured

C.

Non-conforming

D.

High priority

E.

In-profile

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Questions 68

Click the exhibit button below. A service provider has applied the SAP-ingress policy configuration below on his customer's SAP. The service provider notices that all of the customer's traffic is being dropped at the SAP-ingress. Which of the following actions can resolve the problem, if applied on its own? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Set the CIR of queue 3 to a non-zero value corresponding to the customer's expected bandwidth requirements.

B.

Set queue 3 to use priority mode.

C.

Set the traffic classification of packets to in-profile.

D.

Set the high-priority-only value to 0.

E.

Map AF traffic to queue 1

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Questions 69

According to the SAP-egress policy configured and applied, which queue will EF traffic use?

Options:

A.

Queue 2 in "policer-output-queues," the default queue group used by policers on egress, because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

B.

The local SAP's queue 1, because there is no queue in the "qg-10" queue-group template for EF traffic.

C.

Queue 1 in the "qg-10" queue-group, because it exists by default and all traffic is mapped to it.

D.

EF traffic is dropped because there are no queues in the "qg-10" queue-group template.

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Questions 70

Forwarding subclasses are only relevant to, and are therefore applied within the context of, a _____________policy.

Options:

A.

network

B.

scheduling

C.

slope

D.

SAP-ingress

E.

network-queue

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Questions 71

Which of the following statements are TRUE when discussing self-generated traffic QoS? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

In order to mark Layer 2 traffic, sgt-qos will set various ToS bits.

B.

DSCP bits can be set per application, per routing instance.

C.

The DSCP marking stays nc1 for all applications. Only the internal FC is manipulated across different applications.

D.

In order to mark Layer 2 self-generated traffic, network interfaces must be set to dot1Q.

E.

The internal forwarding class for self-generated traffic is set once and applied to the base router and all VPRN instances.

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Questions 72

The IP ToS field consists of ________ bits, of which ________are used. The _________most significant (first) bits define precedence.

Options:

A.

8, 6, 3

B.

8, 8, 6

C.

16, 8, 4

D.

8, 6, 4

E.

24, 16, 8

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Questions 73

What happens to a route that is rejected by an import policy on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

The route is discarded.

B.

The route is kept in the RIB-In, but marked as an invalid route.

C.

The route is moved to the LOC-RIB, but not marked as a used route.

D.

The route is moved to the route table, but not to the FIB.

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Questions 74

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the 16-bit public autonomous system numbers?

Options:

A.

They are allocated to the RIRs by ICANN/IANA.

B.

They are used when connecting ASs on the Internet.

C.

They range from 1 to 56319.

D.

They are assigned by the ISPs for enterprise networks.

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Questions 75

Which of the following regarding BGP confederations is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A confederation is a collection of Autonomous Systems advertised as a single AS number to BGP speakers outside the confederation.

B.

Each member AS must either maintain a full mesh of iBGP sessions, or use route reflection.

C.

Confederations can be used to subdivide ASs that have a large number of BGP speakers into smaller domains.

D.

A full mesh of intra-confederation eBGP sessions is required between the member ASs.

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Questions 76

An autonomous system has 7 routers configured with BGP. How many iBGP sessions are required for a fully meshed configuration?

Options:

A.

7

B.

13

C.

21

D.

42

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Questions 77

Which of the following is TRUE if the local state of BGP is OpenConfirm?

Options:

A.

The local system has received a Keepalive message and is ready to exchange updates.

B.

The local system is exchanging Update messages with its neighbor.

C.

The local system has sent a Keepalive message to its neighbor and is waiting to receive one back.

D.

The local system has sent an Open message to its neighbor and is waiting to receive one back.

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Questions 78

Which of the following statements regarding BGP Add-Paths is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Add-Paths allows non-best paths to be advertised to a peer.

B.

Add-Paths capabilities are exchanged between peers after the BGP session is established.

C.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to receive multiple paths from its peer.

D.

A BGP speaker must advertise the capability to send multiple paths to its peer.

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Questions 79

Which of the following statements regarding BGP route selection is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Lower local preference is preferred over higher local preference.

B.

Higher MED is preferred over lower MED.

C.

Higher origin code is preferred over lower origin code.

D.

Lower BGP router ID is preferred over higher BGP router ID.

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Questions 80

Which of the following statements best describes the output from an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR shown below?

Options:

A.

The BGP session from PE to P is not operational

B.

The BGP session between PEs is operational

C.

The BGP session between PE and CE is not operational

D.

The BGP session from PE to CE is operational

E.

The BGP session between PEs is not operational

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Questions 81

How was standard BGP modified to allow it to carry routing information for VPRNs?

Options:

A.

By using the MED attribute to carry the OSPF metric.

B.

By defining Extended Communities for use as the Route Target

C.

By using the Cluster List attribute to carry the network prefix

D.

By defining support for the VPN-IPv4 address family

E.

By adding an additional field to the BGP Update to carry the VPRN label

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Questions 82

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for a customer carrier who is an Internet Service Provider (ISP). Which of the following configuration steps is NOT required?

Options:

A.

Configuring iBGP sessions between PEs residing in different customer carrier sites,

B.

Configuring a policy on each CSC-CE to advertise local PE addresses to the network provider.

C.

Configuring a CSC VPRN on each CSC-PE with a SAP interface towards the attached CSC-CE.

D.

Configuring an IES service on PEL

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Questions 83

Which of the following about inter-AS model C VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ASBRs exchange labeled IPv4 routes for the system addresses of PE routers.

B.

It requires a route reflector to be configured in each AS for successful operation.

C.

VPN-IPv4 routes are neither maintained nor distributed by the ASBRs.

D.

PE routers in different ASes exchange VPN-IPv4 routes directly between each other using MP-eBGP.

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Questions 84

You are configuring a VPLS spoke termination to a VPRN on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR. If LDP is used for all transport tunnels, what type of sessions are established by the VPRN PE router that is configured with the spoke termination?

Options:

A.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

B.

T-LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

C.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and the VPLS PE router

D.

LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers, and both T-LDP and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

E.

T-LDP and LDP sessions with the other VPRN PE routers and LDP sessions with the VPLS PE router

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Questions 85

Click the exhibit.

Community lists are configured for the PE hub and spoke VPRN. Which communities should be exported by the VPRN service on PE1?

Options:

A.

"Spoke.Sites" and "Hub_Site"

B.

"Spoke_Sites"

C.

"Hub_Site"

D.

No communities should be exported

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Questions 86

When a routing protocol is configured as the PE-CE protocol at one site of a customer VPRN, the same routing protocol must be configured as the PE-CE protocol at all other sites of the same customer VPRN.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 87

In a VPRN, how does the service provider ensure that customer addresses are unique when multiple customers use the same address space?

Options:

A.

It is the customer responsibility to ensure their address space is unique

B.

The Route Distinguisher ensures that addresses are unique between customers.

C.

The Route Target ensures that addresses are unique between customers

D.

The provider will advise the customers to change their addresses

E.

The provider will use NAT to ensure that addresses are unique between customers

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Route Distinguisher? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

It is an 8 byte value containing 3 fields

B.

The Route Distinguisher must have the same value as the Route Target.

C.

The Administrator field contains either an AS number or an IP number

D.

To ensure uniqueness, Route Distinguishers are assigned by the IANA.

E.

The Route Distinguisher is not used if the customer addresses do not overlap

F.

The Assigned Number field must contain a public IP address

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Questions 89

MC-LAG provides link and node protection from an MDU to 3 or more PE devices.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 90

For Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN, which of the following is NOT applicable to both types of customer carriers: BGP/MPLS service providers and Internet service providers?

Options:

A.

eBGP is used for route and label exchange between CSC-CE and CSC-PE routers.

B.

iBGP can be used to distribute routes between CSC-CE and PE routers.

C.

MP-iBGP is used to advertise routes between the CSC-PE routers.

D.

MP-iBGP is used to advertise end-customer and Internet routes directly between the PE routers.

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Questions 91

Which method does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR use for the allocation of VPRN labels?

Options:

A.

One label per route

B.

One label per next-hop

C.

One label per VRF

D.

One label per prefix

E.

One label per tunnel

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Questions 92

Click the exhibit.

A Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is configured for a customer carrier who is a BGP/MPLS service provider. If CE1 sends an IP packet to 192.168.200.1, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 pushes a VPN label, a BGP label, and an LDP transport label on the IP packet.

B.

CSC-CE1 pops the LDP label and swaps the BGP label.

C.

CSC-PE1 pops the BGP label, swaps the VPN label, and pushes an LDP transport label.

D.

CSC-PE2 pops the LDP and VPN labels and pushes a BGP label.

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Questions 93

Click the exhibit.

One Route Distinguisher is assigned per VRF. If CE1 and CE2 advertise prefix 10.1.1.0/24, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

PE1 and PE2 advertise the same VPN route to the route reflector.

B.

The route reflector receives two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24; one from PE1 and one from PE2.

C.

The route reflector reflects two routes for prefix 10.1.1.0/24.

D.

PE3 receives two routes and is able to load balance traffic across PE1 and PE2.

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Questions 94

In a VPRN, what type of logical topology is required for the BGP sessions configured in the provider core?

Options:

A.

Full mesh between all CE, PE and P devices

B.

Full mesh between PE and P devices

C.

Full mesh of P devices

D.

Full mesh of PE devices

E.

Full mesh between PE and CE devices

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Questions 95

Which of the following about Carrier Supporting Carrier (CSC) VPRN is FALSE?

Options:

A.

CSC does not allow a customer carrier to offer Layer 2 services to its end customers.

B.

A CSC VPRN is configured on the network provider's CSC-PE routers.

C.

CSC eliminates the need for customer carriers to build and maintain their own MPLS backbone.

D.

The network provider provides an MPLS VPN backbone to the customer carrier.

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Exam Code: 4A0-C02
Exam Name: Nokia SRA Composite Exam
Last Update: May 3, 2024
Questions: 639
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